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16.9: Continuous Improvement in Engineering

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does OEE stand for in the context of continuous improvement?

a)

Overall Equipment Efficiency

b)

Overall Equipment Effectiveness

c)

Operational Equipment Efficiency

d)

Operational Equipment Effectiveness

2.

TPM focuses on maximizing the _______ of equipment.

a)

downtime

b)

productivity

c)

cost

d)

maintenance

3.

What does OEE stand for in the context of engineering?

a)

Operating Equipment Efficiency

b)

Operating Equipment Effectiveness

c)

Operational Equipment Efficiency

d)

Operational Equipment Effectiveness

4.

TPM is a _______ approach to equipment maintenance.

a)

A) reactive

b)

B) proactive

c)

C) passive

d)

D) inactive

5.

What does OEE stand for in the context of key performance indicators?

a)

Operating Equipment Efficiency

b)

Operating Equipment Effectiveness

c)

Operational Equipment Efficiency

d)

Operational Equipment Effectiveness

6.

Fill in the blank: OEE is calculated using the formula OEE = (number of good products made x ideal processing time) x 100 / ________.

a)

Total production time

b)

Planned production time

c)

Actual production time

d)

Expected production time

7.

What is the main philosophy of Total Productive Maintenance (TPM)?

a)

Only the maintenance team should be involved in maintenance.

b)

Everyone in the workplace should be involved in maintenance.

c)

Maintenance should be done only when a machine breaks down.

d)

Maintenance should be outsourced to external experts.

8.

The purpose of TPM is to increase the _______.

a)

GDP

b)

OEE

c)

ROI

d)

TCO

9.

Which of the following is a benefit of TPM?

a)

Increased unplanned downtime

b)

Decreased productivity

c)

Increased income

d)

Decreased customer satisfaction

10.

TPM helps to maintain consistent product quality and more reliable production, which can result in increased _______.

a)

Downtime

b)

Customer satisfaction

c)

Costs

d)

Limitations

11.

Which of the following is a limitation of TPM?

a)

Immediate implementation

b)

Requires no training

c)

Time is needed to train workers

d)

Workers do not need to engage continuously.

12.

In TPM, workers need to actively engage with the approach on a ________ basis.

a)

one-time

b)

temporary

c)

continuing

d)

sporadic

13.

Which of the following is one of the eight pillars of Total Productive Maintenance (TPM)?

a)

A) Autonomous maintenance

b)

B) Financial management

c)

C) Customer service

d)

D) Product design

14.

Fill in the blank: One of the eight pillars of Total Productive Maintenance (TPM) is ________.

a)

Marketing strategy

b)

Quality maintenance

c)

Human resources

d)

Sales management

15.

Which of the following is a pillar of TPM that involves making operators responsible for routine maintenance?

a)

Quality management

b)

Autonomous maintenance

c)

Early equipment management

d)

Safety, health and environment

16.

The pillar of TPM that focuses on continually improving performance by making small changes is known as ______.

a)

Planned maintenance

b)

Quality management

c)

Focused improvement (kaizen)

d)

TPM in administration

17.

What is the main focus of the T Level program mentioned in the image?

a)

Medicine

b)

Engineering

c)

Arts

d)

Business

18.

What is the primary focus of Kaizen?

4 lines
19.

What is the key benefit of continuous business improvement?

a)

One-time cost savings

b)

Sustained competitive advantage

c)

Immediate customer satisfaction

d)

Temporary market gain

20.

In PDCA, what is the primary focus of the Check phase?

a)

Implementing the solution

b)

Developing a plan

c)

Evaluating the results of the implementation

d)

Standardizing the solution

21.

In Kaizen, who is typically responsible for suggesting improvements?

a)

Only top management

b)

A dedicated quality improvement team

c)

All employees

d)

External consultants

22.

Which phase of PDCA involves identifying a problem and devising a plan to address it?

a)

Plan

b)

Do

c)

Check

d)

Act

23.

