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ACR-108 Assessment - Mr. Graham

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When performing mechanical troubleshooting on an air-conditioning system, a technician should have __________.

a)

gauges and temperature-testing equipment

b)

an ohmmeter and a digital manometer

c)

digital manometer and a megger

d)

an ohmmeter and megohmmeter

2.

The difference in temperature between the refrigerant condensing temperature and the ambient air blowing over the condenser coil is called _______.

a)

subcooling

b)

superheat

c)

Delta T

d)

temperature split

3.

During standard operating conditions, there will be approximately a ____°F wet-bulb drop from the evaporator inlet to the evaporator outlet.

a)

20

b)

5

c)

10

d)

15

4.

The humidity in the air at the evaporator outlet will be at almost ____%.

a)

90

b)

50

c)

70

d)

80

5.

For a system that utilizes a R-410A compressor, the discharge line may be as hot as _____°F under normal conditions. Care must be taken when attaching a thermometer.

a)

150

b)

225

c)

325

d)

175

6.

Manufacturers report that a fairly high percentage of compressors returned to them under warranty are actually not defective but were reported by the technician as defective.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

A standard efficiency system usually has a refrigerant boiling temperature of about ____°F cooler than the entering-air temperature at standard operating conditions.

a)

35

b)

45

c)

15

d)

25

8.

If a condenser is located under a deck, air may be circulated back through the condenser and cause ________.

a)

high head pressure

b)

low compressor discharge line temperatures

c)

low head pressure

d)

high subcooling

9.

On small systems, a technician should not connect a gauge manifold every time the system is serviced.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

The gauge manifold displays low- and high-side pressures that can be converted to _________ temperatures using a T/P chart.

a)

vacuum

b)

ambient

c)

Celsius

d)

saturation

11.

As a rule of thumb, the air leaving the evaporator will be about ____ than the air entering the evaporator.

a)

10-15° warmer

b)

10-15° cooler

c)

17-20° cooler

d)

17-20° warmer

12.

A service valve can be used to ____.

a)

check the electrical service to the compressor

b)

isolate the refrigerant so the system can be serviced

c)

check the air flow across the evaporator

d)

check the ambient temperature at the condenser

13.

A typical evaporator superheat reading at the evaporator outlet for a central air-conditioning system on a 95°F day would be ____°F.

a)

5-7

b)

8-10

c)

10-12

d)

12-15

14.

On a 95°F day, the R-22 refrigerant pressure on the high side should be about ____ psig.

a)

108

b)

182

c)

243

d)

297

15.

The liquid line temperature is used to determine the ____ of a condenser.

a)

superheat

b)

low-side pressure

c)

suction pressure

d)

subcooling

16.

To accurately add refrigerant to a system, a condenser ambient temperature of ____°F should be simulated.

a)

75

b)

85

c)

95

d)

100

17.

The instrument to use to check for a short in the compressor motor winding is a(n) ____.

a)

ohmmeter

b)

ammeter

c)

voltmeter

d)

milliammeter

18.

With a rise in outdoor temperature, the head pressure will rise.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Superheat occurs in the condenser as well as the evaporator.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

The best way to tell if a compressor's discharge line is at the correct temperature is to grab hold of it.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Subcooling occurs in the evaporator as well as the condenser.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

When checking the electrical circuits of an air-conditioning system, each parallel circuit should be isolated and checked separately.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

If a compressor has a partially shorted winding, it could run for a while, overheat, and shut off.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Reducing the CFM through the evaporator will cause the head pressure to ____________________.

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

stay the same

d)

fluctuate

25.

On most gauge manifolds, the suction or low side gauge is located on the ____________________.

a)

right

b)

left

c)

middle

d)

it varies

26.

Temperature difference is used to describe the difference in the inlet and (a)   temperature of a heat exchanger.

27.

Two types of fixed-bore metering devices are capillary tubes and _________________________.

a)

suction side

b)

orifice

c)

liquid line

d)

thermostat

28.

Reducing the CFM through the evaporator will cause the amperage draw of the compressor to ____________________.

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

fluctuate

d)

stay the same

29.

A ____ reacts to stop, start, or modulate the flow of water, air, or refrigerant to the system or conditioned space

a)

sensor

b)

controller

c)

controller device

d)

none of the above

30.

All control systems can be subdivided into ____, no matter how many controls there are.

a)

throttle loops

b)

control loops

c)

control segments

d)

sensor segments

31.

____ control systems were used before electronics.

a)

Pneumatic

b)

Manual

c)

Digital

d)

Mechanical

32.

Pneumatic controls must have a permanent air supply that is ____.

a)

clean and moist

b)

clean and warm

c)

warm and dry

d)

clean and dry

33.

Most system compressors provide ____ psig of air pressure to the storage tank.

a)

90 top 100

b)

90 to 125

c)

100 to 125

d)

100 to 150

34.

In most system compressors, the compressors are controlled with a ____.

a)

pressure switch

b)

heat switch

c)

limiter

d)

governor

35.

A ____ is either in the pressure reducer or in the downstream side of the system to ensure that the control air pressure does not exceed about 30 psig.

a)

blowback valve

b)

relief valve

c)

pulldown valve

d)

pressure valve

36.

