WorksheetsMDAS Certification Test Review
Total questions: 174
Worksheet time: 1hrs 27mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The sequence of events that allows an infection to spread.
a)
Chain of custody
b)
Portal of entry
c)
Portal of exit
d)
Chain of infection
2.
A record of the patient's past medical history, present physical condition, and insurance benefits.
a)
Patient information and assessment form
b)
Progress notes
c)
Socioeconomic status
d)
Medical-dental history
3.
Considered a potentially infectious body fluid
a)
Skin
b)
Saliva
c)
Blood
d)
Sweat
4.
Infection with rapid onset and short course
a)
Acute infection
b)
Latent infection
c)
Systemic infection
d)
Chronic infection
5.
Injection of anesthetic solution directly into a small, isolated area of tissue at the site of dental procedure
a)
Spinal anesthesia
b)
Epidural anesthesia
c)
Induction anesthesia
d)
Infiltration anesthesia
6.
Transmission through touching or contact with patient's blood or saliva
a)
Direct transmission
b)
Droplet transmission
c)
Vector-borne transmission
d)
Airborne transmission
7.
Injury through the skin, such as a needle stick
a)
Bloodborne
b)
Direct contact
c)
Percutaneous injury
d)
Acute infection
8.
Process that destroys all microbial forms, including bacterial spores
a)
Sanitization
b)
Sanitation
c)
Antisepsis
d)
Sterilization
9.
Conscious sedation method using nitrous oxide and oxygen
a)
Anesthetic syringe
b)
Ultrasonic cleaner
c)
Mistlike aerosols
d)
Nitrous oxide/oxygen analgesia
10.
Aerosols capable of remaining airborne for extended periods and can be inhaled
a)
Nitrous oxide/oxygen analgesia
b)
Anesthetic syringe
c)
Mistlike aerosols
d)
Ultrasonic cleaner
11.
Government agency that issues specific standards to protect the health of employees
a)
FDA
b)
OSHA
c)
EPA
d)
CDC
12.
Temporary loss of feeling or sensation in a specific area
a)
General anesthesia
b)
Infiltration anesthesia
c)
Balanced anesthesia
d)
Local anesthesia
13.
Disease-causing organisms
a)
Pathogens
b)
Toxins
c)
Bacteria
d)
Viruses
14.
Law designed to protect employees against occupational exposure to blood-borne disease-causing organisms
a)
Occupational Safety and Health Administration Guidelines
b)
Employee Rights Protection Act
c)
OSHA Blood-Borne Pathogens (BBP) Standard
d)
Workplace Injury Compensation Law
15.
Permanent document containing overall health and dental status of a patient
a)
Graphic record
b)
Treatment plan
c)
Patient record
d)
Tumor record
16.
Infection through inhaling aerosol generated by dental handpiece
a)
Transfusion
b)
Droplet infection
c)
Acute infection
d)
Direct contact
17.
Disease requiring treatment delay until patient is noninfectious
a)
Influenza
b)
Tuberculosis (TB)
c)
Hepatitis
d)
Epstein-barr virus (ebv)
18.
Standard Precautions
a)
A protocol for the safe disposal of medical waste to prevent environmental contamination.
b)
A standard of care designed to protect healthcare providers from pathogens that can be spread by blood or any other body fluid, excretion, or secretion.
c)
A guideline for healthcare providers to ensure they only treat patients with non-contagious diseases.
d)
A method of treatment that focuses on improving patient comfort rather than curing illness.
19.
Transmission by touching or contact with the patient's blood or saliva.
a)
Airborne transmission
b)
Vector-borne transmission
c)
Dental team-to-patient transmission
d)
Direct transmission
20.
Infection control measures that must be practiced to avoid patient-to-patient disease transmission.
a)
Instrument sterilization and use of sterile instruments
b)
Patient consent forms and documentation
c)
Insurance claim processing
d)
Emergency evacuation procedures
21.
Contact transmission
a)
Transfer of infections via contaminated food or water sources.
b)
Transmission of pathogens occurring through contact from person to another person.
c)
Spread of diseases through airborne particles that remain suspended in the air.
d)
Infection spread through vectors such as insects or animals.
22.