What does PDCA stand for?

a)

Plan-Develop-Check-Act

b)

Plan-Do-Check-Act

c)

Plan-Design-Check-Adjust

d)

Plan-Do-Create-Act

24.

What is a Kaizen event?

a)

A large-scale overhaul of a process

b)

A short-term, focused improvement project

c)

A celebration of company achievements

d)

A regular company meeting

25.

During which phase of PDCA is the plan implemented on a small scale?

a)

Plan

b)

Do

c)

Check

d)

Act

26.

Which methodology is commonly used in business improvement to eliminate waste and increase efficiency?

a)

Waterfall

b)

Six Sigma

c)

Agile

d)

Scrum

27.

What happens during the Act phase of PDCA?

a)

The team identifies the problem

b)

The team implements the plan

c)

The team evaluates the results

d)

The team standardizes and adjusts the plan based on feedback

28.

What is the primary goal of business improvement?

a)

Reducing the workforce

b)

Increasing profits

c)

Enhancing processes and performance

d)

Expanding market share

29.

Which of the following best describes the Kaizen approach?

a)

It focuses on making drastic changes quickly.

b)

It emphasizes small, incremental improvements over time.

c)

It relies on technology to improve processes.

d)

It is a top-down approach led by management.

30.

What is Kaizen?

a)

A Japanese philosophy that focuses on continuous improvement

b)

A quality circle that relies on small step changes

c)

A tool used to identify the root cause of a problem

d)

A business culture based on respect for people

31.

What does Kaizen rely on?

a)

Large-scale changes

b)

Everyday ideas from the workforce

c)

External quality management systems

d)

Blaming individuals for problems

32.

What is the purpose of the Ishikawa diagram in Kaizen?

a)

To identify the problem

b)

To review and discuss each cause in detail

c)

To implement suggested changes

d)

To develop solutions and arrive at the required outcome

33.

What is TQM?

a)

A business culture based on Japanese philosophy

b)

An internal continuous process of reducing errors

c)

A tool used to eliminate waste and stimulate improvements

d)

An external quality management system

34.

What is required for TQM implementation?

a)

Committed leadership

b)

Customer complaints

c)

Overproduction of goods

d)

Unnecessary movement of people

35.

What is ISO 9001?

a)

An internal quality management system

b)

A tool used to support TQM

c)

An internationally recognised external quality management system

d)

A certification for Kaizen implementation

36.

What is the purpose of combining TQM and ISO 9001?

a)

To address cultural differences

b)

To develop quality management programs

c)

To ensure international acceptance of products and services

d)

To eliminate errors and defects

37.

Which of the following is NOT one of the eight wastes that Lean/Agile/Six Sigma aims to eliminate?

a)

Defects

b)

Overproduction

c)

Waiting

d)

Extra fields in forms

38.

What is the focus of TQM?

a)

Blaming individuals for problems

b)

Improving the quality of outputs

c)

Implementing gradual incremental changes

d)

Eliminating waste to stimulate improvements

39.

What is the role of employees in Kaizen?

a)

To set up quality circles

b)

To rely on large step changes

c)

To focus on external quality management systems

d)

To implement suggested changes and sustain improvements

40.

What is the main goal of Planned Maintenance?

a)

To fix equipment after it breaks

b)

To prevent breakdowns before they happen

c)

To reduce the number of workers

d)

To increase production speed

41.

Which type of maintenance involves routine checks to prevent unexpected failures?

a)

Corrective Maintenance

b)

Predictive Maintenance

c)

Preventive Maintenance

d)

Scheduled Maintenance

42.

What does Predictive Maintenance use to anticipate equipment failures?

a)

Random guesses

b)

Data-driven techniques

c)

Visual inspections

d)

Employee feedback

43.

What is a key benefit of implementing Planned Maintenance?

a)

Increased equipment breakdowns

b)

Higher maintenance costs

c)

Extended equipment lifespan

d)

Less training for staff

44.

What does Scheduled Maintenance refer to?

a)

Fixing equipment after it fails

b)

Maintenance done only when needed

c)

Random checks of equipment

d)

Planned activities set on a calendar basis

45.

Which of the following is NOT a type of Planned Maintenance?

a)

Predictive Maintenance

b)

Condition-Based Maintenance

c)

Reactive Maintenance

d)

Time-Based Maintenance

46.

What is the first step in implementing Planned Maintenance?

a)

Schedule maintenance activities

b)

Assess the current condition of equipment

c)

Monitor and adjust the plan

d)

Train personnel

47.

What does the 5S methodology help with in Planned Maintenance?

a)

Increasing production speed

b)

Lowering equipment costs

c)

Reducing the number of workers

d)

Creating a clutter-free environment

48.

What is one challenge of Planned Maintenance?

a)

High initial costs

b)

Too many workers

c)

Lack of equipment

d)

No need for training

49.

What does Corrective Maintenance involve?

a)

Monitoring equipment conditions

b)

Scheduling maintenance tasks

c)

Preventing breakdowns

d)

Fixing issues found during checks

50.

What is the purpose of monitoring the effectiveness of the maintenance plan?

a)

To reduce training

b)

To assess the plan’s success

c)

To ignore equipment issues

d)

To increase costs

51.

Which of the following is a benefit of Planned Maintenance?

a)

Reduced maintenance costs

b)

Less need for inspections

c)

Increased equipment failures

d)

More downtime

52.

What does the 'Shine' step in 5S focus on?

a)

Organizing tools

b)

Sorting unnecessary items

c)

Standardizing procedures

d)

Cleaning work areas

53.

What is the main focus of Planned Maintenance?

a)

Increasing production speed

b)

Reducing the number of workers

c)

Preventing equipment failures

d)

Fixing equipment after it breaks

54.
Which of the following best describes quality?
a)
The service provided to a customer before, during and after purchasing.
b)
Products being made to a high standard to meet customer needs.
c)
A high level of productivity.
55.
Who needs to be satisfied with the quality of products?
a)
Rivals
b)
Suppliers
c)
Customers
56.
Which of the following is usually true about poor quality products?
a)
They are in demand
b)
They fail to meet customers expectations
c)
They are expensive
57.
What happens when a business produces faulty goods?
a)
It increases costs
b)
It increases costs and damages the reputation of the firm
c)
It is an example of Total Quality Management
58.

A business checks products after they are made. What is this an example of?

a)

Quality Control

b)

Quality Circles

c)

Quality Assurance

59.

When products are checked at each stage of production, what is this an example of?

a)

Quality Control

b)

Quality Circles

c)

Quality Assurance

60.

When products are checked throughout the production process this is called

a)

Quality Circles

b)

Quality Assurance

c)

Quality Control

61.

When products are checked at the end of the production process this is called

a)

Quality Assurance

b)

Quality Circles

c)

Quality Control

62.
What group of people sit and discuss production methods in Quality Circles?
a)
Customers and Suppliers
b)
Managers and Suppliers
c)
Employees and Managers
63.
What is the best methods of improving quality
a)
Expansion
b)
Lowering costs
c)
Staff and Management Training
64.

What is a high quality product?

a)

A product that does not meet customer expectations but fulfills the customers needs at a price they are willing to pay

b)

A product that meets customer expectations but not at a price they are willing to pay

c)

A product that meets customer expectations and fulfills the customers needs at a price they are willing to pay

65.

When is Quality Control carried out by a business?

a)

Inspection or checking of product/service is carried out at the end of production

b)

Inspection or checking of product/service is carried out during production

c)

Inspection or checking of product/service is carried out before production

66.

Quality Assurance is carried out

a)

At the end of production

b)

During all stages of production

c)

During some stages of production

67.

Total Quality Management involves

a)

Management

b)

management, workforce, suppliers, and even customers, in order to meet or exceed customer expectations.

c)

management and customers, in order to meet or exceed customer expectations.

68.

Quality Circles are...

a)

are medium groups of workers, usually between 10 and 15, who

are paid to meet in order to discuss methods of improving productivity

b)

are small groups of workers, usually between 5 and 10, who are paid to meet in order to discuss methods of improving productivity

c)

are small groups of workers, usually between 5 and 10, who

meet voluntarily in order to discuss methods of improving productivity

69.

Developed by Walter Shewhart, one of the pioneers of total quality management, is a circular model known as ________ as his version of continuous improvement.

a)

Six Sigma

b)

Employee Empowerment

c)

Plan-Do-Check-Act

d)

Benchmarking

70.

It involves selecting a demonstrated standard of products, services, costs, or practices that represent the very best performance for processes or activities very similar to your own.

a)

Six Sigma

b)

PDCA

c)

Employee Empowerment

d)

Benchmarking

71.
 What is the world body for standards formulation?
a)
PQA
b)
IQA
c)
ISO
d)
QC
72.
What is the term that refers to a customer oriented management philosophy and strategy?
a)
Operations Management
b)
Total Quality Management
c)
Entrepreneurial Management
d)
Strategic Management
73.

What is the main objective of Early Equipment Management (EEM)?

a)

To make equipment more complex

b)

To eliminate all maintenance

c)

To reduce costs and increase productivity

d)

To increase costs

74.

Which of the following is a benefit of EEM?

a)

Increased equipment breakdowns

b)

Improved equipment reliability

c)

Higher maintenance costs

d)

Longer downtime

75.

What does EEM emphasize?

a)

Ignoring equipment issues

b)

Addressing equipment-related issues early

c)

Delaying maintenance until problems arise

d)

Only focusing on equipment operation

76.

Which principle involves making equipment easy to fix?

a)

High Standards

b)

Scheduled Repairs

c)

Keep it Simple

d)

Employee Responsibility

77.

What role does the operations team play in EEM?

a)

They design new equipment

b)

They only fix equipment when it breaks

c)

They use the equipment and report issues

d)

They manage the entire EEM process

78.

What is one of the tools used in EEM?

a)

Root Cause Analysis (RCA)

b)

Maintenance Neglect Analysis

c)

Random Equipment Testing

d)

Equipment Replacement Strategy

79.

What does FMEA stand for?

a)

Fast Maintenance and Equipment Assessment

b)

Fault Management and Equipment Assessment

c)

Failure Modes and Effects Analysis

d)

Frequent Equipment Maintenance Analysis

80.

What is a key principle of EEM regarding parts?

a)

Only use expensive parts

b)

Use unique parts for each machine

c)

Use standard parts for quicker repairs

d)

Avoid using any parts

81.

What is the importance of training in EEM?

a)

To focus only on large problems

b)

To ignore equipment issues

c)

To teach employees to fix small problems

d)

To reduce employee involvement

82.

Which department is responsible for designing equipment in EEM?

a)

Maintenance

b)

Management

c)

Operations

d)

Engineering

83.

What is a challenge of implementing EEM?

a)

It can be complex for smaller businesses

b)

It is simple for all businesses

c)

It eliminates the need for teamwork

d)

It requires no training

84.

What does RCA help with?

a)

Finding the main reasons for equipment failures

b)

Increasing equipment costs

c)

Creating new equipment designs

d)

Ignoring equipment problems

85.

What is one of the goals of EEM?

a)

To reduce employee training

b)

To increase downtime

c)

To improve safety and quality

d)

To complicate maintenance

86.

What should be regularly reviewed in EEM?

a)

Designs of old equipment

b)

Equipment failures only

c)

Maintenance plans and processes

d)

Employee performance only

87.

What is the role of management in EEM?

a)

To ignore EEM processes

b)

To ensure cooperation among teams

c)

To only focus on operations

d)

To design equipment