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Interest Rates and Economic Theories

Total questions: 78

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is economics?

a)

Study of supply and demand

b)

Study of microeconomics and macroeconomics

c)

Study of allocating scarce resources among unlimited wants

d)

Study of extracting resources from citizens

2.

What is scarcity?

a)

Not enough to go around

b)

Must be wanted, have value, and be scarce

c)

Demand is greater than supply

d)

Supply is greater than demand

3.

What is opportunity cost?

a)

The cost of producing a good or service

b)

The value of the next best alternative that was lost

c)

The value of all alternatives

d)

The cost of consuming a good or service

4.

What are factors of production?

a)

Resources used to produce goods and services: land, labor, capital, entrepreneurship

b)

Resources used to consume goods and services: land, labor, capital, entrepreneurship

c)

Resources used to produce or consume goods and services

d)

Resources used to maximize the amount of goods produced

5.

What is an economic system?

a)

The way a society organizes to decide production, methods, and distribution of goods and services.

b)

A group of economically connected countries or regions.

c)

The 'invisible hand' that sets price and quantity for goods and services.

d)

None of the above

6.

What defines a traditional economic system?

a)

Political leaders organize production and distribution.

b)

Everyone is involved in organizing production and distribution.

c)

Cultural customs are used to organize production and distribution.

d)

None of the above.

7.

What defines a command economic system?

a)

Political leaders organize production and distribution.

b)

Everyone is involved in organizing production and distribution.

8.

What defines a market economic system?

a)

Political leaders organize production and distribution.

b)

Everyone is involved in organizing production and distribution.

c)

Cultural customs are used to organize production and distribution

d)

None of the above

9.

Who plays an important role in a market economy?

a)

Entrepreneurs

b)

Workers

c)

Consumers

d)

All of the above

10.

The main goal in a market economy is: (two answers)

a)

Competition

b)

Profit

c)

Winning

d)

Economic equality

11.

What is a "market"?

a)

A. A situation which brings willing buyers and sellers together

b)

B. A place to buy consumer goods

c)

C. A place to sell one’s production

d)

D. A competition

12.

A market with many sellers, each differentiating similar products to gain market share is called:

a)

Monopoly

b)

Oligopoly

c)

Pure competition

d)

Mercantilism

13.

A market in which one seller provide most of the goods and services is known as a/an:

a)

Monopoly

b)

Oligopoly

c)

Pure competition

d)

Mercantilism

14.

What defines the demand curve?

a)

The amount consumers are willing and able to buy at a given price

b)

The amount businesses are willing and able to produce at a given price

c)

A graph showing how demand changes with price

d)

A graph showing how supply changes with price

15.

What defines the supply curve?

a)

The amount consumers are willing to buy at a given price

b)

The amount businesses are willing to produce at a given price

c)

A graph showing demand changes with price

d)

A graph showing supply changes with price

16.

What is quantity demanded?

a)

The amount consumers are willing and able to buy at a given price

b)

The amount businesses are willing and able to produce at a given price

c)

A graph showing how demand changes with price

d)

A graph showing how supply changes with price

17.

What is quantity supplied?

a)

The amount of good or service consumers are willing and able to buy at a given price

b)

The amount of a good or service businesses are willing and able to produce at a given price

c)

A graph showing how the amount of a good or service demanded changes with a change in price

d)

A graph showing how the amount of a good or service supplied changes with a change in price

18.

What is the law of supply?

a)

A. As price increases, quantity supplied decreases

b)

B. As price increases, quantity supplied increases

c)

C. Change in price affects quantity demanded

d)

D. Change in price affects quantity supplied

19.

What is the law of demand?

a)

A. As price increases, quantity demanded decreases

b)

B. As price increases, quantity demand increases

c)

C. How a change in price affects the quantity demanded

d)

D. How a change in price affects the quantity supplied

20.

In a market economy, supply and demand determine:

a)

Balance

b)

Interest rates

c)

Price

d)

Quantity

21.