In a(n) ____ loop, all changes happen within the loop.

a)

open

b)

modified-closed

c)

modified-open

d)

closed

37.

A device called a ____ is used to control the large volume of air in a air conditioning system.

a)

pilot lockout

b)

pilot positioner

c)

pilot fixator

d)

pilot engagement

38.

The pilot positioner has a main air supply that is governed by the ____.

a)

internal switch

b)

internal lockout

c)

internal diaphragm

d)

internal float

39.

Controlling the water flow to the room’s needs is called ____.

a)

modulating flow

b)

regulating flow

c)

operating flow

d)

systematic flow

40.

The temperature in the room is known as the ____ air temperature.

a)

casual

b)

associated

c)

variable

d)

ambient

41.

Electronic controls are commonly called ____.

a)

discrete digital controls

b)

direct analog controls

c)

direct digital controls

d)

discrete event controls

42.

The controlled environment could be controlled by an array of ____ such as dampers, fans, variable-frequency drives.

a)

direct digital controls

b)

controller output devices

c)

controller input devices

d)

operational devices

43.

____, usually housed internally inside the controller, convert the information from either analog to digital (A/D) or digital to analog (D/A) format.

a)

Single converters

b)

Transceivers

c)

Signal processors

d)

Signal managers

44.

The very first control systems were used to start and stop the various components.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Space temperature is the only temperature that is important in modern systems.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Modern control systems only have on-off control capability.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Today control output devices can receive signals as either analog or digital.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Controllers are devices that can measure some type of environmental parameter or a controlled variable and convert this parameter to a value that the controller can understand.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

DDC is a control process in which a microprocessor, acting as a digital controller, constantly updates a database of internal information.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

The ____________________ is the device that responds to a change in conditions.

a)

sensor

b)

thermostat

c)

delay switch

d)

capacitor

51.

In a home air-conditioning system, the ____________________ is the sensor.

a)

thermostat

b)

condenser

c)

delay switch

d)

float switch

52.

Desiccant driers use some of the same products that refrigerant driers use, silica gel or molecular sieve as an adsorbent.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

A control can be which of the following?

a)

electrical

b)

mechanical

c)

electrical and mechanical

d)

all of the above

54.

An example of a power consuming device would be a(n) ____ while an example of a non-power consuming device would be a(n) ____.

a)

single-pole single-throw switch, light bulb

b)

light bulb, electric motor

c)

electric motor, light bulb

d)

light bulb, single-pole single-throw switch

55.

An electrical power consuming component ____.

a)

is normally wired in series in an electrical circuit

b)

is normally used to pass power to another component

c)

is often a basic switch

d)

is also known as a load

56.

The line side of a switch is the ____.

a)

side the load is connected to

b)

neutral side of the circuit

c)

side the power source is connected to

d)

side with the white wire

57.

If an air conditioning system is calling for cooling and the compressor is running but the indoor (evaporator) fan is not running, which terminal on the thermostat will the technician most likely check first?

a)

G

b)

R

c)

Y

d)

W

58.

The _____ is nothing more than a set of switches.

a)

transformer

b)

coil

c)

motor

d)

thermostat

59.

The continuity through a heat relay is checked using a(n) ____.

a)

ohmmeter

b)

voltmeter

c)

clamp-on ammeter

d)

micron gauge

60.

A 10-wrap amperage multiplier is used with a(n) ____.

a)

voltmeter

b)

clamp-on ammeter

c)

ohmmeter

d)

megger

61.

Transformers are rated using ____.

a)

volt-amperes

b)

volt-ohms

c)

amperes-ohms

d)

volt-resistance

62.

A(n) ____ is the easiest diagram to use to follow a circuit. This diagram normally can be studied briefly, and the circuit function should become obvious.

a)

pictorial diagram

b)

ladder diagram

c)

layout

d)

oblique drawing

63.

An electrical diagram showing the approximate location of the components is called a(n) ____.

a)

pictorial diagram

b)

ladder diagram

c)

layout

d)

oblique drawing

64.

If line one of a circuit had a potential of 120 V and line two was neutral, the potential voltage (difference) between line one and line two would be zero volts.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

The heat anticipator in a thermostat is usually an adjustable type.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

The cooling anticipator in a thermostat is usually an adjustable type.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

When checking thermostat circuits, an insulated jumper wire is a handy tool.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

When conditions are correct, the rheostat will pass power through the device onto the system components to be controlled.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

While troubleshooting a 24-V control circuit consisting of a thermostat, a pressure control, and a contactor coil, the technician reads 24 volts across the thermostat, 0 volts across the pressure control, and 0 volts across the contactor coil. The technician makes the following statements. The following statements are all considered to be true.

A) The transformer is burned out.

B) The thermostat is open.

C) The contactor coil is energized.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

A 120-V/24-V control transformer has a VA rating of 20. The maximum amperage the transformer will put out is 0.8 amps.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

When using a ten-wrap multiplier, the reading on the meter must be multiplied by ten.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

The purpose of a heat anticipator is to ____.

a)

anticipate a sudden rise in temperature

b)

keep the thermostat warm

c)

reduce the temperature swing of a conditioned space

d)

ensure that the system transformer does not overheat

73.

