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RAE CLASS A 2

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 3hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the RF carrier varies according to some predetermined sequence?

a)

Amplitude compandor single sideband

b)

AMTOR

c)

Time-domain frequency modulation

d)

Spread-spectrum communication

2.

What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the centre frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?

a)

Frequency hopping

b)

Direct sequence

c)

Time-domain frequency modulation

d)

Frequency compandor spread-spectrum

3.

What spread-spectrum communications technique uses a very fast binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

a)

Frequency hopping

b)

Direct sequence

c)

Binary phase-shift keying

d)

Phase compandor spread-spectrum

4.

What controls the spreading sequence of an amateur spread-spectrum transmission?

a)

A frequency-agile linear amplifier

b)

A crystal-controlled filter linked to a high-speed crystal switching mechanism

c)

A binary linear feedback shift register

d)

A binary code which varies if propagation changes

5.

Why are spread-spectrum communications so resistant to interference?

a)

Interfering signals are removed by a frequency-agile crystal filter

b)

Spread-spectrum transmitters use much higher power than conventional carrier-frequency transmitters

c)

Spread-spectrum transmitters can "hunt" for the best carrier frequency to use within a given RF spectrum

d)

Only signals using the correct spreading sequence are received

6.

Why do spread-spectrum communications interfere so little with conventional channelized communications in the same band?

a)

A spread-spectrum transmitter avoids channels within the band which are in use by conventional transmitters

b)

Spread-spectrum signals appear only as low-level noise in conventional receivers

c)

Spread-spectrum signals change too rapidly to be detected by conventional receivers

d)

Special crystal filters are needed in conventional receivers to detect spread-spectrum signals

7.

What is the term for the amplitude of the maximum positive excursion of a signal as viewed on an oscilloscope?

a)

Peak-to-peak voltage

b)

Inverse peak negative voltage

c)

RMS voltage

d)

Peak positive voltage

8.

What is the easiest voltage amplitude dimension to measure by viewing a pure sine wave signal on an oscilloscope?

a)

Peak-to-peak voltage

b)

RMS voltage

c)

Average voltage

d)

DC voltage

9.

What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the peak voltage amplitude in a symmetrical waveform?

a)

1:1

b)

2:1

c)

3:1

d)

4:1

10.

What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?

a)

Peak voltage

b)

RMS voltage

c)

An average reading power output meter

d)

Resting voltage

11.

What is the PEP output of a transmitter that has a maximum peak of 30 volts to a 50-ohm load as observed on an oscilloscope?

a)

4.5 watts

b)

9 watts

c)

16 watts

d)

18 watts

12.

If an RMS-reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak-to-peak voltage?

a)

46 volts

b)

92 volts

c)

130 volts

d)

184 volts

13.

What is the advantage of using a peak reading voltmeter to monitor the output of a single-sideband transmitter?

a)

It would be easy to calculate the PEP output of the transmitter

b)

It would be easy to calculate the RMS output power of the transmitter

c)

It would be easy to calculate the SWR on the transmission line

d)

It would be easy to observe the output amplitude variations

14.

What are electromagnetic waves?

a)

Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet

b)

A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each other

c)

A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field at right angles to each other

d)

A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other

15.

Why don't electromagnetic waves penetrate a good conductor for more than a fraction of a wavelength?

a)

Electromagnetic waves are reflected by the surface of a good conductor

b)

Oxide on the conductor surface acts as a magnetic shield

c)

The electromagnetic waves are dissipated as eddy currents in the conductor surface

d)

The resistance of the conductor surface dissipates the electromagnetic waves

16.

Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves travelling in free space?

a)

Electric and magnetic fields become aligned as they travel

b)

The energy propagates through a medium with a high refractive index

c)

The waves are reflected by the ionosphere and return to their source

d)

Changing electric and magnetic fields propagate the energy across a vacuum

17.

What is meant by circularly polarised electromagnetic waves?

a)

Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape

b)

Waves with a rotating electric field

c)

Waves that circle the Earth

d)

Waves produced by a loop antenna

18.

What is the polarisation of an electromagnetic wave if its magnetic field is parallel to the surface of the Earth?

a)

Circular

b)

Horizontal

c)

Elliptical

d)

Vertical

19.

