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Dissociative Disorders Quiz

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a characteristic of dissociative amnesia?

a)

Sudden loss of memory due to psychological stress

b)

Physical damage to the brain

c)

Hallucinations and delusions

d)

Constant anxiety about health

2.

Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is characterized by:

a)

A single personality with mood swings

b)

The presence of two or more distinct identities

c)

An inability to recall past events due to injury

d)

Repeated panic attacks

3.

Which dissociative disorder involves traveling away from home with memory loss?

a)

Dissociative amnesia

b)

Dissociative fugue

c)

Depersonalization-derealization disorder

d)

Conversion disorder

4.

People with depersonalization-derealization disorder often experience:

a)

Feeling detached from their own body or surroundings

b)

Frequent episodes of anger and hostility

c)

Severe physical pain without cause

d)

Uncontrollable movements

5.

What is the primary cause of dissociative disorders?

a)

Genetic mutations

b)

Traumatic events and stress

c)

Viral infections

d)

Chemical imbalances

6.

Conversion disorder involves:

a)

Neurological symptoms without a medical explanation

b)

A preoccupation with having a serious illness

c)

Repetitive, unwanted thoughts

d)

Excessive fear of social situations

7.

A person who genuinely believes they are blind despite no medical cause has:

a)

Illness anxiety disorder

b)

Somatic symptom disorder

c)

Conversion disorder

d)

Body dysmorphic disorder

8.

A key symptom of somatic symptom disorder is:

a)

Recurrent physical complaints with excessive worry

b)

A sudden inability to recall personal information

c)

Hearing voices that are not real

d)

Avoidance of social interactions

9.

Which disorder involves excessive concern over having a serious illness despite medical reassurance?

a)

Generalized anxiety disorder

b)

Illness anxiety disorder

c)

Panic disorder

d)

Schizophrenia

10.

Which of the following is a primary symptom of conversion disorder?

a)

Sudden neurological symptoms without a medical cause

b)

Constant worry about having a severe illness

c)

Uncontrollable fear of social settings

d)

Episodes of extreme mood swings

11.

Dissociative fugue includes:

a)

Uncontrollable flashbacks

b)

Sudden travel with identity loss

c)

Extreme physical pain

d)

An obsession with weight loss

12.

Which disorder often follows a traumatic event?

a)

Dissociative amnesia

b)

Bipolar disorder

c)

Panic disorder

d)

Specific phobia

13.

In somatic symptom disorder, physical symptoms:

a)

Have no medical explanation but cause distress

b)

Are always caused by infections

c)

Only affect the digestive system

d)

Occur only during childhood

14.

A common feature of illness anxiety disorder is:

a)

Avoiding hospitals

b)

Constantly seeking medical reassurance

c)

Panic attacks

d)

Hallucinations

15.

Which is a dissociative disorder?

a)

Conversion disorder

b)

Dissociative identity disorder

c)

Illness anxiety disorder

d)

Depression

16.

A person experiencing dissociative amnesia may struggle to remember:

a)

Specific traumatic events

b)

Their ability to perform motor tasks

c)

General world knowledge

d)

The names of common objects

17.

Which symptom is common in dissociative identity disorder (DID)?

a)

Multiple distinct personalities

b)

Repetitive, intrusive thoughts

c)

Delusions of grandeur

d)

Fear of social interactions

18.

Dissociative disorders primarily affect:

a)

Motor skills and coordination

b)

Memory, consciousness, and identity

c)

Perception of pain

d)

Emotional stability

19.

What distinguishes dissociative fugue from dissociative amnesia?

a)

Travel away from home with identity confusion

b)

Hallucinations and delusions

c)

Persistent depressive symptoms

d)

Increased anxiety

20.

Depersonalization disorder involves:

a)

Feeling detached from one’s body or thoughts

b)

Belief in having a serious medical illness

c)

Excessive focus on physical appearance

d)

A sudden inability to walk or talk

21.