The difference between system overshoot and system lag is called ____.

a)

room temperature

b)

temperature rise

c)

temperature swing

d)

room swing

74.

What is meant by the term "detent"?

a)

Slow motion of a contact to ensure good electrical contact.

b)

Rapid making and breaking of a contact.

c)

The compensation furnished by heaters in the thermostat.

d)

The control of the blower in the air handler.

75.

The heat anticipator in the thermostat control circuit in the heating mode is active when the ____.

a)

heating contact is open

b)

heating contact is closed

c)

fan switch is open

d)

fan switch is closed

76.

The heater in the thermostat control circuit in the cooling mode is active when the ____.

a)

cooling contact is open

b)

cooling contact is closed

c)

fan switch is open

d)

fan switch is closed

77.

The cold anticipator is wired in ____ with the mercury bulb cooling contacts and is energized during the off cycle.

a)

parallel

b)

series

c)

sequence

d)

opposition

78.

To properly set the heat anticipator, the ____ must determine what the current flow is through the heating control circuit when the furnace is operating in a steady state condition.

a)

manufacturer

b)

homeowner

c)

electrician

d)

heating technician

79.

Line voltage thermostats have heavier contacts and use which type of sensing element?

a)

Bimetal

b)

Bellows

c)

Remote bulb

d)

All of the Above

80.

To obtain an accurate reading of a fluid in a large pipe, a technician should ____.

a)

strap a dial-type pocket thermometer to the pipe

b)

use a digital thermometer in a glass of ice water

c)

use a permanently mounted thermometer in a well

d)

Any of the above will work fine.

81.

A low-pressure control has a "high event" and a "differential" setting. The technician wants the system to turn on at 28 psig and shut down at 2 psig. What would be the proper settings?

a)

High event: 28 psig, differential: 2 psig.

b)

High event: 2 psig, differential: 2 psig.

c)

High event: 28 psig, differential: 26 psig.

d)

High event: 2 psig, differential: 28 psig.

82.

If the suction pressure of a system is 60 psig and the oil pump outlet is 85 psig, what is the net oil pressure?

a)

60 psig

b)

25 psig

c)

85 psig

d)

145 psig

83.

Oil pressure safety controls measure the difference in pressure to establish ____.

a)

the compressor is running

b)

the oil pump is running

c)

that negative oil pressure is present

d)

that positive oil pressure is present

84.

To prove that the combustion blower motor is operating before ignition, a ____ would be used.

a)

toggle switch

b)

pressure differential switch

c)

push button switch

d)

sail switch

85.

To control ice build-up on a heat pump outdoor coil in the heating cycle, a ____ is attached to a large diaphragm.

a)

toggle switch

b)

micro-switch

c)

push button switch

d)

sail switch

86.

Where would a water regulating valve that is controlling head pressure be installed?

a)

Water circuit at inlet of condenser.

b)

Discharge line at outlet of compressor.

c)

Suction line.

d)

Liquid line close to the condenser.

87.

When a water-regulating valve is used to control the head pressure of a water-cooled system, the valve's spring acts against which pressure to modulate the water flow?

a)

Head pressure of the system.

b)

Water pressure.

c)

Suction pressure.

d)

Atmospheric pressure.

88.

The heat anticipator in a thermostat prevents the temperature in the conditioned space from rising above the thermostat setting.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

The cold anticipator starts the cooling system early to allow the air-conditioning system to get up to capacity when needed.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

The advantage of using a thermistor-type thermometer over a mercury-filled thermometer for measuring refrigerant line temperature is that the thermistor-type does not have to be insulated.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

A helix coil is used in some applications to sense temperature in a moving air stream.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

A dual pressure control is actually a low pressure control and a high pressure control connected in parallel with each other.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

Many natural gas fired heating units operate at a manifold pressure of 3.5 in. WC.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

The automatic control of a system is intended to ____.

a)

maintain the working conditions of the equipment with a controllable device

b)

evaluate overloading situations

c)

maintain stable or constant conditions without excessive human interference

d)

maintain safe operations for service technicians

95.

Modulating controls are used to ____.

a)

start motors

b)

stop motors

c)

vary the speed of a motor

d)

stop the flow of a liquid

96.

When a control is required to control space or product temperature, it is called a ____.

a)

safety device

b)

thermostat

c)

pressure control

d)

speed control

97.

A thermal system overload may occur if a specific electrical or mechanical component is not cooled properly, resulting in ____.

a)

underload

b)

failure

c)

stagnation pressure

d)

overheating

98.

Devices, such as thermostats, that open and close their contacts during the ____ operation of the system are referred to as operational controls.

a)

normal

b)

initial

c)

most recent

d)

final

99.

The compressor in the refrigerator has a protective device that keeps it from overloading and damaging itself. This device is called a(n) ____.

a)

overload

b)

capacitor

c)

mass control

d)

speed control

100.

The metals most often used in a bimetal temperature control are ____.

a)

copper and brass

b)

copper and steel

c)

brass and steel

d)

brass and aluminum