What is the polarisation of an electromagnetic wave if its magnetic field is perpendicular to the surface of the Earth?

a)

Horizontal

b)

Circular

c)

Elliptical

d)

Vertical

20.

What is the primary source of noise that can be heard in an HF-band receiver with an antenna connected?

a)

Detector noise

b)

Man-made noise

c)

Receiver front-end noise

d)

Atmospheric noise

21.

What is the primary source of noise that can be heard in a VHF/UHF- band receiver with an antenna connected?

a)

Receiver front-end noise

b)

Man-made noise

c)

Atmospheric noise

d)

Detector noise

22.

Which of the following describes an isotropic radiator?

a)

A grounded radiator used to measure earth conductivity

b)

A horizontal radiator used to compare Yagi antennas

c)

A theoretical radiator used to compare other antennas

d)

A spacecraft radiator used to direct signals toward the earth

23.

When is it useful to refer to an isotropic radiator?

a)

When comparing the gains of directional antennas

b)

When testing a transmission line for standing-wave ratio

c)

When directing a transmission toward the tropical latitudes

d)

When using a dummy load to tune a transmitter

24.

How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole have over an isotropic radiator?

a)

About 1.5 dB

b)

About 2.1 dB

c)

About 3.0 dB

d)

About 6.0 dB

25.

Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction?

a)

Quarter-wave vertical

b)

Yagi

c)

Half-wave dipole

d)

Isotropic radiator

26.

Which of the following describes the radiation pattern of an isotropic radiator?

a)

A tear drop in the vertical plane

b)

A circle in the horizontal plane

c)

A sphere with the antenna in the centre

d)

Crossed polarised with a spiral shape

27.

Why would one need to know the radiation resistance of an antenna?

a)

To match impedances for maximum power transfer

b)

To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna

c)

To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna

d)

To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna

28.

What factors determine the radiation resistance of an antenna?

a)

Transmission-line length and antenna height

b)

Antenna location with respect to nearby objects and the conductors' length/diameter ratio

c)

It is a physical constant and is the same for all antennas

d)

Sunspot activity and time of day

29.

What is the term for the ratio of the radiation resistance of an antenna to the total resistance of the system?

a)

Effective radiated power

b)

Radiation conversion loss

c)

Antenna efficiency

d)

Beamwidth

30.

What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?

a)

Radiation resistance plus space impedance

b)

Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance

c)

Transmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance

d)

Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance

31.

What is a folded dipole antenna?

a)

A one-quarter dipole wavelength long

b)

A type of ground-plane antenna

c)

A dipole whose ends are connected by a one-half wavelength piece of wire

d)

A hypothetical antenna used in theoretical discussions to replace the radiation resistance

32.

What is meant by antenna gain?

a)

The numerical ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna to that of another antenna

b)

The numerical ratio of the signal in the forward direction to the signal in the back direction

c)

The numerical ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power

d)

The final amplifier gain minus the transmission-line losses (including any phasing lines present)

33.

What is meant by antenna bandwidth?

a)

Antenna length divided by the number of elements

b)

The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to perform well

c)

The angle between the half-power radiation points

d)

The angle between the half-power radiation points

34.

How can the approximate beam width of a beam antenna be determined?

a)

Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is down 3 dB from the maximum signal point and compute the angular difference

b)

Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and rear of the antenna

c)

Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure the angle between the lines

d)

Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and side of the antenna

35.

How is antenna efficiency calculated?

a)

(radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100%

b)

(radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100%

c)

(total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100%

d)

(effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100%

36.

How can the efficiency of an HF grounded vertical antenna be made comparable to that of a half-wave dipole antenna?

a)

By installing a good ground radial system

b)

By isolating the coax shield from ground

c)

By shortening the vertical

d)

By lengthening the vertical

37.

What factors determine the receiving antenna gain required at an amateur satellite station in earth operation?

a)

Height, transmitter power and antennas of satellite

b)

Length of transmission line and impedance match between receiver and transmission line

c)

Preamplifier location on transmission line and presence or absence of RF amplifier stages

d)

Height of earth antenna and satellite orbit

38.