What is a shortage?

a)

The price at which the quantity supplied equals the quantity demanded

b)

The quantity which the price offered by firms equals the price consumers are willing to pay

c)

When the quantity supplied is greater than quantity demanded

d)

When the quantity demanded is greater than quantity supplied

22.

What is surplus?

a)

The price at which the quantity supplied equals the quantity demanded

b)

The quantity which the price offered by firms equals the price consumers are willing to pay

c)

When the quantity supplied is greater than quantity demanded

d)

When the quantity demanded is greater than quantity supplied

23.

What defines a change in demand?

a)

A movement of the entire demand curve to the right or left

b)

A movement along the demand curve

c)

A changing of the slope of the demand curve

d)

A changing of the curvature of the demand curve

24.

What are determinants of demand?

a)

Price factors affecting demand

b)

Non-price factors affecting supply

c)

Non-price factors affecting demand

d)

Price factors affecting supply

25.

Which does NOT shift the demand curve?

a)

Income

b)

Substitutes

c)

Complements

d)

Price

26.

Which does NOT increase product demand?

a)

Increase in population

b)

Change in tastes

c)

Increase in the price substitutes

d)

Implementation of additional federal regulations

27.

What defines substitutes?

a)

Good or service used with another

b)

Good or service that replaces another

28.

What defines complements?

a)

Good or service used with another

b)

Good or service that can replace another

c)

Good or service not influenced by another

d)

Nice things you say to people

29.

What defines a change in supply?

a)

A movement of the entire supply curve to the right or left

b)

A movement along the supply curve

c)

A changing of the slope of the supply curve

d)

A changing of the curvature of the supply curve

30.

Which of the following would NOT increase product supply?

a)

Decrease in input prices

b)

Decrease in market price

c)

More efficient workforce

d)

Increase in consumer income

31.

Which does NOT shift the supply curve?

a)

Costs of production

b)

technology

c)

number of producers

d)

necessities & luxuries

32.

What best defines elastic?

a)

Perfectly horizontal; any change in price reduces quantity to zero; at the correct price, quantity is infinite

b)

A small change in price causes a large change in quantity

c)

Perfectly vertical; a change in price does not change quantity

d)

A small change in price causes a small change in quantity

33.

What is elasticity of demand?

a)

The quantity demanded for a good or service varies inversely with price

b)

The quantity supplied of a good or service varies positively with price

c)

How a change in price affects the quantity demanded for a good or service

d)

How a change in price affects the quantity supplied for a good or service

34.

Which does NOT affect demand elasticity?

a)

Presence of substitutes

b)

Cost of production

c)

Price of the good

d)

Importance to consumer

35.

What defines elasticity of supply?

a)

The quantity demanded varies inversely with price

b)

The quantity supplied varies positively with price

c)

How price change affects quantity demanded

d)

How price change affects quantity supplied

36.

Which is an example of inelastic supply?

a)

Kites

b)

Candy

c)

Apple orchard

d)

Hair cuts

37.

A shortage of hamburgers would occur if the market price is

a)

$2.00 per hamburger

b)

Above $2.00 per hamburger

c)

Below $2.00 per hamburger

d)

Below $2.50 per hamburger

38.

A surplus of hamburgers would result if the market price is

a)

$2.00 per hamburger

b)

Above $2.00 per hamburger

c)

Below $2.00 per hamburger

d)

Below $2.50 per hamburger

39.

If the price of a good is mistakenly set by the producer above the equilibrium price but is free to move, we can expect

4 lines
40.

Which change would cause a movement along the demand curve for Ford trucks, but not shift the demand curve?

a)

Consumer income

b)

Chevy prices

c)

Ford prices

d)

Consumer tastes

41.

The economic goals of the United States do NOT include:

a)

Economic growth

b)

Full employment

c)

Equal opportunity

d)

Stable prices

42.