Which disorder is sometimes linked to childhood trauma?

a)

Dissociative identity disorder

b)

Panic disorder

c)

Schizophrenia

d)

Major depressive disorder

22.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of dissociative identity disorder?

a)

Switching between different identities

b)

Gaps in memory or lost time

c)

Delusions of persecution

d)

Hearing different voices in one’s head

23.

Illness anxiety disorder (hypochondriasis) differs from somatic symptom disorder because:

a)

It involves excessive fear of illness rather than physical symptoms

b)

It causes actual physical impairments

c)

It always includes dissociation

d)

It is caused by infections

24.

Which disorder often causes unexplained blindness or paralysis?

a)

Conversion disorder

b)

Dissociative amnesia

c)

Panic disorder

d)

Body dysmorphic disorder

25.

Dissociative amnesia can result in the inability to recall:

a)

Specific traumatic events

b)

General knowledge such as math skills

c)

Motor skills like walking

d)

Foreign languages

26.

The primary difference between somatic symptom disorder and conversion disorder is that:

a)

Conversion disorder involves neurological symptoms, while somatic symptom disorder involves general physical complaints

b)

Somatic symptom disorder includes dissociative symptoms

c)

Conversion disorder is caused by infections

d)

Somatic symptom disorder has a known medical cause

27.

A person with somatic symptom disorder is most likely to:

a)

Frequently visit doctors for physical complaints

b)

Experience manic episodes

c)

Avoid social interactions due to paranoia

d)

Have difficulty recognizing emotions

28.

Which of the following is true about dissociative disorders?

a)

They often result from extreme stress or trauma

b)

They are caused by chemical imbalances in the brain

c)

They are the same as psychotic disorders

d)

They primarily affect motor functions

29.

A person experiencing derealization might describe their surroundings as:

a)

Dreamlike or unreal

b)

Overwhelming and chaotic

c)

Constantly changing

d)

Full of hidden threats

30.

Which of the following is a major risk factor for developing dissociative disorders?

a)

Childhood abuse or trauma

b)

Genetic predisposition

c)

Excessive caffeine consumption

d)

Low blood sugar levels

31.

What is a major symptom of major depressive disorder?

a)

Excessive happiness

b)

Persistent sadness or loss of interest

c)

Multiple personalities

d)

Frequent hallucinations

32.

Which of the following is a symptom of bipolar disorder?

a)

Alternating periods of depression and mania

b)

Constant low energy levels

c)

Excessive fear of social interactions

d)

Lack of emotional expression

33.

Manic episodes in bipolar disorder often involve:

a)

Increased energy and impulsivity

b)

Extreme paranoia

c)

Hallucinations and delusions

d)

Memory loss

34.

Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) is:

4 lines
35.

Episodes in bipolar disorder often involve:

a)

Increased energy and impulsivity

b)

Extreme paranoia

c)

Hallucinations and delusions

d)

Memory loss

36.

Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) is:

a)

A mild but long-lasting form of depression

b)

A disorder involving manic episodes

c)

A temporary stress reaction

d)

A type of schizophrenia

37.

Which of the following is NOT a mood disorder?

a)

Major depressive disorder

b)

Bipolar disorder

c)

Panic disorder

d)

Seasonal affective disorder

38.

What is a common symptom of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

a)

Constant, excessive worry

b)

Obsession with germs

c)

Hallucinations

d)

Extreme mood swings

39.

Which anxiety disorder involves sudden episodes of intense fear?

a)

Panic disorder

b)

Generalized anxiety disorder

c)

Agoraphobia

d)

PTSD

40.

A phobia is characterized by:

a)

An intense fear of a specific object or situation

b)

Uncontrollable movements

c)

Loss of memory due to stress

d)

Hallucinations

41.

Which disorder involves excessive fear of social situations?

a)

Social anxiety disorder

b)

Panic disorder

c)

Agoraphobia

d)

Bipolar disorder

42.

PTSD is often triggered by:

a)

Traumatic experiences

b)

Genetic factors alone

c)

High blood sugar levels

d)

Seasonal changes

43.