What factors determine the EIRP required by an amateur satellite station in earth operation?

a)

Satellite antennas and height, satellite receiver sensitivity

b)

Path loss, earth antenna gain, signal-to-noise ratio

c)

Satellite transmitter power and orientation of ground receiving antenna

d)

Elevation of satellite above the horizon, signal-to-noise ratio, satellite transmitter power

39.

What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 20 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?

a)

10.1 degrees

b)

20.3 degrees

c)

45.0 degrees

d)

60.9 degrees

40.

How does the gain of a parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

a)

Gain does not change

b)

Gain is multiplied by 0.707

c)

Gain increases 6 dB

d)

Gain increases 3 dB

41.

How is circular polarisation produced using linearly polarised antennas?

a)

Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array of the respective elements in parallel planes

b)

Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array of the respective elements in parallel planes

c)

Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other, with the driven elements in the same plane, fed 90 degrees out of phase

d)

Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other, with the driven elements in the same plane, fed in phase

42.

How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased?

a)

It increases geometrically

b)

It increases arithmetically

c)

It is essentially unaffected

d)

It decreases

43.

Why does a satellite communications antenna system for earth operation need to have rotators for both azimuth and elevation control?

a)

In order to track the satellite as it orbits the earth

b)

Because the antennas are large and heavy

c)

In order to point the antenna above the horizon to avoid terrestrial interference

d)

To rotate antenna polarisation along the azimuth and elevate the system towards the satellite

44.

For a shortened vertical antenna, where should a loading coil be placed to minimise losses and produce the most effective performance?

a)

Near the centre of the vertical radiator

b)

As low as possible on the vertical radiator

c)

As close to the transmitter as possible

d)

At a voltage node

45.

Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?

a)

To swamp out harmonics

b)

To maximise losses

c)

To minimise losses

d)

To minimise the Q

46.

What is a disadvantage of using a trap antenna?

a)

It will radiate harmonics

b)

It can only be used for single-band operation

c)

It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies

d)

It must be neutralised

47.

How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a "hairpin" matching system?

a)

The driven element reactance is capacitive

b)

The driven element reactance is inductive

c)

The driven element resonance is higher than the operating frequency

d)

The driven element radiation resistance is higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line

48.

What is the equivalent lumped-constant network for a "hairpin" matching system on a 3-element Yagi?

a)

Pi network

b)

Pi-L network

c)

L network

d)

Parallel-resonant tank

49.

What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?

a)

It is increased

b)

It is decreased

c)

No change occurs

d)

It becomes flat

50.

What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?

a)

Lower Q

b)

Greater structural strength

c)

Higher losses

d)

Improved radiation efficiency

51.

What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places, spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element centre?

a)

The gamma matching system

b)

The delta matching system

c)

The omega matching system

d)

The stub matching system

52.

What system matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the centre of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of centre?

a)

The gamma matching system

b)

The delta matching system

c)

The omega matching system

d)

The stub matching system

53.

What impedance matching system uses a short perpendicular section of transmission line connected to the feed line near the antenna?

a)

The gamma matching system

b)

The delta matching system

c)

The omega matching system

d)

The stub matching system

54.

What should be the approximate capacitance of the resonating capacitor in a gamma matching circuit on a 1/2-wavelength dipole antenna for the 20-meter wavelength band?

a)

70 pF

b)

140 pF

c)

200 pF

d)

0.2 pF

55.

What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

a)

A very high impedance

b)

A very low impedance

c)

The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line

d)

The same as the generator output impedance

56.

What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

a)

A very high impedance

b)

A very low impedance

c)

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

d)

The same as the output impedance of the generator

57.

What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?

a)

The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance

b)

The index of shielding for coaxial cable

c)

The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum

d)

The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum

58.

What determines the velocity factor in a transmission line?

a)

The termination impedance

b)

The line length

c)

Dielectrics in the line

d)

The centre conductor resistivity

59.

Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?

a)

Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable

b)

The characteristic impedance is higher in the parallel feed line

c)

The surge impedance is higher in the parallel feed line

d)

Electrical signals move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air

60.