The attachment that polishes the teeth and attaches to the handpiece.
a)
Ultrasonic handpiece
b)
Prophylaxis angle
c)
Contra angle
d)
Portal of entry
23.
The organization that issues specific standards to protect the health of employees in the United States.
a)
FDA
b)
CDC
c)
OSHA
d)
EPA
24.
The pathway into the body that pathogens must have to cause infection.
a)
Host
b)
Portal of entry
c)
Reservoir
d)
Portal of exit
25.
A written policy informing patients that their Protected Health Information (PHI) will not be used or disclosed for any purpose other than treatment, diagnosis, and billing.
a)
Acceptable use policy
b)
Data retention policy
c)
Treatment plan
d)
Privacy policy
26.
The recommended mask for procedures with moderate to heavy amounts of fluid, spray, and aerosols generated.
a)
Cloth mask for general use
b)
Surgical mask with no filtration
c)
N95 respirator for airborne pathogens
d)
ASTM Level 3 mask
27.
The chewing surface of posterior teeth.
a)
Occlusal
b)
Facial
c)
Mesial
d)
Proximal
28.
Pathogens carried in the blood and body fluids of infected individuals that can be transmitted to others.
a)
Infected droplets
b)
Blood-borne pathogens
c)
Infectious agent
d)
Viruses
29.
Transmission of infection to a dental team member through the mucosal surfaces of the eyes, nose, and mouth.
a)
Community-to-dental office-to patient transmission
b)
Direct transmission
c)
Contact transmission
d)
Dental team-to-patient transmission
30.
The ability of a pathogen to cause disease.
a)
Virulence
b)
Morbidity
c)
Toxicity
d)
Infectivity
31.
Universal Precautions
a)
A protocol for administering vaccinations to prevent viral diseases.
b)
A method of treating infections using antibiotics administered through injections.
c)
A standard of care designed to protect healthcare providers from pathogens that can be spread by blood or any other body fluid, excretion, or secretion.
d)
A guideline for the use of surgical instruments in sterile environments.
32.
The bitewing film may be positioned in either a vertical or a horizontal position.
a)
True
b)
False
33.
The radiograph that shows images of the entire length of the tooth, including the apex, is the:
a)
bitewing.
b)
periapical
c)
occlusal.
d)
All of the above.
34.
The radiographic technique that produces the least amount of distortion to the image is the
a)
paralleling technique
b)
occlusal technique
c)
bisection of the angle technique
d)
panoramic technique
35.
In the paralleling technique, the film is placed
a)
at right angles to both the film and the long axis of the tooth
b)
parallel to the long axis of the tooth
c)
close to the crowns of the teeth
d)
Both A and B are correct
36.
The premolar periapical film should include
a)
the distal half of the canine.
b)
both premolars
c)
the canine
d)
Both A and B
37.
Incorrect __________ angulation will result in closed contacts on the radiograph
a)
horizontal
b)
vertical
38.
The long axis of the tooth is an imaginary line, dividing the tooth in half horizontally
a)
True
b)
False
39.
An edentulous patient will not require radiographs of any kind
a)
True
b)
False
40.
Film-holding devices can be used for both the paralleling and bisection of the angle technique
a)
True
b)
False
41.
Digital images are electronic signals captured by a sensor
a)
True
b)
False
42.
The type(s) of digital imaging is/are
a)
direct digital imaging
b)
indirect digital imaging
c)
storage phosphor imaging
d)
All of the above
43.
After exposure, each mount should be labeled with the patient's name and the date
a)
True
b)
False
44.
Film-holding instruments and bite-blocks that are placed in the patient's mouth are considered semicritical items and must be sterilized or high-level disinfected before reuse.
a)
True
b)
False
45.
Which of the following are sources of disease transmission during dental radiography?
a)
Film packets
b)
Control panel
c)
Dental chair controls
d)
All of the above.
46.
Dental radiographic equipment that should receive a protective barrier includes:
a)
x-ray machine.
b)
lead apron
c)
Dental chair.
d)
All of the above
47.
Dental Imaging enables the dentist to
a)
Detect early-stage dental caries
b)
Evaluate growth and development
c)
See conditions that are not visible
d)
All of the options are correct
48.
Exposure to radiation:
a)
(No matter how small) has the potential to cause harmful biologic changes
b)
has a threshold, below which exposure is entirely safe.
c)
is safer when there is a single large dose rather than a series of smaller doses.
d)
from a dental X-ray machine does not involve particulate radiation and is completely safe
49.
In dentistry, the _____ the wavelengths of the x-rays, the greater their energy and their usefulness will be
a)
shorter
b)
longer
c)
more ionized
d)
Straighter
50.
Which component of the x-ray machine functions in positioning the tubehead?
a)
Kilovoltage selector
b)
Control panel
c)
Extension arm
d)
Cathode
51.
Secondary radiation
a)
is often referred to as the useful beam.
b)
is often referred to as the primary beam.
c)
refers to x-radiation that is created when the primary beam interacts with matter.
d)
is a form of radiation that occurs when an x-ray beam has been deflected from its path by interaction with matter.
52.
What part of the x-ray machine aims the central ray?
a)
Cylinder
b)
PID
c)
Cathode
d)
X-ray tube
53.
Which of the following structures will appear radiopaque on dental x-ray film?
a)
Metal restorations
b)
Soft tissue
c)
Tooth decay
d)
Dental pulp
54.
. The term _____ is used to describe areas that appear dark on the radiograph; _____ is the term used to describe areas that appear white or light gray.
a)
radiopaque; radiolucent
b)
radiolucent; radiopaque
c)
density; contrast
d)
contrast; density
55.
The range of shades of gray between black and white on a radiograph is called
a)
contrast.
b)
density.
c)
sharpness.
d)
focus point.
56.
The sharpness of an image is influenced by
a)
focal spot size
b)
film composition.
c)
movement of the patient
d)
All of the options.
57.
What does the ALARA concept state?
a)
.ALARA is a professional organization for dental assistants
b)
Anyone taking x-rays must be certified.
c)
Keep radiation exposure as low as reasonably achievable.
d)
None of the options.
58.
A critical component in obtaining a quality panoramic radiograph is
a)
patient positioning.
b)
qualified operator
c)
proper film processing.
d)
All of the options are correct.
59.
Which of the following types of pathogens are carried in the blood and body fluids of infected individuals and that can be transmitted to others?
a)
Blood-borne
b)
Parenteral
c)
Virulent
d)
Acquired
60.
Which of the following is the most common route of patient to dental team disease transmission in the dental office?
a)
Droplet infection through inhaling aerosol generated by the dental handpiece
b)
Direct contact with the patient’s blood or saliva
c)
Indirect contact with a contaminated surface
d)
Indirect contact with a contaminated instrument
61.
The role of _______ is to issue specific standards to protect the health of employees in the United States.
a)
HIPAA
b)
CDC
c)
OSHA
d)
FDA
62.
According to the CDC, ____________ Precautions represent a standard of care designed to protect healthcare providers from pathogens that can be spread by blood or any other body fluid, excretion, or secretion.
a)
Standard
b)
Universal
c)
Nationwide
d)
Uniform
63.
Which of the following is the first procedural step after an exposure incident?
a)
Contact the source patient.
b)
Stop operations immediately
c)
Remove your gloves
d)
Wash your hands thoroughly
64.
CDC guidelines and the OSHA Blood-borne Pathogen Standard consider saliva to be which of the following?
a)
A potentially infectious body fluid
b)
A noninfectious body fluid
c)
A contaminated waste
d)
An infectious waste
65.
Pathogens must have a pathway into the body called a(n) ___________ to cause infection
a)
portal of entry
b)
susceptible host
c)
acute infection
d)
chronic infection
66.
Infection control measures that help to prevent disease transmission to the dental professional include
a)
gloves and handwashing.
b)
rubber dams and the use of patient mouth rinses.
c)
the use of masks.
d)
All of the answer options.
67.
The environmental surfaces that must be cleaned and decontaminated more rigorously than the others are
a)
housekeeping surfaces.
b)
clinical contact surfaces.
c)
floors and walls.
d)
sinks.
68.
Chemicals that destroy or inactivate most species of pathogenic microorganisms on inanimate surfaces are called
a)
disinfectants
b)
sterilants
c)
antiseptics
d)
antibiotics
69.
The human mouth is divided into two dental ___________.
a)
quadrants.
b)
arches
c)
sextants.
d)
segments.