People with panic disorder often experience:

a)

Sudden, intense episodes of fear

b)

Chronic sadness

c)

Obsessions and compulsions

d)

Multiple identities

44.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of anxiety disorders?

a)

Constant worry

b)

Increased heart rate

c)

Hallucinations

d)

Muscle tension

45.

Which disorder is associated with persistent, unwanted thoughts and repetitive behaviors?

a)

Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)

b)

Generalized anxiety disorder

c)

Panic disorder

d)

Somatic symptom disorder

46.

Which of the following is a treatment option for mood disorders?

a)

Cognitive-behavioral therapy

b)

Avoiding social interaction

c)

Ignoring the problem

d)

None of the above

47.

A common medication used to treat depression is:

a)

SSRI antidepressants

b)

Antipsychotics

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Stimulants

48.

Which of the following best defines stimulus motives?

a)

Needs that drive us to reduce tension and stimulation

b)

Natural drives for stimulation, exploration, and activity

c)

External rewards that influence motivation

d)

The desire to avoid failure

49.

Which of these is an example of a stimulus motive?

a)

Avoiding dangerous activities

b)

Enjoying horror movies and roller coasters

c)

Seeking monetary rewards for work

d)

Reducing social interactions

50.

Why do some people not seek high levels of stimulation?

a)

They are more motivated by success

b)

They have a natural fear of new experiences

c)

They are focused on avoiding failure

d)

Both A and C

51.

What type of reward is based on personal growth and curiosity?

a)

Extrinsic rewards

b)

Stimulus motives

c)

Intrinsic rewards

d)

Performance goals

52.

Which of the following is an example of an extrinsic reward?

a)

Personal satisfaction from solving a puzzle

b)

Earning money for good grades

c)

Exploring new places for enjoyment

d)

Reading a book out of curiosity

53.

A student works hard in school to earn a scholarship. This is an example of:

a)

Intrinsic motivation

b)

Extrinsic motivation

c)

Stimulus motives

d)

Cognitive consistency

54.

What does cognitive consistency refer to?

a)

The belief that all thoughts must be positive

b)

The tendency to make our thoughts, behaviors, and beliefs match

c)

The need to constantly change our opinions

d)

A preference for external rewards

55.

According to balance theory, what happens when a close friend dislikes something you love?

a)

It has no impact on your emotions

b)

It creates tension or discomfort

c)

You automatically change your opinion

d)

You feel indifferent about the situation

56.

Which of the following best explains balance theory?

a)

People dislike agreeing with others

b)

People are uncomfortable when they disagree with those close to them

c)

People seek external rewards for motivation

d)

People are always motivated by intrinsic rewards

57.

What is cognitive dissonance?

a)

The tendency to always agree with close friends

b)

The feeling of unease when our actions contradict our beliefs

c)

The need for external rewards in motivation

d)

The belief that all thoughts must be logical

58.

Which of these is an example of cognitive dissonance?

a)

Buying an expensive item and later justifying the purchase

b)

Changing your opinion to match your friend’s

c)

Preferring quiet environments over stimulation

d)

Working harder when given a financial incentive

59.

Why do people experience cognitive dissonance?

a)

They are naturally drawn to external rewards

b)

Contradictions between actions and beliefs create discomfort

c)

Their stimulus motives are too strong

d)

They avoid failure at all costs

60.

How might someone resolve cognitive dissonance after making an expensive purchase?

a)

Returning the item immediately

b)

Ignoring the guilt completely

c)

Convincing themselves that the item was worth the cost

d)

Avoiding future purchases altogether

61.

Which of the following best illustrates cognitive consistency?

a)

A person changing their behavior to align with their beliefs

b)

A person ignoring uncomfortable contradictions

c)

A person seeking external validation for success

d)

A person avoiding stimulation to reduce tension

62.

How are cognitive consistency and cognitive dissonance related?

a)

Both involve the discomfort of having contradicting thoughts and actions

b)

They are unrelated concepts

c)

Cognitive dissonance leads to cognitive consistency by forcing a resolution

d)

Both A and C

63.