What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with polyethene dielectric?

a)

2.70

b)

0.66

c)

0.30

d)

0.10

61.

What would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz? (Assume a velocity factor of 0.66.)

a)

20 meters

b)

2.33 meters

c)

3.51 meters

d)

0.25 meters

62.

What is the physical length of a parallel conductor feed line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz? (Assume a velocity factor of 0.95.)

a)

15 meters

b)

20.2 meters

c)

10.1 meters

d)

70.8 meters

63.

What parameter best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?

a)

Characteristic impedance

b)

Reflection coefficient

c)

Velocity factor

d)

Dielectric Constant

64.

Which of the following measurements describes a mismatched transmission line?

a)

An SWR less than 1:1

b)

A reflection coefficient greater than 1

c)

A dielectric constant greater than 1

d)

An SWR greater than 1:1

65.

What characteristic will 450-ohm ladder line have at 50 MHz, as compared to 0.195-inch-diameter coaxial cable (such as RG-58)?

a)

Lower loss in dB/100 feet

b)

Higher SWR

c)

Smaller reflection coefficient

d)

Lower velocity factor

66.

What would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz? (Assume a velocity factor of 0.66.)

a)

10 meters

b)

6.9 meters

c)

24 meters

d)

50 meters

67.

What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

a)

A capacitive reactance

b)

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

c)

An inductive reactance

d)

The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage

68.

What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

a)

A capacitive reactance

b)

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

c)

An inductive reactance

d)

The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage

69.

What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

a)

A very high impedance

b)

A very low impedance

c)

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

d)

The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage

70.

What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

a)

A very high impedance

b)

A very low impedance

c)

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

d)

The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage

71.

What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

a)

A very high impedance

b)

A very low impedance

c)

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

d)

The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage

72.

What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

a)

A very high impedance

b)

A very low impedance

c)

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

d)

The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage

73.

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

a)

Unidirectional cardioid

b)

Omnidirectional

c)

Figure-8 broadside to the antennas

d)

Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas

74.

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?

a)

Unidirectional cardioid

b)

Omnidirectional

c)

Figure-8 broadside to the antennas

d)

Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas

75.

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

a)

Unidirectional cardioid

b)

Omnidirectional

c)

Figure-8 broadside to the antennas

d)

Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas

76.

What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/8-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

a)

Unidirectional cardioid

b)

Omnidirectional

c)

Figure-8 broadside to the antennas

d)

Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas

77.

What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

a)

Unidirectional cardioid

b)

Figure-8 end-fire

c)

Figure-8 broadside

d)

Omnidirectional

78.

What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed in phase?

a)

Substantially unidirectional

b)

Elliptical

c)

Cardioid unidirectional

d)

Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas

79.

Which of the following is the best description of a resonant rhombic antenna?

a)

Unidirectional; four-sided, each side a half-wavelength long; terminated in a resistance equal to its characteristic impedance

b)

Bidirectional; four-sided, each side approximately one wavelength long; open at the end opposite the transmission line connection

c)

Four-sided; an LC network at each vertex except for the transmission connection; tuned to resonate at the operating frequency

d)

Four-sided, each side of a different physical length; traps at each vertex for changing resonance according to band usage

80.

What are the advantages of a nonresonant rhombic antenna?

a)

Wide frequency range, high gain and high front-to-back ratio

b)

High front-to-back ratio, compact size and high gain

c)

Unidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and compact size

d)

Bidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and wide frequency range

81.

What are the disadvantages of a nonresonant rhombic antenna?

a)

A large area for proper installation and a narrow bandwidth

b)

A large area for proper installation and a low front-to-back ratio

c)

A large area and four sturdy support for proper installation

d)

A large amount of aluminium tubing and a low front-to-back ratio

82.

What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?

a)

It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter

b)

It changes the radiation pattern from essentially bidirectional to essentially unidirectional

c)

It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarisation

d)

It decreases the ground loss

83.

How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarised antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground?

a)

The low-angle radiation decreases

b)

The high-angle radiation increases

c)

Both the high- and low-angle radiation decrease

d)

The low-angle radiation increases

84.