What is gross domestic product?

a)

The total of all goods and services purchased in the U.S. in one year

b)

The total of all goods and services produced in the U.S. in one year

c)

The total of all goods and services sold in the U.S. in one year

d)

None of the above

43.

Real GDP differs from GDP because it considers which of the following?

a)

The rate of inflation

b)

The quality of goods

c)

The balance of trade

d)

The absolute advantage

44.

By studying GDP figures, economists can do all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Evaluate the economy's performance

b)

Compare different countries' economies

c)

Understand business cycles

d)

Determine a company’s optimal output

45.

What is frictional unemployment?

a)

A. When people take time to find a job

b)

B. Due to harvest schedules, vacations, or industry slowdowns

46.

What is cyclical unemployment?

a)

When people take time to find a job

b)

Due to harvest schedules, vacations, or industry slowdowns

c)

When workers’ skills don't match available jobs

d)

Rises during downturns and falls when the economy improves

47.

What is seasonal unemployment?

a)

Occurs when people take time to find a job

b)

Occurs due to harvest schedules, vacations, or industry slowdowns

c)

Occurs when workers’ skills do not match available jobs

d)

Unemployment that rises during downturns and falls when the economy improves

48.

What is structural development?

a)

When people take time to find a job

b)

Due to harvest schedules, vacations, or industry slowdowns

c)

When workers’ skills don't match available jobs

d)

Unemployment during economic downturns

49.

Inflation can be described as:

a)

Increase in prices

b)

Increase in demand

c)

Increase in supply

d)

All of the above

50.

If inflation was being caused by having too much money in the economy, which theory would explain the inflation?

a)

Quantity theory

b)

Demand-pull theory

c)

Cost-push theory

d)

Wage price spiral

51.

If inflation was being caused by producers raising prices in order to meet increased costs, which theory would explain the inflation?

a)

Quantity theory

b)

Demand-pull theory

c)

Cost-push theory

d)

Wage price spiral

52.

If inflation were being caused by the demand for goods and services exceeding existing supplies, which theory would explain the inflation?

a)

Quantity theory

b)

Demand-pull theory

c)

Cost-push theory

d)

Wage price spiral

53.

If inflation were being caused by rising wages causing high prices which cause higher wages, which theory would explain the inflation?

a)

Quantity theory

b)

Demand-pull theory

c)

Cost-push theory

d)

Wage price spiral

54.

The Federal Reserve influences the money supply with which of the following?

a)

Monetary

b)

Fiscal policy

c)

Trade policy

d)

None of the above

55.

Congress influences the money supply with which of the following?

a)

Monetary policy

b)

Fiscal policy

c)

Trade policy

d)

None of the above

56.

Which of the following best describes reserve requirements?

a)

The interest rates charged to banks for borrowing money from the Fed

b)

The % of deposits which banks must hold and not loan out to other people

c)

The buying and selling of United States bond

d)

The amount of gas needed to make it to the next gas station

57.

Which of the following best describes open market operations?

a)

The interest rates charged to banks for borrowing money from the Fed

b)

The % of deposits which banks must hold and not loan out to other people

c)

The buying and selling of United States bond

d)

The amount of gas needed to make it to the next gas station

58.

Which of the following best describes discount rates?

a)

The interest rates charged to banks for borrowing money from the Fed

b)

The % of deposits which banks must hold and not loan out to other people

c)

The buying and selling of United States bond

d)

The amount of gas needed to make it to the next gas station

59.

If the Federal Reserve wanted to increase the money supply using reserve requirements it would?

a)

Lower the rate

b)

Increase the rate

c)

Leave the rate unchanged

d)

None of the above

60.

If the Federal Reserve wanted to increase money supply using discount rates it would?

a)

Lower the rate

b)

Increase the rate

c)

Leave the rate unchanged

d)

None of the above

61.

If the Federal Reserve wanted to increase the money supply using open market operations it would?

a)

Buy bonds

b)

Sell bonds

c)

Neither sell nor buy bonds

d)

None of the above

62.

Which of the following situations would signal the need for expansionary (easy) monetary policy?

a)

Rising inflation, extremely low unemployment, economic recovery

b)

Falling GDP, rising unemployment, economic recession

c)

Rising inflation, rising unemployment, economic recovery

d)

Increasing GDP extremely low unemployment, economic recession

63.

Which of the following situations would signal the need for restrictive (tight) monetary policy?

a)

Rising inflation, extremely low unemployment, economic recovery

b)

Falling GDP, rising unemployment, economic recession

c)

Rising inflation, rising unemployment, economic recovery

d)

GDP extremely low unemployment, economic recession

64.

Which of the following would be an example of fiscal policy?

a)

An increase in the reserve requirement

b)

An increase in federal spending

c)

The selling of bonds on the open market

d)

A decrease in the discount rate

65.

Which of the following is NOT subject to control by the Federal Reserve?

a)

Taxes

b)

Money supply

c)

Reserves in banks

66.

Why will $1,000 deposited in a bank “create” money through the multiplier effect?

a)

The $1,000 earns interest for the depositor

b)

The Federal Reserve will match it with $1,000 of reserves

c)

The bank will earn interest on the money it loans

d)

Some of the deposit will be loaned, spent, and then redeposited

67.

India can produce 100 million tons of cotton and China can produce 150 million tons of cotton. China has:

a)

A. A trade surplus

b)

B. An absolute advantage

c)

C. A comparative advantage

d)

D. A surplus

68.

According to the theory of comparative advantage, a good should be produced in a nation where:

a)

A. The opportunity costs of production are lower than that of another country

b)

B. The absolute advantage is greatest

c)

C. The production possibilities curve shows a greater slope

d)

D. None of the above

69.

This is the macroeconomic(s) approach that asserts fiscal policies can use tax income & borrowing to increase aggregate demand as a means of stabilizing market economic growth, inflation, & unemployment.

a)

laissez-faire economics

b)

demand-side economy theory

c)

supply-side economic theory

d)

central planning

70.

This is the macroeconomic approach that asserts federal regulations, spending, and taxes should be reduced to stimulate economic growth and aggregate demand by lowering the cost of production & therefore market price for goods. Furthermore, it held that full employment contributed to inflation, and that a monetary authority should be charged with regulating the money supply to stabilize inflation, employment, and growth.

a)

laissez-faire economics

b)

demand-side economy theory

c)

supply-side economic theory

d)

central planning

71.

This was the Nobel-prize winning American economist who, in the 1970s, helped develop the contemporary monetary and fiscal approaches used by most world central banks.

a)

John Keynes

b)

Adam Smith

c)

Milton Friedman

72.

This was a term used to describe the return of pro-laissez-faire economic policies in the 1970s and 1980s following the period of high unemployment and high inflation known as stagflation of the 1970s.

a)

neo-conservatism

b)

socialism

c)

globalization

d)

neo-liberalism

73.

This is the term used to describe the entity or person that dictates an economy’s monetary policy.

a)

federal bank

b)

monetary authority

c)

money supply

d)

central bank

74.

Which of the following makes the primary monetary policy decisions for the Federal Resource System?

a)

A. Board of Governors

b)

B. Chamber of Commerce

c)

C. Bank of America

d)

D. U.S. Treasury

75.

This an economy centered around information-based jobs rather than traditional industrial production.

a)

manufacturing economy

b)

agricultural economy

c)

commercial economy

d)

knowledge economy

76.

The development of free-trade policies & organizations following World War II contributed most-significantly to which of the following:

a)

globalization

b)

the Cold War

c)

stagflation

d)

the Great Recession

77.

This is the term used to describe the relocation of domestic production to foreign countries.

a)

outsourcing

b)

exporting

c)

importing

d)

insourcing

78.

Which of the following U.S. monetary practices was ended by President Richard M. Nixon in 1971?

a)

the Federal Reserve System

b)

the gold standard

c)

the petrodollar

d)

free trade policies