70.
_______ are the longest teeth in the human dentition and are used for cutting and tearing
a)
Incisors
b)
Canines
c)
Molars
d)
Premolars
71.
Which of the following is the preferred term for bicuspid
a)
Molar
b)
Premolar
c)
Canine
d)
Incisor
72.
Which of the following surfaces of the maxillary anterior teeth do you mainly see when someone smiles?
a)
Facial
b)
Lingual
c)
Mesial
d)
Distal
73.
The area where the mesial or distal surfaces of the tooth touch the adjacent tooth in the arch is
a)
embrasure.
b)
contact area.
c)
line angle.
d)
point angle.
74.
The tooth numbering system most often used in the United States is the ______
a)
Palmer Notation
b)
Universal/National
c)
International Standards Organization
d)
Fédération Dentaire Internationale
75.
Which term is used to describe the period when both primary teeth and permanent teeth are present at the same time in the oral cavity?
a)
Primary
b)
Mixed
c)
Permanent
d)
Rudimentary
76.
The temporomandibular joint permits movement of the
a)
gomphosis.
b)
mandible.
c)
maxilla.
d)
cartilaginous joint
77.
The correct order of the teeth from mesial to distal in the permanent dentition
a)
molars, premolars, incisors, canines.
b)
incisors, canines, premolars, molars.
c)
canines, incisors, premolars, molars.
d)
incisors, premolars, canines, molars.
78.
The ______ is the exact spot where adjacent teeth actually touch each other.
a)
contour
b)
contact area
c)
height of contour
d)
contact point
79.
Using the Universal/National Teeth-Numbering System, what are the numbers for the permanent third molars?
a)
1, 16, 17, 32
b)
3, 14, 19, 30
c)
6, 11, 22, 27
d)
2, 15, 18, 31
80.
In the Universal Numbering System, the permanent maxillary first premolars are
a)
#4 and #13.
b)
#5 and #12.
c)
#20, #21, #28, and #29.
d)
#34, #35, #44, and #45.
81.
In the Universal Numbering System, the four second permanent molars are
a)
#16, #26, #36, and #46.
b)
#2, #15, #18, and #31.
c)
#3, #14, #19, and #30.
d)
#18, #28, #38, and #48.
82.
The correct abbreviation for a mesio-occluso-buccal restoration is
a)
BuOcMe.
b)
BOM.
c)
MOD
d)
MOB
83.
The examination of the cheeks, mucosa, lips, palate, tonsil area, tongue, and floor of the mouth to detect any abnormalities is the _____ examination.
a)
soft tissue
b)
oral cavity
c)
hard tissue
d)
oral mucosa
84.
The first priority in formulating a treatment plan is to
a)
restore teeth with composite or amalgam restorations.
b)
place dental implants.
c)
replace missing teeth with fixed and removable prosthodontic appliances.
d)
provide relief of discomfort.
85.
Responsibilities of the dental assistant in documenting the clinical examination include
a)
using the periodontal probe to determine pocket depths.
b)
diagnosing caries.
c)
charting the correct tooth and correct conditions.
d)
determining tooth mobility.
86.
In the Universal Numbering System, the four lateral incisors would be identified as teeth numbers
a)
7, 10, 23, and 26.
b)
6, 11, 22, and 27.
c)
8, 9, 24, and 25.
d)
7, 10, 24, and 25.
87.
Probing and measuring the sulcus for loss of gingival attachment and loss of bone belongs to the legal duty of the
a)
dentist and dental assistant, using an explorer.
b)
dentist and dental hygienist, using a periodontal probe.
c)
dental hygienist only, using a scaler.
d)
dentist and registered dental assistant, using a periodontal probe.
88.
The term used to indicate grinding or clenching teeth is
a)
mouth breathing.
b)
bruxism.
c)
tongue-thrust swallowing.
d)
aspiration.
89.
The most important characteristic of healthy intraoral soft tissue is
a)
a light pink color.
b)
uniform color.
c)
areas that appear reddened, grey, or blue.
d)
stippling.
90.
A written privacy policy informing a patient that an office will not use or disclose Protected Health Information (PHI) for any purpose other than treatment, diagnosis, and billing is mandated by the
a)
American Dental Association (ADA).
b)
National Institutes of Health (NIH).
c)
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).
d)
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA).
91.
Viewing an object with a mirror is called ________ vision
a)
direct
b)
reflective
c)
indirect
d)
inverted
92.
The finger rest that stabilizes the hand so that there is less possibility of slipping or traumatizing the tissue in the mouth is called a
a)
base rest.
b)
fulcrum.
c)
leverage point.
d)
pivot point.
93.
When turning on the dental light over a patient seated and positioned in the supine position, the dental light is directed
a)
at the patient’s face.
b)
over the operator’s head.
c)
in the patient’s mouth.
d)
on the patient’s chest.
94.
A ______________ is used to remove solid debris from the oral cavity during a dental restorative procedure
a)
high-volume evacuator (HVE)
b)
saliva ejector
c)
cuspidor
d)
surgical suction
95.
Which of the following is a small, straw-shaped oral evacuator used during less-invasive procedures to remove excess fluid?
a)
Saliva ejector
b)
High-volume evacuator
c)
Spittoon
d)
Surgical suction tip
96.
During a dental procedure, the saliva ejector should be placed _______ the tongue on the __________ where the dentist is working.
a)
over; same side
b)
over; opposite side from
c)
under; same side
d)
under; opposite side from
97.
After it is used, a plastic HVE tip is
a)
disinfected with an immersion disinfectant.
b)
disinfected with a surface disinfectant.
c)
sterilized in an autoclave.
d)
thrown away
98.
The dental assistant grasps the evacuator in the ________ hand(s) when assisting a right-handed dentist.
a)
right
b)
left
c)
right or left
99.
The HVE suction tip should be positioned
a)
after the dentist positions the handpiece and mouth mirror.
b)
on the surface of the operative tooth closest to the dentist.
c)
so that the bevel of the suction tip is perpendicular to the tooth surface.
d)
so that the edge of the suction tip is even with or slightly beyond the occlusal surface or incisal edge.
100.
The three most common methods used to isolate a specific area of the mouth include
a)
mouth prop, index and middle fingers, and gauze square.
b)
cotton rolls, dry angles, and the dental dam.
c)
cotton roll, dental dam, and index and middle fingers.
d)
mouth prop, gauze squares, and cotton rolls.
101.
The high-volume evacuator (HVE) has three main purposes: (1) retract tongue and cheek; (2) keep mouth free of saliva, blood, debris, and water; and (3)
a)
reduce the bacterial aerosol spray caused by the high-speed handpiece
b)
keep the patient’s mouth fresh.
c)
keep oral tissues from dehydrating.
d)
curette the tooth socket following extraction of a tooth.
102.
When the high-speed handpiece is positioned on the occlusal surface of tooth #3, where would the assistant position the HVE?
a)
Buccal surface of #2
b)
Buccal surface of #4
c)
Lower left buccal vestibule
d)
Lingual surface of #3
103.
Which type of impression is taken to produce a reproduction of the occlusal relationship of the maxilla and mandible teeth when in centric occlusion?
a)
Final
b)
Preliminary
c)
Bite registration
d)
Articulated
104.
Which portion of the maxillary impression tray should be seated in the mouth first?
a)
Anterior
b)
Posterior
c)
Right side
d)
Left side
105.
Each of the following can be done to alleviate the gag reflex when taking alginate impressions except one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a)
use fast-set alginate, because it allows the impression tray to be removed from the mouth much sooner than if using normal set alginate
b)
Do not overload the posterior regions of the trays.
c)
Have the patient take deep breaths through the nose
d)
Have the patient sit upright with the head tilted backward.
106.
How should alginate material be loaded into a maxillary impression tray?
a)
Heavier in the anterior and labial areas
b)
Heavier in the palatal area
c)
Evenly in the tray
d)
. Heavier toward the posterior
107.
Which of the following can slow or prevent the caries process?
a)
Eating more carbohydrates
b)
Taking antibiotics
c)
Increasing salivary flow
d)
Fluoride
108.
Which of the following is true of dental caries?
a)
It is a communicable bacterial disease.
b)
It is a disease that affects older adults but is rare in children
c)
It has been largely eliminated with the use of fluoride.
d)
. The emphasis in fighting caries is shifting toward restorations.
109.
Which is not true of dental plaque?
a)
It is a colorless, sticky coating on the teeth.
b)
It contains an adhesive substance called the pellicle
c)
It contains food debris and does not contain bacteria
d)
It contains 99% more oral bacteria than the same amount of saliva
110.
Which of the following is the part of the periodontium that connects the cementum covering the root of the tooth with the alveolar bone of the socket wall?
a)
Epithelial attachment
b)
Alveolar bone
c)
Periodontal ligament
d)
Periodontium
111.
Which of the following is the leading cause of tooth loss in adults?
a)
Grinding teeth (bruxing)
b)
Old age
c)
Periodontal diseases and dental caries
d)
Lack of home care
112.
Bacteria in dental _____ cause inflammation by producing enzymes and toxins that destroy periodontal tissues and lower host defenses.
a)
calculus
b)
biofilm
c)
scum
d)
subgingival calculus
113.
Which of the following must be removed by the dentist or the dental hygienist with scaling instruments?
a)
Food debris
b)
Plaque
c)
Calculus
d)
Erythrosine stain
114.
Subgingival calculus
a)
is found below the margin of the gingiva
b)
is visible as a yellowish-white deposit.
c)
occurs frequently near the openings of Wharton’s ducts and Stensen’s ducts.
d)
is not site specific and is found throughout the mouth.
115.
Which of the following are the two basic forms of periodontal disease?
a)
Gingivitis and calculus
b)
Calculus and plaque
c)
Plaque and periodontitis
d)
Gingivitis and periodontitis
116.
Gingivitis is
a)
difficult to treat and control.
b)
loss of connective tissue
c)
loss of bone.
d)
inflammation of gingival tissue.
117.
________ is inflammation of the supporting tissues of the teeth, progressing from the gingiva into the connective tissue and alveolar bone that support the teeth.
a)
Gingivitis
b)
Supragingival calculus
c)
Periodontitis
d)
Inflamed gingiva
118.
The presence of which of the following conditions indicates periodontitis rather than gingivitis?
a)
Inflammation
b)
Loss of attachment
c)
Tight adaptation of tissue to teeth
d)
Increased pocket depth without loss of attachment
119.
Which form of periodontal disease is reversible?
a)
Gingivitis
b)
Periodontitis
c)
Both gingivitis and periodontitis
d)
Neither gingivitis nor periodontitis
120.
probing depth of more than ________ mm is associated with gingival disease
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
6
121.
It is important to document home care and that the patient has been informed about the potential for future periodontal disease if home care does not improve
a)
True
b)
False
122.
As a dental assistant, your first step as a partner in prevention with your patients is to help patients
a)
change their behaviors.
b)
become partners in recognizing and preventing dental disease in themselves
c)
become partners in recognizing and preventing dental disease in their families
d)
understand what causes dental disease and how to prevent it
123.
Which of the following can be caused by vigorously scrubbing the teeth with a toothbrush?
a)
Attrition
b)
Abrasion
c)
Erosion
d)
Abfraction
124.
_____ is the process by which the resin material is changed from a pliable state into a hardened restoration.
a)
Trituration
b)
Retention
c)
Polymerization
d)
Galvanism
125.
The term restorative describes the ability to
a)
remove disease.
b)
restore function.
c)
be esthetic.
d)
remove disease and restore function.
126.
The process of setting of a material is correctly referred to as
a)
gelling.
b)
hardening.
c)
curing.
d)
triturating.
127.
To adjust the occlusion on a recently placed amalgam, the patient should be instructed to bite ______ on the articulating paper.
a)
firmly
b)
and rotate repeatedly
c)
lightly
d)
and open and close again
128.
When are temporary cements used?
a)
Cementing veneers
b)
Placing a provisional crown
c)
Cementing cast restorations
d)
Restoring teeth
129.
What is the dental assistant responsible for during a restorative procedure?
a)
Evaluating the tooth to be restored
b)
Administering local anesthesia
c)
Determining the type of dental materials to be used
d)
Preparing and transferring dental materials
130.
A veneer is applied to which surface of a prepared tooth?
a)
Incisal
b)
Facial
c)
Mesial
d)
Distal
131.
Which of the following procedures is an example of esthetic dentistry?
a)
Silver amalgam
b)
Teeth whitening
c)
Dentures
d)
Gold crown
132.
What responsibility does the dental assistant provide during a permanent restorative procedure?
a)
Determine the types of materials to be used for the restoration.
b)
Provide moisture control by using the high-velocity suction.
c)
Check occlusion of the restoration.
d)
Administer local anesthetic.
133.
When one or both of the proximal surfaces are removed during a preparation, how is the filling material retained while restoring?
a)
Cavity wall
b)
Line angle
c)
Resistance form
d)
Matrix system
134.
Where do Class V lesions occur?
a)
Gingival third
b)
Occlusal surface
c)
Incisal edge
d)
Facial surface
135.
Which statement is incorrect concerning tooth whitening?
a)
Tooth whitening can be achieved using over-the-counter products.
b)
Tooth whitening produces dramatic and permanent results.
c)
Tooth whitening can have some adverse effects on the teeth.
d)
The main ingredient for whitening products is peroxide or a form of peroxide
136.
What is the purpose of a matrix system?
a)
To retain and support the restoration
b)
To provide a temporary interproximal wall for the restorative material
c)
To determine whether a direct or indirect restorative material is an appropriate choice for the cavity preparation
d)
To initiate the setting reaction of a direct restorative material
137.
The __________ provides rapid calculus removal by converting very high-frequency sound waves into mechanical energy; it also reduces operator hand fatigue.
a)
sickle scaler
b)
ultrasonic scaler
c)
universal curette
d)
Gracey curette
138.
What preventive measure is most often performed during a recall appointment and is the primary treatment for gingivitis?
a)
Dental prophylaxis
b)
Root planning
c)
Coronal polish
d)
Gingival curettage
139.
What are signs and symptoms of periodontal disease?
a)
Presence of plaque and calculus
b)
Bleeding gums
c)
Teeth that are sensitive to cold
d)
Teeth that are stained
140.
What soft material forms on the teeth and is the primary cause of gingival inflammation and other forms of periodontal disease?
a)
Calculus
b)
Exudates
c)
Fluoride
d)
Plaque
141.
A normal sulcus measures __ mm or less.
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
142.
What is the purpose of the coronal polishing technique?
a)
As a substitute for an oral prophylaxis
b)
To remove calculus, debris, stain, and plaque from teeth
c)
To remove plaque and stains from the coronal surfaces of the teeth
d)
To be performed by any dental assistant
143.
Dental amalgam black stain is an example of which of the following types of tooth stain?
a)
Exogenous extrinsic stain
b)
Exogenous intrinsic stain
c)
Endogenous extrinsic stain
d)
Endogenous intrinsic stain
144.
Which of the following represents an endogenous stain?
a)
Tetracycline stain
b)
Blueberries
c)
Dental amalgam that has been incorporated into tooth structure
d)
Coffee
145.
For what are disclosing agents used?
a)
To identify areas of plaque
b)
To reveal areas of gingivitis
c)
To shows intrinsic stain
d)
To reveal caries
146.
Which type of stain can be removed from the surfaces of the teeth?
a)
Red wine stain
b)
Fluorosis
c)
White spot
d)
Tetracycline
147.
Which type of stain is incorporated into the tooth surface and cannot be removed easily if at all?
a)
Red wine
b)
Coffee
c)
Tetracycline
d)
Soft drinks
148.
What is the most common technique for stain removal?
a)
Scaler
b)
Toothbrush
c)
Floss
d)
Rubber cup polishing
149.
What is the purpose of a fulcrum?
a)
To put pressure to the fingers
b)
To provide better retraction
c)
To provide stability for the operator’s hand
d)
To provide movement for the arm
150.
What can result from using the prophy angle at a high speed?
a)
It can cause frictional heat that can damage the tooth.
b)
It can remove dentin.
c)
It will do a superior job removing plaque from the tooth.
d)
It will do a superior job removing extrinsic stains from the tooth.
151.
How is the rubber cup placed?
a)
Flat against the tooth
b)
At a 45-degree angle against the tooth
c)
On each tooth for 10 seconds
d)
Parallel to the long axis
152.
Sealants are indicated for which areas?
a)
Cervical one third of any tooth
b)
Posterior but not anterior teeth
c)
The smooth surfaces of teeth but not pits and fissures
d)
Pits and fissures
153.
What is the most common cause of sealant loss?
a)
Use of unfilled material
b)
Use of outdated material
c)
Moisture contamination during placement
d)
Chewing gum or sticky candy
154.
The first step in placing dental sealants is to _____the surface.
a)
etch
b)
isolate
c)
clean
d)
prime
155.
Which of the following is appropriate patient home care instruction for someone with provisional coverage?
a)
“Pop” the floss out of the contact.
b)
Pull floss through the contact, either to the facial or lingual side, once floss is placed below the contact.
c)
Have the provisional coverage recemented or replaced if it becomes loose or is lost.
d)
Leave the provisional coverage out of the mouth until the final restoration is cemented if it becomes loose or is lost.
156.
How long does a provisional crown or bridge normally need to last?
a)
1 day
b)
1 week
c)
2 weeks to 1 month
d)
3 months
157.
Which dentist specializes in the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of the dental pulp and the tissues that surround the root of the tooth?
a)
Periodontist
b)
Endodontist
c)
Oral surgeon
d)
Prosthodontist
158.
The federal agency that protects the public’s health and safety, at home and abroad, is the
a)
U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
b)
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
c)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
d)
U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).
159.
The governmental regulatory agency that ensures the safety and effectiveness of disinfectants associated with dentistry is the
a)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
b)
Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
c)
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).
d)
Centers for Disease Control (CDC).
160.
The federal regulatory agency responsible for ensuring the safety and health of America’s workers and for setting and enforcing protective standards is the
a)
EPA.
b)
FDA.
c)
OSHA.
d)
CDC.
161.
OSHA is responsible for ensuring the safety of
a)
employers.
b)
patients.
c)
employees.
d)
foreign nationals.
162.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) inspections occur
a)
when an employee or patient complaint is made.
b)
randomly in every dental office at least once every 5 years.
c)
in every dental office on a yearly basis.
d)
if there is a known breach of patient confidentiality.
163.
A chemical that can cause a physical or health hazard is
a)
a hazardous chemical.
b)
corrosive.
c)
toxic.
d)
poisonous if swallowed.
164.
Dermatitis can occur following chemical exposure by
a)
inhalation.
b)
absorption through the lungs.
c)
skin contact.
d)
ingestion.
165.
Eyewash units
a)
must be wall mounted.
b)
irrigate the eyes with a strong, narrow flow of water, to bathe away contaminants.
c)
must be flushed yearly to reduce microbial content in the waterline, according to some manufacturers
d)
must be installed in every workplace where chemicals are used, according to OSHA regulations.
166.
CDC guidelines and the OSHA Blood-borne Pathogen Standard consider saliva to be which of the following?
a)
A potentially infectious body fluid
b)
A noninfectious body fluid
c)
An infectious waste
d)
A contaminated waste
167.
Waste that has had contact with blood or other body fluids is considered contaminated and is disposed of as which of the following types of waste in most states?
a)
Hazardous
b)
Contaminated
c)
General
d)
Biohazard
168.
All waste containers that hold potentially infectious materials must
a)
have a red bag.
b)
be labeled with the biohazard symbol.
c)
have special disposal.
d)
be labeled as infectious waste.
169.
OSHA requires a sharps container to be all of the following except
a)
leak-proof.
b)
puncture-resistant.
c)
labeled with the dental practice name.
d)
closable.
170.
All of the following are considered a regulated waste except
a)
blood-soaked gauze.
b)
human tissue.
c)
disposable paper towels.
d)
scalpel blade.
171.
All of the following information is required on a SDS except
a)
cost of product.
b)
hazard identification.
c)
accidental release measures.
d)
composition/information on ingredients.
172.
All of the following are considered hazardous waste except
a)
human tissue.
b)
scrap amalgam.
c)
lead foil.
d)
radiographic processing solution.
173.
Infectious waste is defined as which of the following?
a)
It is not found in the dental office.
b)
It is contaminated waste that is capable of transmitting an infectious disease.
c)
It is disposed of as general waste.
d)
It is equivalent to medical waste.
174.
Products that have outlived their expiration date should be
a)
used first.
b)
used as needed.
c)
kept as back-up supplies.
d)
disposed of immediately.
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