If only a modest on-ground radial system can be used with an eighth-wavelength-high, inductively loaded vertical antenna, what would be the best compromise to minimise near-field losses?

a)

4 radial wires, 1 wavelength long

b)

8 radial wires, a half-wavelength long

c)

A wire-mesh screen at the antenna base, an eighth-wavelength square

d)

4 radial wires, 2 wavelengths long

85.

What is one characteristic of a Beverage antenna?

a)

For best performance, it must not exceed 1/4 wavelength in length at the desired frequency

b)

For best performance, it must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground at the desired frequency

c)

For best performance, it should be configured as four-sided loop

d)

For best performance, it should be as long as possible

86.

What determines the free-space polarisation of an antenna?

a)

The orientation of its magnetic field (H-Field)

b)

The orientation of its free space characteristic impedance

c)

The orientation of its electric field (E-Field)

d)

Its elevation pattern

87.

What information is needed to evaluate the gain of an antenna accurately?

a)

Radiation resistance

b)

E-Field and H-Field patterns

c)

Loss resistance

d)

All of these choices

88.

Which is NOT an important reason to evaluate antenna again across the whole frequency band for which it was designed?

a)

The gain may fall off rapidly over the whole frequency band

b)

The feed point impedance may change radically with frequency

c)

The rearward pattern lobes may vary excessively with frequency

d)

The dielectric constant may vary significantly

89.

What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

a)

The front-to-back ratio increases

b)

The feed point impedance becomes very low

c)

The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band

d)

The SWR is reduced

90.

If the boom of a Yagi antenna is lengthened and the elements are properly returned, what usually occurs?

a)

The gain increases

b)

The SWR decreases

c)

The front-to-back ratio increases

d)

The gain bandwidth decreases rapidly

91.

What type of computer program is commonly used for modelling antennas?

a)

Graphical analysis

b)

Method of Moments

c)

Mutual impedance analysis

d)

Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties

92.

What is the principle of a "Method of Moments" analysis?

a)

A wire is modelled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of current

b)

A wire is modelled as a single sine-wave current generator

c)

A wire is modelled as a series of points, each having a distinct location in space

d)

A wire is modelled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it

93.

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

a)

Conductance

b)

Reluctance

c)

Admittance

d)

Reactance

94.

What precaution should operator observe if the installation of an indoor transmitting antenna?

a)

Locate the antenna close to the operating position to minimise feedline radiation

b)

Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation

c)

Make sure that MPE limits not exceeded in occupied areas

d)

Make sure the antenna properly shielded

95.

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety belt or harness?

a)

Never lean back and rely on the belt alone to support your weight

b)

Confirm that the belt is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life

c)

Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the belt D-ring

d)

All of these choices are correct

96.

What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

a)

Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower

b)

Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged

c)

Unground the base of the tower

d)

All of these choices are correct

97.

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

a)

The resistance of solder is too high

b)

Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection

c)

Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection

d)

A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

98.

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

a)

Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder

b)

High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly

c)

Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit

d)

RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas

99.

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

a)

They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines

b)

Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle

c)

Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring

d)

They must be bonded together with all other grounds

100.

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

a)

The generator should be located in a well-ventilated area

b)

The generator must be insulated from ground

c)

The generator must be insulated from ground

d)

All of these choices are correct

101.

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

a)

It heats body tissue

b)

It causes radiation poisoning

c)

It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level

d)

It cools body tissue

102.

What does "time averaging" mean about RF radiation exposure?

a)

The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24 hour period

b)

The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body

c)

The total time of the exposure

d)

The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time

103.

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

a)

A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

b)

A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

c)

Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

d)

High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

104.

What type of instrument can be used to measure an RF field accurately?

a)

A receiver with an S meter

b)

A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna

c)

SWR meter with a peak-reading function

d)

An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator

105.

What precaution should operator take whenever adjustments or repairing to an antenna?

a)

Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded

b)

Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line

c)

Wear a radiation badge

d)

All of these choices are correct

106.

Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?

a)

Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning

b)

Danger of engine over torque

c)

Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion

d)

Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion

107.

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

a)

It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit

b)

It prevents signal overload

c)

It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded

d)

It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis