WorksheetsOp3mpl
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 25mins
07001 Contingency at FL410 necessitates diversion to an alternate against NAT traffic without ATC clearance but able to maintain altitude:
turn left or right and climb 1 000 ft/descend 500 ft.
climb or descend 500 ft.
climb 500 ft.
descend 500 ft.
07001 There are 60 passengers and crew members on board a turbo-prop aircraft _ Its speed is 240 kts _ At a point along the course steered, above the sea, the aircraft is at 1 hr 45 min from an aerodrome suitable for emergency landing. The minimum equipment complying with regulations is:
60 life jackets and three 30-seat life boats.
60 life jackets.
one 30-seat life boat and two 20-seat life boats.
60 life jackets and two 30-seat life boats.
07001 What is the reason for selecting a suitable take-off alternate aerodrome?
To ensure a safe landing can be made in case of emergency after take-off when departure aerodrome can not be used due to performance or meteorological reasons.
To ensure a safe landing can be made in case of emergency after take-off when destination aerodrome can not be used due to performance or meteorological reasons.
Selection of a suitable take-off alternate aerodrome is always required If the planned flight time to destination is greater than 8 hours.
A suitable take-off alternate aerodrome serves as a stopover for refuelling purposes on long distance flights.
07001 An airplane has a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 61 seats and 2 galleys located on the main passenger compartment. No cargo compartment is accessible to crew members in flight. According to EASA AIR OPS, the minimum total number of hand fire-extinguishers required on board is:
2
3
4
5
07001 According to AIR OPS, an operator must select two destination alternates when the appropriate weather reports or forecasts for the destination, or any combination thereof, indicate that during a period commencing _ hour(s) before and ending _ hour(s) after the estimated _ the weather conditions will be below the applicable planning minima.
one; one; time of arrival
two; two; time of arrival
two; two; time of departure
one; one; time of departure
07001 Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? (AIR OPS)
The operator.
The captain.
The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot.
The company's cargo technicians.
07001 Which equipment failure is not to be reported to ATC when cruising on a RVSM flight level?
Loss of thrust on one or more engines which requires a descent.
Main hydraulic pump failure.
Loss of one or more altimetry system.
Failure of all automatic altitude-control systems.
07001 According to EASA AIR OPS, a Category IIIB operations, is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with, a decision height lower than 50ft, or no decision height and a runway visual range lower than 200m but no less than:
50m
75m
125m
200m
07001 The battery in a portable emergency locator transmitter (ELT) which is used after an emergency landing or ditching should last for:
72 hours
24 hours
12 hours
48 hours
07001 According to EASA AIR OPS and assuming the following circumstances: - a Category A aeroplane - an aerodrome equipped with runway edge lighting and centre line lighting and multiple RVR information - an acceptable alternate aerodrome is available What is the minimum RVR value for take-off?
200m
150m
250m
300m
07001 The operator is required to ensure that certain persons are to be permitted into the flight deck providing the Commander is satisfied that his aircraft is not endangered. Who are the permitted personnel?
JAR-145 qualified engineers.
lATA Quality Assurance assessors.
Security Officers.
Persons authorized by the Authority.
07001 During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 0030 UTC. You will then normally be:
within the organized night-time flight track system.
within the organized daytime flight track system.
out of the validity period of organised flight track system.
within the polar track system.
07001 According to EASA AIR OPS, for two-engined aeroplanes in Performance class B or C without an ETOPS approval, the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome is the distance flown in _ minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed, or _ nautical miles, whichever is less.
60; 300
120; 300
120; 200
60; 200
07001 What manuals are to be carried on board the aircraft?
Operations Manual in total.
Company instructions for all flight crew.
All those specified in the Certificate of Airworthiness.
Relevant parts of the ops manual and AFM.
07001 In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, the operator must ensure that the dangerous goods documentation of a flight is stored for a minimum period of:
3 months
6 months
12 months
2 years
According to North Atlantic MNPSA Operations Manual, what is the transponder code to be selected continuously 30 min after entry into NAT airspace?
Code 2000
Code 7000
The last assigned code prior to entry into NAT airspace
Code 7500
During take-off an aircraft hits a bird. Due to control vibrations a landing must be made immediately. Following this incident the pilot:
must file an AIR PROX report: the Control Tower having given no warning.
must file a Bird Strike report.
must file an airworthiness report.
is not obliged to report this incident.
A Category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
800 m
500 m
550 m
350 m
An aircraft, 340 NM from land, with one engine inoperative, at cruising speed of 150 kts:
does not need life jackets or life rafts.
must carry life jackets for each passenger only.
must carry life rafts but life jackets are not necessary.
must carry life jackets for each passenger and life rafts sufficient to carry all persons on board.
RVSM was first implemented in which airspace?
Pacific
Europe
NAT
Africa
For a category D aeroplane, the indicated airspeed at threshold (VAT) is:
from 91 - 120 knots.
from 121 - 140 knots.
from 141 - 165 knots.
from 166 - 210 knots.
"An aircraft with a certificated MTOM of 232 000 kg and certificated to carry 350 passengers requires: 1) one crash axe or crowbar on the flight deck 2) one crash axe or crowbar in the rear galley area 3) one crash axe or crowbar in the mid galley area"
2
1
1, 2
1, 2, 3
In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, an airplane must be equipped with equipment or systems at each emergency exit that allow to reach the ground safely in the case of an emergency when the sill height of the passenger emergency exit is higher than:
1.80m
1.83m
1.86m
1.89m
The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger cabin according to EASA AIR OPS depends on the number of:
emergency exits in the cabin.
seat rows in the cabin.
passengers in the cabin.
seats in the cabin.
Who is to ensure safe handling of flights?
The operator.
The authority.
The state of registration.
The operations officer.