Which theory of motivation suggests that behavior is driven by innate, unlearned patterns?

a)

Drive-Reduction Theory

b)

Humanistic Theory

c)

Instinct Theory

d)

Sociocultural Theory

64.

According to Drive-Reduction Theory, what happens when a biological need is unmet for a long time?

a)

The drive weakens

b)

The drive strengthens

c)

The need disappears

d)

The behavior becomes random

65.

Which theory of motivation emphasizes the role of culture and social factors?

a)

Drive-Reduction Theory

b)

Humanistic Theory

c)

Instinct Theory

d)

Sociocultural Theory

66.

What is the primary difference between biological and psychological needs?

a)

Biological needs are learned, while psychological needs are innate

b)

Psychological needs are universal, while biological needs vary by culture

c)

Biological needs are inborn, while psychological needs are shaped by experience

d)

Psychological needs can be satisfied through food and water

67.

What is an example of a psychological need rather than a biological need?

a)

Hunger

b)

Thirst

c)

Achievement

d)

Sleep

68.

Which psychologist developed the Hierarchy of Needs?

a)

Sigmund Freud

b)

B.F. Skinner

c)

Abraham Maslow

d)

Ivan Pavlov

69.

What is the highest level of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?

a)

Safety Needs

b)

Love and Belonging

c)

Esteem

70.

Which psychologist developed the Hierarchy of Needs?

a)

Sigmund Freud

b)

B.F. Skinner

c)

Abraham Maslow

d)

Ivan Pavlov

71.

What is the highest level of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?

a)

Safety Needs

b)

Love and Belonging

c)

Esteem Needs

d)

Self-Actualization

72.

Which of the following is an example of self-actualization?

a)

Buying a house

b)

Pursuing personal growth and creativity

c)

Seeking approval from others

d)

Earning a high salary

73.

In Maslow’s Hierarchy, which of the following comes after physiological needs?

a)

Self-actualization

b)

Esteem Needs

c)

Love and Belonging

d)

Safety Needs

74.

According to Maslow, which of these needs must be satisfied first?

a)

Friendship and relationships

b)

Recognition and self-esteem

c)

Basic survival needs like food and water

d)

Creativity and problem-solving

75.

Drive-Reduction Theory suggests that organisms act to:

a)

Seek excitement and adventure

b)

Maintain internal balance by satisfying needs

c)

Follow social norms and expectations

d)

Strengthen learned behaviors

76.

Which theory suggests that people are motivated by personal growth and fulfillment?

a)

Drive-Reduction Theory

b)

Sociocultural Theory

c)

Humanistic Theory

d)

Instinct Theory

77.

Which need in Maslow’s Hierarchy involves feeling respected and valued?

a)

Physiological Needs

b)

Esteem Needs

c)

Safety Needs

d)

Love and Belonging

78.

How do psychological needs differ from biological needs?

a)

Psychological needs are essential for survival

b)

Psychological needs develop through experience and learning

c)

Psychological needs are the same for all humans

d)

Psychological needs are completely separate from motivation

79.

According to motivation theories, why do people work harder when a reward is involved?

a)

Rewards satisfy psychological needs

b)

Rewards decrease motivation over time

c)

People are naturally drawn to rewards

d)

External incentives increase motivation

80.

What are emotions?

a)

Instinctive behaviors

b)

States of feeling that influence thought and behavior

c)

Physical responses to external stimuli

d)

Learned behaviors over time

81.

Which of the following is an example of a positive emotion?

a)

Fear

b)

Sadness

c)

Love

d)

Anger

82.

Persistent negative emotions can:

a)

Make life difficult

b)

Have no effect on daily life

c)

Only occur in people with mental illness

d)

Always lead to aggression

83.

Which of the following is not a function of emotions?

a)

Motivating behavior

b)

Enhancing memory

c)

Controlling autonomic nervous system responses

d)

Influencing thoughts

84.

Which system controls involuntary body functions such as heart rate and digestion?

a)

Central nervous system

b)

Somatic nervous system

c)

Autonomic nervous system

d)

Skeletal nervous system

85.

What is the function of the sympathetic nervous system?

a)

Controls voluntary muscle movement

b)

Helps the body relax and recover

c)

Prepares the body for stress or emergencies

d)

Regulates body temperature

86.

The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for:

a)

Preparing the body for danger

b)

Slowing heart rate and stimulating digestion

c)

Enhancing muscle movement

d)

Increasing aggression levels

87.

Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for processing emotions like fear and aggression?

a)

Hippocampus

b)

Amygdala

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Medulla oblongata

88.

The hypothalamus is responsible for:

a)

Storing memories

b)

Regulating emotional responses and bodily functions

c)

Controlling voluntary movements

d)

Producing dopamine

89.

The hippocampus plays a key role in:

a)

Emotional memories and learning

b)

Facial recognition

c)

Controlling balance

d)

Language development

90.

According to ancient Chinese belief, what are the four inborn emotions?

a)

Happiness, anger, sorrow, and fear

b)

Love, hate, sadness, and surprise

c)

Joy, curiosity, anger, and guilt

d)

Rage, fear, disgust, and sadness

91.

John B. Watson believed humans have three instinctive emotions:

a)

Happiness, fear, and sadness

b)

Fear, rage, and love

c)

Joy, curiosity, and anger

d)

Excitement, fear, and disgust

92.

Carroll Izard argued that:

a)

All emotions are distinct and present from birth

b)

Emotions develop only through experience

c)

People have only one basic emotion

d)

Emotional expression is purely learned

93.

The Opponent-Process Theory states that emotions:

a)

Are influenced by genetic factors

b)

Occur due to bodily reactions

c)

Are paired in opposites

d)

Develop only in adulthood

94.

According to the Opponent-Process Theory, a skydiver’s fear will:

a)

Stay the same over time

b)

Increase with each jump

c)

Be replaced by excitement after repeated jumps

d)

Cause permanent trauma

95.

The James-Lange Theory suggests that:

a)

Emotions and bodily responses occur simultaneously

b)

Emotions result from physiological reactions

c)

Thinking triggers emotional reactions

d)

Emotions are socially constructed

96.

According to the Cannon-Bard Theory, when a person sees a bear:

a)

They first feel fear, then react

b)

The brain processes emotion and bodily reactions simultaneously

c)

Their bodily reaction causes fear

d)

They will not experience fear at all

97.

The Cognitive Appraisal Theory states that:

a)

Emotions result from how we evaluate situations

b)

Physical reactions cause emotions

c)

Emotions develop only through experience

d)

Emotions occur randomly

98.

Who proposed the Cognitive Appraisal Theory?

a)

William James

b)

Richard Lazarus

c)

Carroll Izard

d)

Paul Ekman

99.

What is primary appraisal in the Cognitive Appraisal Theory?

a)

Assessing how to cope with a situation

b)

Deciding whether an event is good, bad, or neutral

c)

Ignoring emotions to reduce stress

d)

Evaluating the intensity of emotions

100.

Paul Ekman identified how many universal facial expressions?

a)

Five

b)

Seven

c)

Nine

d)

Twelve

101.

Which emotion is NOT one of the universal facial expressions identified by Ekman?

a)

Fear

b)

Joy

c)

Disgust

d)

Guilt

102.

William James stated that the main motive behind human actions is:

a)

Avoiding pain

b)

Seeking happiness

c)

Reducing stress

d)

Expressing emotions

103.

The World Database of Happiness:

a)

Measures global wealth

b)

Compiles studies of happiness

c)

Tracks anger levels

d)

Focuses on mental illnesses

104.

Which of the following is NOT a function of anger?

a)

It can be a response to an attack

b)

It always leads to violence

c)

It can be expressed in a healthy way

d)

It may result from an insult

105.

Which emotion is commonly linked to fight-or-flight?

a)

Happiness

b)

Sadness

c)

Fear

d)

Love