According to EASA AIR OPS, following a decompression, the maximum pressure altitude at which each member of the flight crew on flight deck duty are able to fly with no supplemental oxygen with no flight time limitation is:
15000 ft
13000 ft
10000 ft
8000 ft
Securing of passenger cabin and galley: (a) The operator shall establish procedures to ensure that before taxiing, take-off and landing all exits and escape paths are unobstructed. (b) The commander shall ensure that before take-off and landing. and whenever deemed necessary in the interest of safety, all equipment and baggage are properly secured.
(a) is correct; (b) is incorrect
(a) is incorrect; (b) is correct
(a) is correct; (b) is correct
(a) is incorrect; (b) is incorrect
The crash/fire axe is part of the safety equipment fitted to passenger aircraft. Its function is to:
settle an escalating conflict with unruly passengers, who threaten flight safety.
free access to exits in the event of an evacuation using slides.
activate a radio survival beacon by cutting off the red coloured top.
obtain forced access to a fire behind a panel and a general purpose tool during evacuation.
An aeroplane with one passenger deck is configured with 151 seats. The aeroplane is not effectively carrying any passengers. The number of megaphones required on board is:
0
1
3
2
A minimum time track is a:
spherical capable flight segment.
great circle track.
rhumb line.
track determined according to weather conditions.
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from:
30° North to 90° North.
27° North to 90° North.
27° North to 70° North.
30° North to 70° North.
In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, on board a non-pressurised aircraft, 10% of the passengers shall be supplied with oxygen throughout the entire flight time, after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than:
10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft.
10000 ft but not exceeding 12000 ft.
11 000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft.
11 000 ft but not exceeding 12000 ft.
In the area where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL290 and FL410 inclusive is:
2 000 ft
500 ft
1 000 ft
1 500 ft
An aircraft flying above flight level 410 in
MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance
with its Air Traffic Control clearance (degradation of
navigational performance requirements, mechanics troubles
etc), but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a
total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a
revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its
assigned route or track by turning 45° to the right or left
whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will
be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction track
laterally separated by 15 NM from its assigned route
and:
climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft.
climb or descent 500 ft
climb 1 000 ft or descent 500 ft.
climb or descend 1 000 ft.
You are parked on a ramp at a latitude of 30° N with a heading of 120° showing on a gyro compass. You experience a delay of 2 hrs 30 min. The gyro does not comprise a rate correction device. What is the effect on your gyro compass indication?
32.5°
-32.5°
18.75°
-18.75°
An operator shall not appoint a person to the post of senior cabin crew member unless that person has at least _ experience as an operating cabin crew member and has completed an appropriate courses.
6 months
9 months
12 months
24 months
The commander shall declare an emergency when the:
calculated landing fuel will be lower than the specified minimum within the flight/OPS manual.
calculated landing fuel at the destination airport is lower than the alternate plus final reserve.
calculated usable fuel on landing, at the nearest adequate aerodrome where a safe landing can be performed, is less than final reserve fuel.
calculated usable fuel on landing, at the nearest adequate aerodrome where a safe landing can be performed, is less than for 30 minutes flight time.
Animals on board. When can the captain leave the cockpit to check on them?
Only in the interests of safety.
Regularly, depending on the corresponding animal transporation checklist.
The animals are checked by the cabin crew.
Animals cannot be checked during flight.
Which equipment is not necessary to get a RVSM approval?
Altitude alerting system.
GPS with altitude reporting system.
Automatic altitude control system.
SSR transponder with altitude reporting system in use for altitude keeping.
According to EASA AIR OPS, without an ETOPS approval, the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two-engined aeroplanes in Performance Class A, with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 20 or more, is the distance flown in __ minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed.
30
90
120
60
For a pressurised aircraft, the first aid oxygen is designed to:
provide oxygen to 10% of passengers at a cabin altitude exceeding 13 000 ft after 30 minutes.
protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases.
protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurization.
provide undiluted oxygen for passengers who, for physiological reasons, might require oxygen following a cabin depressurization.
If taking off in icing conditions, pilot-in-command must make sure:
icing doesn't affect performance within the constraints of the Operations Manual.
icing doesn't affect the mass and balance of the aeroplane.
icing on the airframe is not greater than 5 mm.
anti-ice is still present on the airframe.
When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:
2 hours of flight at cruising speed with 1 engine inoperative.
2 hours of flight at cruising speed with all engines operating.
1 hour of flight at cruising speed with 1 engine inoperative.
1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all engines operating.
In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, for a Category IIIA approach, the RVR shall not be less than:
200 m
250 m
230 m
300 m
When would you have to specify two destination alternates?
When the weather at destination is below minimums two hours before and two hours after expected ETA.
When the weather at destination is below minimums one hour before and one hour after expected ETA.
When the destination has a single runway.
When the destination has a single runway and locator beacon.
Regarding all weather operations, if VAT is from 121 kts to 140 kts, the aeroplane is in:
category D.
category E.
category C.
category B.
According to EASA AIR OPS, when a flight data recorder is required, it must start automatically to record the data:
when lining up.
when taking-off.
when the landing gear is retracted.
prior to the aircraft being capable of moving under its own power.
The commander of a public transport aircraft must ensure that passenger seat belts are secure for:
take-off and landing.
take-off, landing. taxiing and turbulence.
take-off, landing. taxiing, turbulence and during emergencies.
take-off, landing and turbulence.
A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth magnetic field is less than:
17 micro-tesla.
6 micro-tesla.
38 micro-tesla.
10 micro-tesla.
The information to consider for a straight-in VOR approach is: 1) RVR/Visibility 2) the ceiling 3) the minimum descent altitude/height (MDNH) 4) the decision altitude/height (DNH) Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
1, 3, 4
1, 2, 4
1, 4
1, 2, 3
