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Worksheets

FNT2 Test

Total questions: 298

Worksheet time: 3hrs 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Sutures:

The ? the number, the ? the size of the suture

a)

bigger, smaller

b)

bigger, bigger

c)

smaller, bigger

d)

smaller, smaller

2.

Sutures sizes:

(very large, used to close abdominal wall)

a)

00

b)

10-0

3.

Sutures sizes:

(very tiny, used for microvascular anastomoses)

a)

00

b)

10-0

4.

Method of suturing:

• Each stitch is tied and knotted separately

• e.g. Simple interrupted suture, mattress suture

a)

Interrupted suture

b)

Continuous suture

c)

Retention suture

5.

Method of suturing:

• One thread runs in a series of stitches

• Tied only at the beginning and at the end of the run

a. Simple continuous suture

b. Blanket suture

c. Subcuticular suture

a)

Interrupted suture

b)

Continuous suture

c)

Retention suture

6.

Method of suturing:

• Very large sutures used in addition to skin suture

• Attach underlying tissues of fat, muscle and skin

• Support incision in obese individuals or wound with prolonged healing

• Left in place ~ 14 – 21 days (maybe removed at the same time as the skin sutures in some instances).

• Rubber tubings are placed over tension suture to prevent irritating the incision

a)

Interrupted suture

b)

Continuous suture

c)

Retention suture

7.

Removal of suture / staples:

Clean the suture line and the healed incision ? suture /staples removal

a)

before and after

b)

before

c)

after

8.

Removal of suture / staples:

Should I lift the staple remover when squeezing the handles?

a)

Yes

b)

No

9.

Removal of intermittent stitches:

Cut suture as ? to skin as possible

a)

close

b)

far

10.

Removal of suture / staples:

Apply ? if any separation greater than two stitches /staples

in which is apparent to maintain contact between wound edges

(a)  

11.

Wound drain:

1. Penrose drain

2. Yeast drain

3. Corrugated drain

a)

Open drainage system

b)

Closed drainage system

12.

Wound drain:

1. Latex drain

2. Tubal drain

3. Jackson-Pratt (JP) drain

4. Redivac drain

a)

Open drainage system

b)

Closed drainage system

13.

Wound drain:

• Hollow, open-ended rubber tube commonly used after a surgical procedure or for drainage of an abscess

• Not sutured; a large safety pin is usually placed in the part outside the wound to prevent the drain from slipping back into the incised area

• Promotes drainage passively, with the drainage moving from an area of greater pressure, in the wound or surgical site, to the area of less pressure, the absorbent dressings

a)

Penrose drain

b)

Corrugated drain

c)

Latex drain

d)

Jackson-Pratt (JP) drain

e)

Redivac drain

14.

Wound drain:

• Rubber corrugated sheet

• Can be cut to the required size

• Does not get blocked easily

• Usually a safety pin is attached to the drain to prevent it from migrating into the wound

a)

Penrose drain

b)

Corrugated drain

c)

Latex drain

d)

Jackson-Pratt (JP) drain

e)

Redivac drain

15.

Wound drain:

Round drain, Robinson drain (R/D)

• Some may have holes on the sides of the inner end

• Most commonly used closed passive drainage

a)

Penrose drain

b)

Corrugated drain

c)

Latex drain

d)

Jackson-Pratt (JP) drain

e)

Redivac drain

16.

Wound drain:

• A bulblike device that is compressed to create gentle suction

• Consists of perforated tubing connected to a portable vacuum unit

a)

Penrose drain

b)

Corrugated drain

c)

Latex drain

d)

Jackson-Pratt (JP) drain

e)

Redivac drain

17.

Wound drain:

• Either an evacuated bottle or a compressible container.

• Designed to be attached to a fine tube with multiple holes at the proximal end that permit drainage of blood beneath the skin.

• Can be used in deep internal spaces such as around a vascular anastomosis.

a)

Penrose drain

b)

Corrugated drain

c)

Latex drain

d)

Jackson-Pratt (JP) drain

e)

Redivac drain

18.

Detect any complications after removal of drain

1. Bleeding

2. Haematoma

3. Infection

4. Retained drainage tube

a)

1, 3

b)

1, 2, 3

c)

2, 3, 4

d)

All of the above

19.

Jackson-Pratt system should be emptied whenever they are half-full of drainage or air. Once emptied, they should be ? to “recharge” the negative suction

(a)  

20.

Prevent recurrence of urinary tract infection:

Drink ? mL of fluids / day if not contraindicated

a)

2000-3000

b)

1000-2000

c)

500-1000

d)

1500-2000

21.

Which are urinary incontinence type?

1. Stress urinary incontinence (SUI)

2. Urge urinary incontinence (UUI)

3. Overflow incontinence

4. Mixed urinary incontinence

a)

1, 2

b)

1, 2, 3

c)

1, 2, 4

d)

All of the above

22.

Manage urinary incontinence:

What muscle exercises?

• Strengthen pelvic floor muscles

• Reduce or eliminate episodes of incontinence

• Identify the perineal muscles by tightening the anal sphincter as if to control the passing of gas or hold a bowel movement

(a)  

23.

Manage urinary incontinence:

Maintain skin ?

• Wash perineal area with mild soap and water or a commercially no- rinse cleanser after episodes of incontinence

• Provide clean, dry clothing or bed linen

• Apply barrier cream to protect the skin from contact with urine

(a)  

24.

Types of urinary catheters:

• Single lumen tube with opening about 1.25cm from the insertion tip

• Inserted to drain the bladder and then the removed immediately

• Purposes:

- Relieve discomfort due to bladder distention

- Assess amount of residual urine if bladder empties incompletely

- Obtain sterile urine specimen

- Empty bladder completely prior to surgery

a)

Straight catheters

b)

indwelling catheters / foley catheter

c)

Retention catheters

25.

Types of urinary catheters:

• Double/ tripple lumen catheter

• Outside end of the catheter is bifurcated:

- One opening to drain urine

- The other to inflate the balloon

- – The third one to bladder irrigation fluid (in 3-way)

a)

Straight catheters

b)

indwelling catheters / foley catheter

c)

Retention catheters

26.

Types of urinary catheters:

• The larger lumen drains urine from the bladder

• The second smaller lumen is used to inflate the balloon near the tip of the catheter to hold the catheter in place within the bladder

• Usually connected to a closed drainage system

- reduce the risk of microorganisms entering the system and infecting the urinary tract

a)

Straight catheters

b)

indwelling catheters / foley catheter

c)

Retention catheters

27.

Indwelling urinary catheterization:

Always hang the bag ? the level of bladder on the bed frame or a chair to ensure urine drains down out of the bladder

(a)  

28.

Indwelling urinary catheterization:

A ? of the catheter is inflated to ensure that the catheter remains in bladder once it is inserted

(a)  

29.

Intermittent Catheterization:

Drain the bladder for ? periods

(a)  

30.

Intermittent Catheterization:

After ?, the catheter will be removed immediately

(a)  

31.

Urinary catheterization:

Dorsal recumbent position with knees flexed and hip joints externally rotated (Sims’ position if patient unable to lie supine)

a)

Female

b)

Male

32.

Urinary catheterization:

Supine position with thighs slightly abducted or apart

a)

Female

b)

Male

33.

Urinary catheterization:

Female

- Clean (Use a new swab each stroke):

1) One side of (a); another side of (a)

2) One side of (b); another side of (b)

3) Lastly the center of (c)

a)

labia majora > labia minora > urethral meatus

b)

urethral meatus > labia majora > labia minora

c)

labia minora > labia majora > urethral meatus

d)

labia minora > urethral meatus > labia majora

34.

Responses of the body to immobility: Cardiovascular system

• Decreased mobility creates an imbalance in the autonomic nervous system, resulting in a preponderance of sympathetic activity over ? activity that increase heart rate.

(a)  

35.

Responses of the body to immobility: Cardiovascular system

• Supine to sitting SBP <20 mmHg or DBP <10 mmHg

• Under normal conditions, sympathetic nervous system activity causes automatic vasoconstriction in the blood vessels in the lower half of the body when a mobile client changes from a horizontal to a vertical posture.

• For prolonged immobile person, the re-constricting mechanism fails to function properly

What is the respones?

(a)  

36.

Responses of the body to immobility: Cardiovascular system

• Venous vasodilation and stasis which result ? in the leg veins, causing vasodilation and engorgement

(a)  

37.

Responses of the body to immobility: Cardiovascular system

? due to impaired venous return to the heart, hypercoagulability of the blood and injury to a vessel wall.

(a)  

38.

Responses of the body to immobility: Respiratory system

• Pooling of ?: Inactivity allows secretions to pool by gravity, interfering with the normal diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the alveoli. The ability to cough up secretions may be hindered by loss of respiratory muscle tone, dehydration or sedatives that depress cough reflex.

(a)  

39.

Responses of the body to immobility: Respiratory system

?: pooled secretions provide excellent media for bacterial growth.

(a)  

40.

Responses of the body to immobility: Urinary system

when client is in supine position, gravity impedes the emptying urine from kidneys and urinary bladder. To urinate, the client must push upward, against gravity. The renal pelvis may then fill with urine before it is pushed into the ureters.

a)

Urinary stasis

b)

Renal calculi

c)

Urinary retention

d)

Urinary infection

41.

Responses of the body to immobility: Urinary system

with immobility and the resulting excessive amounts of calcium in urine, the urine becomes alkaline and calcium salts precipitate to form renal calculi.

a)

Urinary stasis

b)

Renal calculi

c)

Urinary retention

d)

Urinary infection

42.

Responses of the body to immobility: Urinary system

decreased muscle tone of urinary bladder inhibits its ability to empty completely.

a)

Urinary stasis

b)

Renal calculi

c)

Urinary retention

d)

Urinary infection

43.

Responses of the body to immobility: Urinary system

static urine provides an excellent medium for bacterial growth.

a)

Urinary stasis

b)

Renal calculi

c)

Urinary retention

d)

Urinary infection

44.

Clients’ positioning:

• Use in thoracic surgery, severe respiratory conditions

a)

High Fowler’s 60∘- 90∘

b)

Fowler’s 45∘- 60∘

c)

Semi-Fowler’s 30∘

d)

Low-Fowler’s 15∘

45.

Clients’ positioning:

• To Promote oxygenation, maximum chest expansion

• For oral or nasal gastric feeding, prevent aspiration

a)

High Fowler’s 60∘- 90∘

b)

Fowler’s 45∘- 60∘

c)

Semi-Fowler’s 30∘

d)

Low-Fowler’s 15∘

46.

Clients’ positioning:

• For cardiac, respiratory, neurological conditions

a)

High Fowler’s 60∘- 90∘

b)

Fowler’s 45∘- 60∘

c)

Semi-Fowler’s 30∘

d)

Low-Fowler’s 15∘

47.

Clients’ positioning:

• To promote skin integrity, client comfort

a)

High Fowler’s 60∘- 90∘

b)

Fowler’s 45∘- 60∘

c)

Semi-Fowler’s 30∘

d)

Low-Fowler’s 15∘

48.

Clients’ positioning:

• Lie on one side of body

• Flex top hip and knee, place this leg in front of body

• To create a wider, triangular base of support for greater stability

• To promote good alignment of back

• It helps to relieve pressure on the sacrum and heels

a)

Lateral

b)

Prone

c)

Sim’s

49.

Clients’ positioning:

• Lie on the abdomen with head turn to one side

• One or both arm flex over head

• Hip and knee joint are fully extended

• To promote drainage from mouth for unconscious clients, recovering from surgery of mouth/throat

a)

Lateral

b)

Prone

c)

Sim’s

50.

Clients’ positioning:

• A posture halfway between the lateral and the prone position

• Position the lower arm behind the client, flex the upper arm at the shoulder and elbow

• Flex both legs in front of the client

• For clients who are unconscious, paralyzed, receiving enemas, undergoing examination or treatment of perineal area

a)

Lateral

b)

Prone

c)

Sim’s

51.

Loss - Types of loss:

can by recognized by others

a)

Actual loss

b)

Perceived loss

c)

Situational losses

d)

Developmental losses

52.

Loss - Types of loss:

losing one’s job, the death of child, and losing functional ability

a)

Actual loss

b)

Perceived loss

c)

Situational losses

d)

Developmental losses

53.

Loss - Types of loss:

the departure of grown children from the home, retirement from a career, and the death of aged parents

a)

Actual loss

b)

Perceived loss

c)

Situational losses

d)

Developmental losses

54.

Loss - Types of loss:

experienced by one person but cannot be verified by others

a)

Actual loss

b)

Perceived loss

c)

Developmental losses

d)

Situational losses

55.

• Reaction to loss

• Total response to the emotional experience related to loss

• Encompasses thoughts and feelings, physical, behavioral and spiritual responses

a)

Grief

b)

Bereavement

c)

Mourning

56.

• Subjective response experienced by the surviving loved ones

• Related to death-related losses

a)

Grief

b)

Bereavement

c)

Mourning

57.

• Behavioral process thorough which grief is eventually resolved or altered

• Influenced by culture, spiritual beliefs and custom.

a)

Grief

b)

Bereavement

c)

Mourning

58.

Behavioral Responses:

1. Refuses to believe that loss is happening

2. Is unready to deal with practical problems, such as prosthesis after the loss of a leg.

May assume artificial cheerfulness to prolong denial

a)

Denial

b)

Anger

c)

Bargaining

d)

Depression

e)

Acceptance

59.

Behavioral Responses:

Client or family may direct anger at nurse or staff

a)

Denial

b)

Anger

c)

Bargaining

d)

Depression

e)

Acceptance

60.

Behavioral Responses:

Seeks to bargain to avoid loss (e.g. ‘Let me just live until (a certain time) and then I will be ready to die.’)

a)

Denial

b)

Anger

c)

Bargaining

d)

Depression

e)

Acceptance

61.

Behavioral Responses:

1. Grieves over what has happened and what cannot be.

2. May talk freely (e.g. reviewing past losses such as money or job), or may withdraw

a)

Denial

b)

Anger

c)

Bargaining

d)

Depression

e)

Acceptance

62.

Behavioral Responses:

1. Comes to terms with loss

2. May have decreased interest in surroundings and support people

3. May wish to begin plans (e.g. will, prosthesis, altered living arrangement)

a)

Denial

b)

Anger

c)

Bargaining

d)

Depression

e)

Acceptance

63.

Nursing Implication:

1. Verbally support client but do not reinforce denial

2. Examine your own behavior to ensure that you do not share in client’s denial.

a)

Denial

b)

Anger

c)

Bargaining

d)

Depression

e)

Acceptance

64.

Nursing Implication:

• Help client understand that anger is a normal response to feelings of loss and powerlessness.

• Avoid withdrawal or retaliation; do not take anger personally

• Deal with needs underlying any angry reaction

• Provide structure and continuity to promote feelings of security

• Allow clients as much control as possible over their lives

a)

Denial

b)

Anger

c)

Bargaining

d)

Depression

e)

Acceptance

65.

Nursing Implication:

Listen attentively, and encourage client to talk to relieve guilt and irrational fear. If appropriate, offer spiritual support.

a)

Denial

b)

Anger

c)

Bargaining

d)

Depression

e)

Acceptance

66.

Nursing Implication:

1. Allow client to express sadness

2. Communicate nonverbally by sitting quietly without expecting conversation

3. Convey caring by touch

a)

Denial

b)

Anger

c)

Bargaining

d)

Depression

e)

Acceptance

67.

Nursing Implication:

1. Help family and friends understand client’s decreased need to socialize

2. Encourage client to participate as much as possible in the treatment program

a)

Denial

b)

Anger

c)

Bargaining

d)

Depression

e)

Acceptance

68.

Does not understand the concept of death

Infant’s sense of separation forms basis for later understanding of loss and death.

Believe death is reversible, a temporary departure, or sleep.

Emphasizes immobility and inactivity as attributes of death.

a)

Infancy – 5 years

b)

5 – 9 years

c)

9 -12 years

d)

12 – 18 years

69.

Understands that death is final.

Believes own death can be avoided.

Associates death with aggression or violence.

Believes wishes or unrelated actions can be responsible for death.

a)

Infancy – 5 years

b)

5 – 9 years

c)

9 -12 years

d)

12 – 18 years

70.

Understands death as the inevitable end of life.

Begins to understand own mortality, expressed as interest in afterlife or as fear of death.

a)

Infancy – 5 years

b)

5 – 9 years

c)

9 -12 years

d)

12 – 18 years

71.

Fears as lingering death. May fantasize that death can be defined, acting out defiance through reckless behaviors (e.g. dangerous driving, substance abuse)

Seldom thinks about death, but views it in religious and philosophic terms.

May seem to reach “adult” perception of death but be emotionally unable to accept it.

May still hold concepts from previous developmental stages.

a)

Infancy – 5 years

b)

5 – 9 years

c)

9 -12 years

d)

12 – 18 years

72.

Has attitude toward death influenced by religious and cultural beliefs.

a)

12 – 18 years

b)

18 – 45 years

c)

45 – 65 years

d)

65+ years

73.

Accepts own mortality.

Encounters death of parents and some peers.

Experiences peaks of death anxiety.

Death anxiety diminishes with emotional well- being.

a)

12 – 18 years

b)

18 – 45 years

c)

45 – 65 years

d)

65+ years

74.

Fears prolong illness.

Encounters death of family members and peers.

See death as having multiple meanings (e.g. freedom from pain, union with already deceased family members).

a)

12 – 18 years

b)

18 – 45 years

c)

45 – 65 years

d)

65+ years

75.

Which is the last sense lost

a)

vision

b)

taste

c)

smell

d)

hearing

76.

• Stiffening of the body that occurs about 2-4 hours after death

• Starts in the involuntary muscles, then progresses to the head, neck and trunk and finally reaches the extremities

• Usually leaves the body about 96 hours after death

a)

Rigor Mortis

b)

Algor mortis

c)

Livor mortis

77.

• Gradual decrease of the body’s temperature after death

• Body temperature falls about 1∘C / hour until reach the room temperature

• Skin loses its elasticity and can easily be broken when removing the dressings and adhesive tape

a)

Rigor Mortis

b)

Algor mortis

c)

Livor mortis

78.

• Blood circulation stopped -> RBC break down -> release Hemoglobin

• Appears in the lowermost or dependent areas of the body

a)

Rigor Mortis

b)

Algor mortis

c)

Livor mortis

79.

rapid respirations

a)

Tachypnoea

b)

Bradypnoea

c)

Dyspnoea

d)

Apnoea

80.

abnormally slow respiratory rate

a)

Tachypnoea

b)

Bradypnoea

c)

Dyspnoea

d)

Apnoea

81.

difficulty breathing or the feeling of being short of breath (SOB)

a)

Tachypnoea

b)

Bradypnoea

c)

Dyspnoea

d)

Apnoea

82.

absence of any breathing

a)

Tachypnoea

b)

Bradypnoea

c)

Dyspnoea

d)

Apnoea

83.

marked rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations from very deep to very shallow with

short periods of apnoea

a)

Cheyne-Stokes respirations

b)

Orthopnea

84.

inability to breathe easily unless sitting upright or standing

a)

Cheyne-Stokes respirations

b)

Orthopnea

85.

Properties of oxygen:

Constitutes ?% of the atmospheric air.

a)

21

b)

20

c)

31

d)

30

86.

Oxygen Therapy:

ranging from 1 to 6 liters per minute (L/min),

a)

Nasal cannula

b)

Simple face mask

c)

Venturi mask

d)

Non-rebreathing mask

87.

Oxygen Therapy:

ranging from 6 to10 liters per minute (L/min),

a)

Nasal cannula

b)

Simple face mask

c)

Venturi mask

d)

Non-rebreathing mask

88.

Oxygen Therapy:

ranging from 24% to 50%

a)

Nasal cannula

b)

Simple face mask

c)

Venturi mask

d)

Non-rebreathing mask

89.

Oxygen Therapy:

ranging from 10 to 15 L/min

a)

Nasal cannula

b)

Simple face mask

c)

Venturi mask

d)

Non-rebreathing mask

90.

Potential complications of Oxygen Therapy

(a)  

91.

Artificial Airways:

1. For unresponsive patient only

2. Cause vomiting and aspiration in responsive patient (gag reflex)

3. Keeping the airway open during BVM ventilation

4. Allow suction of the throat & mouth

5. Prevent patient from biting the ETT

6. Proper size: measure the length from client’s opening of mouth to the back angle of jaw.

a)

Oropharyngeal airway

b)

nasopharyngeal airway

c)

Endotracheal tube

d)

Tracheostomy

92.

Artificial Airways:

1. are tolerated better by alert clients

2. should be well lubricated with water or saline

3. Proper size:

• measure the length from tip of the client’s nostril to the earlobe.

• The diameter should be slightly smaller than the diameter of the nostril.

4. Reinsert the airway in the other naris every 8 hours or as ordered to prevent necrosis of the mucosa

a)

Oropharyngeal airway

b)

nasopharyngeal airway

c)

Endotracheal tube

d)

Tracheostomy

93.

Artificial Airways:

1. commonly inserted in clients who have had general anesthetics or for those in emergency situations where mechanical ventilation is required

2. inserted through the mouth or the nose and into the trachea, using a laryngoscope as a guide

3. terminates just superior to the bifurcation of the trachea into the bronchi

4. have an air-filled cuff to prevent air leakage around it

a)

Oropharyngeal airway

b)

nasopharyngeal airway

c)

Endotracheal tube

d)

Tracheostomy

94.

Artificial Airways:

1. a surgical procedure to create an artificial opening and insert a tube through the neck into the trachea.

2. It may be described as short-term or long-term tracheostomy depending on patient’s condition and treatment.

3. End Tracheostomy is a permanent artificial opening created surgically into the trachea. The trachea is brought out to the surface of the skin and sutured to the neck.

a)

Oropharyngeal airway

b)

nasopharyngeal airway

c)

Endotracheal tube

d)

Tracheostomy

95.

Types of Drug Preparation:

Powdered drug compressed into a particular shape for administration

a)

Tablet

b)

Capsule

c)

Pill

96.

Types of Drug Preparation:

A gelatinous container to hold a drug in various form (powder, oil or liquid)

a)

Tablet

b)

Capsule

c)

Pill

97.

Types of Drug Preparation:

One or more drugs mixed with a cohesive material, in oval, round, or flattened shapes

a)

Tablet

b)

Capsule

c)

Pill

98.

Types of Drug Preparation:

Clear fluid containing water and alcohol with flavour added

a)

Elixir

b)

Syrup

c)

Suspension

99.

Types of Drug Preparation:

Medication dissolved in concentrated sugar solution

a)

Elixir

b)

Syrup

c)

Suspension

100.

Types of Drug Preparation:

Finely dissolved drug particles in liquid medium; must be shaken before administration. When

left standing, particles settle to bottom of container

a)

Elixir

b)

Syrup

c)

Suspension

101.

Dosage Calculation:

• Dose strength on hand: - Lanoxin 0.125mg / tablet

• Ordered dosage: Lanoxin 0.25mg

How many tablet should be administered?

a)

0.5

b)

1

c)

1.5

d)

2

102.

Dosage Calculation:

• Dose strength on hand: - Syrup panadol 250mg / 5mL

• Desired dosage: Syrup panadol 500mg

How many mL should be administered?

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

d)

20

103.

Administering Medications via Nasogastric / Gastrostomy Tube:

Crush a tablet into a fine powder and dissolve in at least ?mL of warm water (Rationale: Cold liquid may cause client discomfort)

a)

10

b)

20

c)

30

d)

40

104.

Administration of Eye Medication:

Instill the correct number of drops onto the outer third of the ? conjunctival sac

a)

lower

b)

upper

c)

central

105.

Parenteral Medications:

subcutaneous (S.C.)

? degree angle

a)

25

b)

15

c)

45

d)

90

106.

Parenteral Medications:

intramuscular (I.M.)

? degree angle

a)

25

b)

15

c)

45

d)

90

107.

Parenteral Medications:

intradermal (I.D.)

? degree angle

a)

5-10

b)

10-15

c)

15-20

d)

20-25

108.

Syringe from 1 to 3 mL in size usually for ? injection

1. intradermal (I.D.)

2. subcutaneous (S.C.)

3. intramuscular (I.M.)

4. intravenous (I.V.)

a)

1, 2

b)

2, 3

c)

2, 4

d)

All of the above

109.

Needles:

Longer bevels for?

1. intradermal (I.D.)

2. subcutaneous (S.C.)

3. intramuscular (I.M.)

4. intravenous (I.V.)

a)

1, 2

b)

2, 3

c)

2, 4

d)

All of the above

110.

Needles:

Short bevels for?

1. intradermal (I.D.)

2. subcutaneous (S.C.)

3. intramuscular (I.M.)

4. intravenous (I.V.)

a)

1, 2

b)

2, 3

c)

1, 4

d)

All of the above

111.

Needles:

The ? the gauge number, the ? diameter of the shaft

a)

larger, smaller

b)

smaller, larger

112.

Preparing Medications from Vials:

Mix the solution by rotating the vial between the palms of the hands, not by shaking

The rationale is?

a)

Some vials contain aqueous suspension, which settle when they stand. In some instances, shaking may cause the mixture to foam

b)

The antiseptic cleans the cap and reduces the number of microorganisms

c)

The air will allow the medication to be drawn out easily because negative pressure will not be created inside the vial. The bevel is kept above the

medication to avoid creating bubbles in the medication

d)

Tapping motion will cause

air bubbles to rise to the top of the syringe where they can be ejected out of the syringe

113.

Preparing Medications from Vials:

Remove the protective cap, or clean the rubber cap of a previously opened vial with an antiseptic wipe by rubbing in a circular motion

The rationale is?

a)

Some vials contain aqueous suspension, which settle when they stand. In some instances, shaking may cause the mixture to foam

b)

The antiseptic cleans the cap and reduces the number of microorganisms

c)

The air will allow the medication to be drawn out easily because negative pressure will not be created inside the vial. The bevel is kept above the

medication to avoid creating bubbles in the medication

d)

Tapping motion will cause

air bubbles to rise to the top of the syringe where they can be ejected out of the syringe

114.

Preparing Medications from Vials:

Inject the air into the vial, keeping the bevel of the needle above the surface of the medication

The rationale is?

a)

Some vials contain aqueous suspension, which settle when they stand. In some instances, shaking may cause the mixture to foam

b)

The antiseptic cleans the cap and reduces the number of microorganisms

c)

The air will allow the medication to be drawn out easily because negative pressure will not be created inside the vial. The bevel is kept above the

medication to avoid creating bubbles in the medication

d)

Tapping motion will cause

air bubbles to rise to the top of the syringe where they can be ejected out of the syringe

115.

Preparing Medications from Vials:

Tap the syringe barrel to dislodge any air bubbles present in the syringe if necessary

The rationale is?

a)

Some vials contain aqueous suspension, which settle when they stand. In some instances, shaking may cause the mixture to foam

b)

The antiseptic cleans the cap and reduces the number of microorganisms

c)

The air will allow the medication to be drawn out easily because negative pressure will not be created inside the vial. The bevel is kept above the

medication to avoid creating bubbles in the medication

d)

Tapping motion will cause

air bubbles to rise to the top of the syringe where they can be ejected out of the syringe

116.

Preparing Medications from Ampoules:

Flick the upper stem of the ampoule several times with a fingernail

The rationale is?

a)

This will bring all medication down to the main portion of the ampoule

b)

The sterile gauze protects the fingers from the broken glass, and any glass fragments will spray away from the nurse

c)

This method ensures that all glass fragments fall into the

packet and reduces the risk of cut

117.

Preparing Medications from Ampoules:

Use an ampoule opener or place a piece of sterile gauze or alcohol wipe between your thumb & the ampoule neck and break off the top by bending it toward you to ensure the ampoule is broken away from yourself and others

The rationale is?

a)

This will bring all medication down to the main portion of the ampoule

b)

The sterile gauze protects the fingers from the broken glass, and any glass fragments will spray away from the nurse

c)

This method ensures that all glass fragments fall into the

packet and reduces the risk of cut

118.

Preparing Medications from Ampoules:

Alternative method: Place the antiseptic wipe packet over the top of the ampoule before

breaking off the top

The rationale is?

a)

This will bring all medication down to the main portion of the ampoule

b)

The sterile gauze protects the fingers from the broken glass, and any glass fragments will spray away from the nurse

c)

This method ensures that all glass fragments fall into the

packet and reduces the risk of cut

119.

Which are the common sites for intradermal injections?

1. ventral forearm

2. upper chest

3. inner lower arm

4. back beneath the scapulae

a)

1, 3

b)

1, 2, 3

c)

1, 3, 4

d)

All of the above

120.

Procedures for Intradermal Injection:

With the non-dominant hand, pull the skin at the site until it is taut

The rationale is?

a)

allows easy entry of the needle and less discomfort for the

client

b)

The possibility of the medication entering the subcutaneous tissue increases when using an angle greater than 15 degree

c)

may disperse the injected medication into underlying tissue or allow medication escape from the site, irritate the underlying tissue, which

may affect the test result

121.

Procedures for Intradermal Injection:

Enter the skin at 5 to 15 degree angle

The rationale is?

a)

allows easy entry of the needle and less discomfort for the

client

b)

The possibility of the medication entering the subcutaneous tissue increases when using an angle greater than 15 degree

c)

may disperse the injected medication into underlying tissue or allow medication escape from the site, irritate the underlying tissue, which

may affect the test result

122.

Procedures for Intradermal Injection:

Do not massage the area

The rationale is?

a)

allows easy entry of the needle and less discomfort for the

client

b)

The possibility of the medication entering the subcutaneous tissue increases when using an angle greater than 15 degree

c)

may disperse the injected medication into underlying tissue or allow medication escape from the site, irritate the underlying tissue, which

may affect the test result

123.

Subcutaneous (S.C.) Injection:

?° angle is used when 1 inch of tissue can be grasped at the site

a)

45

b)

90

c)

15

d)

30

124.

Subcutaneous (S.C.) Injection:

?° angle is used when 2 inch of tissue can be grasped at the site

a)

45

b)

90

c)

15

d)

30

125.

Special Considerations for Insulin & Heparin Injections:

Do not aspirate for checking any puncturing of needle into blood vessel for administering insulin

The rationale is?

a)

it is not

needed and may cause haematoma with heparin

b)

it can cause localized minute

haemorrhages or bruises

126.

Special Considerations for Insulin & Heparin Injections:

Do not massage the site after insulin and heparin injection

The rationale is?

a)

it is not

needed and may cause haematoma with heparin

b)

it can cause localized minute

haemorrhages or bruises

127.

Administration of Subcutaneous Injection:

Select a site free of tenderness, hardness, swelling, scarring, itching, burning, or localized inflammation

The rationale is?

a)

These conditions could hinder the absorption of the medication and may increase the likelihood of injury and discomfort at the injection site

b)

minimize client’s

discomfort

c)

Depressing the skin places counteraction on it and minimizes the client’s discomfort

when the needle is withdrawn

128.

Administration of Subcutaneous Injection:

Inject the medication by holding the syringe steady and depressing the plunger with a slow,

even pressure until full dose of medication is administered

The rationale is?

a)

These conditions could hinder the absorption of the medication and may increase the likelihood of injury and discomfort at the injection site

b)

minimize client’s

discomfort

c)

Depressing the skin places counteraction on it and minimizes the client’s discomfort

when the needle is withdrawn

129.

Administration of Subcutaneous Injection:

Remove the needle smoothly, pulling along the line of insertion while depressing the skin with your non-dominant hand

The rationale is?

a)

These conditions could hinder the absorption of the medication and may increase the likelihood of injury and discomfort at the injection site

b)

minimize client’s

discomfort

c)

Depressing the skin places counteraction on it and minimizes the client’s discomfort

when the needle is withdrawn

130.

Injection:

- oral route is unavailable or inappropriate, either because the client cannot swallow the medication or the medication would be adversely affected or inactivated by gastric secretions

- intravenous access is difficult

- a reasonably rapid systemic uptake of the drug is needed by the body

a)

IV

b)

IM

c)

SC

d)

ID

131.

Intramuscular (I.M.) Injection:

I.M. injection can be completed using ?-track method, which creates a zig-zag channel that

reduces leakage of irritating medications into subcutaneous tissue

a)

Z

b)

V

c)

U

d)

L

132.

Intramuscular (I.M.) Injection:

Angle of insertion is?

a)

45

b)

90

c)

15

d)

25

133.

Intramuscular (I.M.) Injection:

Need to aspirate the syringe?

a)

Yes

b)

No

134.

Intramuscular (I.M.) Injection:

If blood appears during aspiration

a)

Stop and withdraw

b)

Right site and inject

135.

Intramuscular (I.M.) Injection, Ventrogluteal Site:

Recommended volume

a)

1mL

b)

3mL

c)

2mL

d)

5mL

136.

Intramuscular (I.M.) Injection, Deltoid Site:

Recommended volume, no more than?

a)

1mL

b)

3mL

c)

2mL

d)

5mL

137.

Intramuscular (I.M.) Injection, Ventrogluteal Site:

Client can be in what position?

1. back

2. prone

3. side lying

a)

3

b)

1

c)

2

d)

All of the above

138.

Intramuscular (I.M.) Injection, Vastus Lateralis Site:

Client can be in what position?

1. back-lying

2. sitting

3. standing

a)

2

b)

1, 2

c)

2, 3

d)

All of the above

139.

Landmark for Ventrogluteal Site:

Place your left hand on client’s ? hip, or your right hand on client’s ? hip

a)

right, left

b)

left, right

140.

Administration of Intramuscular Injection:

Assist client to a supine, lateral, prone or sitting position, depending on the chosen site

The rationale is?

a)

appropriate positioning promotes relaxation of the target muscle

b)

this reduces the stinging sensation from the antiseptic upon injection

c)

medication

left on the needle can cause pain when it is tracked through the subcutaneous tissue

d)

Pulling the skin and subcutaneous tissue makes it firmer and facilitates needle insertion

141.

Administration of Intramuscular Injection:

Clean the site with an antiseptic swab. Using circular motion, start at the centre of the site and

move outward about 5 cm. Allow the area to dry thoroughly

The rationale is?

a)

appropriate positioning promotes relaxation of the target muscle

b)

this reduces the stinging sensation from the antiseptic upon injection

c)

medication

left on the needle can cause pain when it is tracked through the subcutaneous tissue

d)

Pulling the skin and subcutaneous tissue makes it firmer and facilitates needle insertion

142.

Administration of Intramuscular Injection:

If using a prefilled unit-dose medication, take caution to avoid dripping medication on the

needle prior to injection

The rationale is?

a)

appropriate positioning promotes relaxation of the target muscle

b)

this reduces the stinging sensation from the antiseptic upon injection

c)

medication

left on the needle can cause pain when it is tracked through the subcutaneous tissue

d)

Pulling the skin and subcutaneous tissue makes it firmer and facilitates needle insertion

143.

Administration of Intramuscular Injection:

Using the ulnar side of non-dominant hand to pull the skin approximately 2.5 cm to the side

The rationale is?

a)

appropriate positioning promotes relaxation of the target muscle

b)

this reduces the stinging sensation from the antiseptic upon injection

c)

medication

left on the needle can cause pain when it is tracked through the subcutaneous tissue

d)

Pulling the skin and subcutaneous tissue makes it firmer and facilitates needle insertion

144.

Administration of Intramuscular Injection:

Holding syringe between the thumb and forefinger (as if holding a pen), pierce the skin quickly and smoothly at a 90-degree angle and insert the needle into the muscle

The rationale is?

a)

Using a quick motion lessens the client's discomfort

b)

If the needle is in a small blood vessel, it takes time for blood to appear.

c)

Promotes comfort and allows time for tissue to expand and begin absorption of the medication

d)

Permits medication to disperse into the muscle tissue,

decrease client’s discomfort

145.

Administration of Intramuscular Injection:

Aspirate for 5-10 seconds gently to check any blood is present in order to ensure the needle is not entering into blood vessel

The rationale is?

a)

Using a quick motion lessens the client's discomfort

b)

If the needle is in a small blood vessel, it takes time for blood to appear.

c)

Promotes comfort and allows time for tissue to expand and begin absorption of the medication

d)

Permits medication to disperse into the muscle tissue,

decrease client’s discomfort

146.

Administration of Intramuscular Injection:

If blood does not appear, inject the medication steadily and slowly (〜10 seconds per mL) while holding the syringe steady

The rationale is?

a)

Using a quick motion lessens the client's discomfort

b)

If the needle is in a small blood vessel, it takes time for blood to appear.

c)

Promotes comfort and allows time for tissue to expand and begin absorption of the medication

d)

Permits medication to disperse into the muscle tissue,

decrease client’s discomfort

147.

Administration of Intramuscular Injection:

After injection, wait 10 seconds if using the ventrogluteal site

The rationale is?

a)

Using a quick motion lessens the client's discomfort

b)

If the needle is in a small blood vessel, it takes time for blood to appear.

c)

Promotes comfort and allows time for tissue to expand and begin absorption of the medication

d)

Permits medication to disperse into the muscle tissue,

decrease client’s discomfort

148.

Administration of Intramuscular Injection:

Withdraw the needle smoothly at the same angle of insertion

The rationale is?

a)

minimize tissue injury

b)

Use of an alcohol swab may cause pain or aburning sensations

c)

Massaging may cause the leakage of the medication from the site and result in irritation

149.

Administration of Intramuscular Injection:

Apply gentle pressure at the site with dry gauze

The rationale is?

a)

minimize tissue injury

b)

Use of an alcohol swab may cause pain or aburning sensations

c)

Massaging may cause the leakage of the medication from the site and result in irritation

150.

Administration of Intramuscular Injection:

It is not necessary to massage the area at the site of injection

The rationale is?

a)

minimize tissue injury

b)

Use of an alcohol swab may cause pain or aburning sensations

c)

Massaging may cause the leakage of the medication from the site and result in irritation

151.

IVF:

• Do not administer to clients with kidney or heart disease or who are dehydrated

• Watch for signs of hypervolemia.

a)

Isotonic Solution

b)

Hypertonic Solution

152.

Intravenous (IV) Catheters:

It is most frequently used for short-term therapy (e.g. less than 24 hours) such as administering

bolus injection, or blood sample retrieval

a)

Angiocatheters

b)

Peripherally Inserted Central Catheter (PICC)

c)

Central Venous Access Device

(CVAD)

153.

Intravenous (IV) Catheters:

• Inserted in the basilic or cephalic vein just above or below the antecubital space of the right arm

• Tip of the catheter rests in the superior vena cava

a)

Angiocatheters

b)

Peripherally Inserted Central Catheter (PICC)

c)

Central Venous Access Device

(CVAD)

154.

Intravenous (IV) Catheters:

• Defined by the location of the catheter tip in a central vein

• The catheter tip should reside in the lower one third of the superior vena cava, above the right atrium

• At greater risk of complication including haemothorax or pneumothorax, cardiac perforation, thrombosis and

infection

a)

Angiocatheters

b)

Peripherally Inserted Central Catheter (PICC)

c)

Central Venous Access Device

(CVAD)

155.

Procedure of Peripheral Line Insertion:

Do I need to remove the tourniquet after use?

a)

Yes

b)

No

156.

Procedure of Peripheral Line Insertion:

Can I use gloves as tourniquet?

a)

Yes

b)

No

157.

Precautions in Administering High Alert IV Medications (Concentrated KCl):

Concentrated potassium chloride do not need to be DILUTED before use

a)

Yes

b)

No

158.

Precautions in Administering High Alert IV Medications (Concentrated KCl):

Concentrated potassium chloride should NOT be ordered when pre-mixed potassium chloride

solution with required dosage is available

a)

Yes

b)

No

159.

Precautions in Administering High Alert IV Medications (Concentrated KCl):

It should be locked and separated from the usual drug storage

a)

Yes

b)

No

160.

Precautions in Administering High Alert IV Medications (Concentrated KCl):

Infusion rate and infused volume must be closely monitored and regulated

a)

Yes

b)

No

161.

Precautions in Administering High Alert IV Medications (Concentrated KCl):

A rate controlled infusion pump should be used if the infusion rate of potassium chloride is faster than 10mmol/hour

a)

Yes

b)

No

162.

Precautions in Administering High Alert IV Medications (Concentrated KCl):

Concentration higher than 40mmol/L (i.e. 4 mmol per 100ml) of potassium must be used with extreme caution and closely monitored

a)

Yes

b)

No

163.

Precautions in Administering High Alert IV Medications (Concentrated KCl):

In case where a client complains of severe pain at the injection site, continuses the infusion

a)

Yes

b)

No

164.

Phlebitis – Inflammation of A Vein, Prevention:

Assess the length of time needed for infusion therapy

The rationale is?

a)

consider alternatives (e.g. PICC or CVAD for long term therapy)

b)

prevent irritation to the vein

c)

ensure an accurate rate of infusion

d)

prevent irritation to the vein and damage to the IV catheter

165.

Phlebitis – Inflammation of A Vein, Prevention:

Choose smallest IV catheter for insertion and stable the catheter

The rationale is?

a)

consider alternatives (e.g. PICC or CVAD for long term therapy)

b)

prevent irritation to the vein

c)

ensure an accurate rate of infusion

d)

prevent irritation to the vein and damage to the IV catheter

166.

Phlebitis – Inflammation of A Vein, Prevention:

Use infusion pump to administer infusion with additive (e.g. potassium chloride)

The rationale is?

a)

consider alternatives (e.g. PICC or CVAD for long term therapy)

b)

prevent irritation to the vein

c)

ensure an accurate rate of infusion

d)

prevent irritation to the vein and damage to the IV catheter

167.

Phlebitis – Inflammation of A Vein, Prevention:

Avoid insertion of a peripheral IV catheter in an area of joint flexion

The rationale is?

a)

consider alternatives (e.g. PICC or CVAD for long term therapy)

b)

prevent irritation to the vein

c)

ensure an accurate rate of infusion

d)

prevent irritation to the vein and damage to the IV catheter

168.

Phlebitis – Inflammation of A Vein, Prevention:

Use transparent dressing such as tegaderm on the IV exit site and assess IV insertion site at least every 4 hours

The rationale is?

a)

early detection of localized

complications by direct visualization

b)

prevent bacterial contamination of the IV system

c)

minimize the chance of bacterial phlebitis

169.

Phlebitis – Inflammation of A Vein, Prevention:

Practice good hand hygiene with strict aseptic technique when inserting IV catheter, adding

medications and changing of IV bottle

The rationale is?

a)

early detection of localized

complications by direct visualization

b)

prevent bacterial contamination of the IV system

c)

minimize the chance of bacterial phlebitis

170.

Phlebitis – Inflammation of A Vein, Prevention:

Change the IV catheter at least every 72-96 hours according to hospital guidelines and never

hang IV fluid for more than 24 hours

The rationale is?

a)

early detection of localized

complications by direct visualization

b)

prevent bacterial contamination of the IV system

c)

minimize the chance of bacterial phlebitis

171.

Management:

- Stop infusion immediately

- Remove the IV catheter

- Do not rub or massage the affected area to avoid dislodging clots

a)

Phlebitis

b)

Thrombus

c)

Infiltration & extravasation

d)

Venous access device-related infection

172.

Cause:

• Frequent disconnection of tubing

• A generalized reaction due to invasion of bacteria through the broken skin, contaminated equipment or solution when solutions are changed, a medication is added or the solution is infused for an extended period

• Inadequate/improper decontamination of hub prior to use

a)

Phlebitis

b)

Thrombus

c)

Infiltration & extravasation

d)

Venous access device-related infection

173.

unintentional administration of non-vesicant medications or fluids (e.g. D5W, NS) into the

subcutaneous tissue

a)

Infiltration

b)

Extravasation

174.

unintentional administration of vesicant medications or fluids into subcutaneous tissue (e.g.

dopamine, chemotherapeutic agents, D10, D20)

a)

Infiltration

b)

Extravasation

175.

S/S:

• Coolness of skin around site

• Skin blanching, tautness

• Oedema at, above, or below the insertion site

• Absence of or “pinkish” blood return

• Leakage at insertion site

• Difference in size of opposite limb

a)

Infiltration

b)

Extravasation

176.

S/S:

• Burning, stinging pain

• Redness followed by blistering, tissue necrosis and ulceration

a)

Infiltration

b)

Extravasation

177.

Infiltration & Extravasation, Prevention:

Avoid the insertion of IV access site at the areas of joint flexion such as wrist and antecubital fossa

The rationale is?

a)

prevent damage to the IV catheter

b)

prevent mechanical damage to the vein wall

c)

for the chosen of optimum type of IV access

d)

check for any

infiltration/extravasation of IV fluid

178.

Infiltration & Extravasation, Prevention:

Select the smallest gauge of IV catheter with adequate fixation that can deliver the prescribed therapy in an appropriate size vein

The rationale is?

a)

prevent damage to the IV catheter

b)

prevent mechanical damage to the vein wall

c)

for the chosen of optimum type of IV access

d)

check for any

infiltration/extravasation of IV fluid

179.

Infiltration & Extravasation, Prevention:

Recognise the osmolality and pH of medications and fluids

The rationale is?

a)

prevent damage to the IV catheter

b)

prevent mechanical damage to the vein wall

c)

for the chosen of optimum type of IV access

d)

check for any

infiltration/extravasation of IV fluid

180.

Infiltration & Extravasation, Prevention:

Observe the infusion site and flow rate frequently

The rationale is?

a)

prevent damage to the IV catheter

b)

prevent mechanical damage to the vein wall

c)

for the chosen of optimum type of IV access

d)

check for any

infiltration/extravasation of IV fluid

181.

Infiltration & Extravasation, Prevention:

Secure the IV catheter firmly; apply splint as required

The rationale is?

a)

prevent unnecessary movement of catheter

b)

prevent dislodgement of the catheter

c)

check for any blockage of IV catheter

182.

Infiltration & Extravasation, Prevention:

Instruct client to be cautious during movement, not to bend the arm or perform heavy exertion on the limb with IV drip

The rationale is?

a)

prevent unnecessary movement of catheter

b)

prevent dislodgement of the catheter

c)

check for any blockage of IV catheter

183.

Infiltration & Extravasation, Prevention:

Assess the patency of IV catheter and vein regularly by normal saline flushing

The rationale is?

a)

prevent unnecessary movement of catheter

b)

prevent dislodgement of the catheter

c)

check for any blockage of IV catheter

184.

Venous Access Device – Related Infection, Prevention:

Use clear equipment and solution

a)

Yes

b)

No

185.

Venous Access Device – Related Infection, Prevention:

Perform hand hygiene before and after palpating catheter insertion sites; before and after inserting, replacing, accessing and dressing a venous access device

a)

Yes

b)

No

186.

Venous Access Device – Related Infection, Prevention:

Never administer same pack of IV fluid for more than 48 hours

a)

Yes

b)

No

187.

Venous Access Device – Related Infection, Prevention:

Remove peripheral venous catheter at least every 72 – 96 hours in adult or no longer indicated. If sites for venous access are limited, catheter can be maintained for longer period but close monitoring of insertion sites is necessary

a)

Yes

b)

No

188.

Venous Access Device – Related Infection, Prevention:

Leave the catheter in place until therapy is completed unless a complication occurs in paediatric clients

a)

Yes

b)

No

189.

Management:

• Prompt actions are required

• Pinch off catheter or secure system to prevent entry of air

• Turn client to left side in Trendelenburg position

which will slow the flow of air into the vein and pulmonary artery

• Administer oxygen as ordered

• Monitor vital signs and pulse oximetry

a)

Air embolism

b)

Circulatory overload

190.

Cause:

• Excessive or rapid infusion especially in children, elderly or clients with heart or renal disease

a)

Air embolism

b)

Circulatory overload

191.

Prevention:

• Adjust the flow rate as prescribed, never speed up the rate to catch up the required infused volume

• Identify high risk groups (e.g. infant, elderly, clients with heart or renal diseases)

• Keep strict I&O chart, observe the urine output and report if the amount is decreasing

a)

Air embolism

b)

Circulatory overload

192.

Management:

• Slow down infusion rate just to keep vein open

• Inform doctor

• Arrange client in a sitting position to ease breathing

• Administer oxygen and diuretics if prescribed

• Monitor vital signs

a)

Air embolism

b)

Circulatory overload

193.

Phases of perioperative period:

▸ Begins when the decision to have surgery is made;

▸ Ends when the client is transferred to operating table.

▸ Nursing activities include:

- assessing the client

- identifying potential / actual health problem

- planning specific care based on individual’s needs

- providing preoperative teaching for the clients and significant others

a)

Pre-operative phase

b)

Intra-operative phase

c)

Post-operative phase

194.

Phases of perioperative period:

▸ Begins when client is transferred to operating table and ends when client is transferred to recovery room.

▸ Nursing activities included interventions that:

- providing client’s safety

- maintaining an aseptic environment

- ensure proper functioning of equipment

- providing surgical team with the instruments and supplies needed during the procedure.

a)

Pre-operative phase

b)

Intra-operative phase

c)

Post-operative phase

195.

Phases of perioperative period:

▸ Begins with admission of client to recovery room and ends when the healing is completed.

▸ The goal is to assist client to achieve the most optimal health status.

▸ Nursing activities include:

- assessing client’s responses (physiological and psychological) to surgery

- performing intervention to facilitate healing and prevent complications

- teaching and providing support to the client

- planning for home care

a)

Pre-operative phase

b)

Intra-operative phase

c)

Post-operative phase

196.

Types of surgery, Degree of urgency:

▸ Performed immediately to preserve function or life of the client.

▸ e.g. control internal haemorrhage, repair of rupture.

a)

Emergency surgery

b)

Elective surgery

197.

Types of surgery, Degree of urgency:

▸ Performed when surgical intervention is the preferred treatment for a condition that is not imminently life threatening, or to improve the client’s life.

▸ e.g. hip replacement surgery, plastic surgery such as breast reduction.

a)

Emergency surgery

b)

Elective surgery

198.

Types of surgery, Degree of risk:

▸ Involves a high degree of risk for a variety of reasons:

- It may be complicated or prolonged

- Large losses of blood may occur

- Vital organs may be involved

- Postoperative complications

▸ e.g. organ transplant, open heart surgery

a)

Major

b)

Minor

199.

Types of surgery, Degree of risk:

▸ Involves little risk

▸ Produces few complications

▸ Often performed at bedside/outpatient setting

▸ e.g. breast biopsy, cataract extraction

a)

Major

b)

Minor

200.

Types of consent form:

▸ For a minor (under 18 years of age) with no parent or guardian and who cannot consent to the proposed operation/procedure/treatment.

▸ For a mentally incapacitated adult within the meaning of Mental Health Ordinance (MHO) with no legal guardian

vested with power to consent to treatment and who cannot consent to the proposed operation/procedure/treatment.

Usually completed by?

a)

2 Medical Officers (M.O.)

b)

1 Medical Officers (M.O.)

c)

1 Medical Officers (M.O.) and 1 Nurse

d)

2 Nurses

201.

Physical preparation:

▸ Firm elastic hose that compress the veins of the legs and thus facilitate the return of venous blood to the heart, improve circulation to the feet and prevent oedema of the legs and feet.

a)

Antiemboli stockings

b)

Sequential compression devices (SCD)

202.

Physical preparation:

▸ Promote venous return from the legs.

▸ It inflates and deflates plastic sleeves wrapped around legs to promote venous flow.

a)

Antiemboli stockings

b)

Sequential compression devices (SCD)

203.

Surgical Safety Protocol:

▸ The “SIGN IN” checking is performed before the induction of anaesthesia

▸ Operating surgeon and anaesthesist explain and obtain a written informed consent from client

▸ Perform site marking for procedure involving laterality by doctor. Mark a “↑” at the operating site with indelible marker pen. For eye operations, mark an “R” for right operating eye and an “L” for left operating eye.

▸ Check the client identity, the procedure, the relevant site marked against the consent form and the client. Check client’s blood group, the availability of client’s blood and/or blood products if appropriate.

▸ Theatre nursing team shall check the availability of specific consumables.

▸ The “SIGN IN” safety checking should be performed at least by a nurse and anaesthetist.

a)

Phase 1 (Pre-anaesthetic safety check): Before induction of anaesthesia

b)

Phase 2 (“Time-Out” process): After induction of anaesthesia to immediately

before skin incision.

c)

Phase 3 (Postoperative safety check): Completion of skin closure to the time

patient discharged from the operating room

204.

Surgical Safety Protocol:

▸ The team should confirm aloud with each other about all required and relevant information. They should clarify any discrepancy during the process and decide appropriate action(s).

▸ Information such as client identity, validity of informed consent on the procedure and type of anaesthesia, side and site with appropriate markings, known alerts, blood group should be checked.

▸ Ensure the correct client has received the correct procedure at the correct site as stated in the consent.

▸ If an interruption or distraction occurs during the “TIME OUT”, the whole process must be restarted.

▸ “TIME OUT” checking process(es) should be performed for each individually consented procedure(s) which is/ are to be performed on the same patient.

▸ If repositioning of patient is required in order to proceed for a new, separately consented procedure, "TIME OUT" safety check should be conducted for the new procedure after repositioning.

a)

Phase 1 (Pre-anaesthetic safety check): Before induction of anaesthesia

b)

Phase 2 (“Time-Out” process): After induction of anaesthesia to immediately

before skin incision.

c)

Phase 3 (Postoperative safety check): Completion of skin closure to the time

patient discharged from the operating room

205.

Surgical Safety Protocol:

▸ Before discharging the patient from the operation room, the staff should confirm the following “SIGN OUT” checking with the operating doctor, anaesthetist and operation room nurse:

- Correct counting and checking of the integrity of all countable surgical/interventional items.

- Correct labelling of the specimen(s).

- Review key concerns for recovery/ post-surgical management.

a)

Phase 1 (Pre-anaesthetic safety check): Before induction of anaesthesia

b)

Phase 2 (“Time-Out” process): After induction of anaesthesia to immediately

before skin incision.

c)

Phase 3 (Postoperative safety check): Completion of skin closure to the time

patient discharged from the operating room

206.

Types of anaesthesia:

▸ Applied directly to skin and mucous membrane, open skin surface, wound and burns

▸ Readily absorbed and act rapidly

▸ e.g. lidocaine (Xylocaine)

a)

Topical anaesthesia

b)

Local anaesthesia

c)

Nerve block

d)

Spinal anaesthesia

e)

Epidural anaesthesia

207.

Types of anaesthesia:

▸ Injected to a specific area

▸ Used for minor surgical procedures

▸ e.g. suture small wound or perform a biopsy

▸ e.g. Lidocaine

a)

Topical anaesthesia

b)

Local anaesthesia

c)

Nerve block

d)

Spinal anaesthesia

e)

Epidural anaesthesia

208.

Types of anaesthesia:

▸ Anesthetic agent is injected into and around a nerve or small nerve group that supplies sensation to a small area of the body

▸ Major blocks involve multiple nerves or a plexus (e.g. brachial plexus anesthetizes the arm)

▸ Minor block involve a single nerve (e.g. facial nerve)

a)

Topical anaesthesia

b)

Local anaesthesia

c)

Nerve block

d)

Spinal anaesthesia

e)

Epidural anaesthesia

209.

Types of anaesthesia:

▸ Injection into cerebral spinal fluid (CSF)

▸ Low spinal: surgeries involve perineal or rectal areas

▸ Mid spinal: hernia repairs / appendectomies

▸ High spinal: cesarean sections

a)

Topical anaesthesia

b)

Local anaesthesia

c)

Nerve block

d)

Spinal anaesthesia

e)

Epidural anaesthesia

210.

Types of anaesthesia:

▸ Injection of an anesthetic agent into the epidural space, the area inside the spinal column but outside the dura mater

a)

Topical anaesthesia

b)

Local anaesthesia

c)

Nerve block

d)

Spinal anaesthesia

e)

Epidural anaesthesia

211.

Implementation:

? coordinates activities and manages client care by continually assessing client safety (e.g. client positioning), monitoring aseptic practice and the environment (e.g. temperature, humidity and lighting).

a)

circulating nurse

b)

scrub nurse.

212.

Implementation:

? wears sterile gowns, gloves, caps and eye protection. Their roles are to assist the surgeon by:

- Controlling bleeding

- Using equipment

- Handling the cutting tissues and suturing during the procedure

a)

circulating nurse

b)

scrub nurse.

213.

Implementation:

? are responsible for accounting for all sponges, needles and instruments at the closure phase of surgery to prevent foreign bodies from being left inside the client’s body.

- Perform Initial count for all accountable items before the procedure to establish a baseline for subsequent counts

- Perform Change over count for all accountable items at the relief of the scrub nurse

a)

circulating nurse

b)

scrub nurse.

c)

Both of them

214.

Implementation:

Perform ? for all accountable items prior to closure of a cavity

a)

Additional count

b)

First count

c)

Final count

215.

Implementation:

Perform ? for all accountable items before wound closure begins

a)

Additional count

b)

First count

c)

Final count

216.

Implementation:

Perform ? for all accountable items at skin closure or the end of the operative procedure.

a)

Additional count

b)

First count

c)

Final count

217.

Positioning:

Clients who have spinal anaesthetics usually lie flat for ? hours.

a)

8 to 12

b)

12 to 18

c)

12 to 24

d)

6 to 12

218.

According to the Time of Occurrence:

- Occurs immediately at the time of injury or operation

a)

Primary Haemorrhage

b)

Reactionary

Haemorrhage

c)

Secondary

Haemorrhage

219.

According to the Time of Occurrence:

- Occurs after injury and within 24 hours due to loosening of ligatures / sutures

a)

Primary Haemorrhage

b)

Reactionary

Haemorrhage

c)

Secondary

Haemorrhage

220.

According to the Time of Occurrence:

-Occurs in 7-10 days after injury due to infection or erosion of a vessel from a spreading infection

a)

Primary Haemorrhage

b)

Reactionary

Haemorrhage

c)

Secondary

Haemorrhage

221.

According to the Site:

- Similar to hypovolaemic shock

- Have evidence of blood loss

- Rapid & thread pulse

- Shallow & rapid respiration

- Drop in blood pressure

- Cold & clammy skin

- Pale face & lips

- Thirst & dry mouth

- Faint & blurred vision

- Restless, confused & altered consciousness

- Pain

a)

External Bleeding

b)

Internal Bleeding

222.

According to the Site:

- Initially pale, cold, clammy skin. If bleeding continues, the skin may turn cyanosis

- Rapid, weak pulse

- Thirst

- Rapid, shallow breathing

- Confusion, restlessness and irritability

- Possible collapse and casualty may become unresponsive

- Bleeding from orifices of body

- In cases of violent injury, “pattern bruising” – an area of discoloured skin with a shape that matches the pattern of clothes or crushing or restraining objects

- Pain

a)

External Bleeding

b)

Internal Bleeding

223.

Measures to Control External Bleeding:

By slowing the blood flow by gravity

X if a fracture is suspected

X if elevation causes the client pain or discomfort.

a)

Direct Pressure

b)

Elevation

c)

Indirect Pressure

224.

Measures to Control External Bleeding:

1. Apply pressure located between the site of injury and the heart where a main artery passes over a bone or underlying muscle mass.

2. Only use if direct pressure and elevation fails

- MUST NOT be applied for > 10 min

a)

Direct Pressure

b)

Elevation

c)

Indirect Pressure

225.

Classification of shock:

When blood is lost in such amount that remaining blood cannot fill the circulatory system

a)

Hypovolaemic

Shock

b)

Neurogenic

Shock

c)

Cardiogenic

Shock

d)

Septic Shock

e)

Anaphylactic

Shock

226.

Classification of shock:

Circulatory blood volume remain normal, but there is massive vasodilatation leading to acute reduction of systemic blood pressure resulting from the disruption of autonomic pathways within the spinal cord

a)

Hypovolaemic

Shock

b)

Neurogenic

Shock

c)

Cardiogenic

Shock

d)

Septic Shock

e)

Anaphylactic

Shock

227.

Classification of shock:

Inadequate cardiac pumping function resulted from impaired heart muscle, disorder of heart rate & rhythm, mechanical obstruction of blood flow

a)

Hypovolaemic

Shock

b)

Neurogenic

Shock

c)

Cardiogenic

Shock

d)

Septic Shock

e)

Anaphylactic

Shock

228.

Classification of shock:

Toxins of bacteria act on blood vessels resulting in vasodilatation, easily causing a sudden blood pressure drop

a)

Hypovolaemic

Shock

b)

Neurogenic

Shock

c)

Cardiogenic

Shock

d)

Septic Shock

e)

Anaphylactic

Shock

229.

Classification of shock:

Allergic reaction affects blood vessels & other tissues, causing acute blood pressure drop & severe dyspnoea

a)

Hypovolaemic

Shock

b)

Neurogenic

Shock

c)

Cardiogenic

Shock

d)

Septic Shock

e)

Anaphylactic

Shock

230.

Stages of shock:

Anaerobic respiration may lead to metabolic acidosis

a)

Initial Stage

b)

Compensatory

Stage

c)

Progressive

Stage

d)

Refractory

Stage

231.

Stages of shock:

Rapid pulse, rapid and shallow respiration, anxiety, decreased urine output

a)

Initial Stage

b)

Compensatory

Stage

c)

Progressive

Stage

d)

Refractory

Stage

232.

Stages of shock:

When compensatory mechanism fails to cope with reduced cardiac output, client may develop decreased blood pressure, disoriented, oliguria

a)

Initial Stage

b)

Compensatory

Stage

c)

Progressive

Stage

d)

Refractory

Stage

233.

Stages of shock:

Myocardial depression & damage to other organs may occur. Client may have extremely low blood pressure, loss of consciousness, damage to other organs

a)

Initial Stage

b)

Compensatory

Stage

c)

Progressive

Stage

d)

Refractory

Stage

234.

Clinical manifestations of shock:

• A rapid pulse

• Pale, cold and clammy skin

• sweating

a)

Early onset

b)

As shock develops

c)

As the brain’s oxygen supply weaken

235.

Clinical manifestations of shock:

• Rapid, shallow breathing

• A weak, “thread” pulse.

• Grey-blue skin (cyanosis), especially inside the lips.

• A fingernail or earlobe, if pressed, will not regain its colour immediately

• Weakness and dizziness

• Nausea and possibly vomiting

• Thirst

a)

Early onset

b)

As shock develops

c)

As the brain’s oxygen supply weaken

236.

Clinical manifestations of shock:

• Restlessness and aggressive behavior

• Yawning and gasping for air

• Client becomes unresponsive

• Finally the heart will stop

a)

Early onset

b)

As shock develops

c)

As the brain’s oxygen supply weaken

237.

CPR- Compression-ventilation ratios:

Adult

a)

8 years old and

older

b)

12 years old and

older

c)

16 years old and

older

d)

18 years old and

older

238.

CPR- Compression-ventilation ratios:

Adult

a)

30:2

b)

15:2

c)

25:2

d)

20:2

239.

CPR- Compression-ventilation ratios:

Children

a)

1-year-old to

puberty

b)

3-year-old to

puberty

c)

8-year-old to

puberty

d)

12-year-old to

puberty

240.

CPR- Compression-ventilation ratios:

Children and Infant

a)

30:2 (1 rescuer)

15:2 (2 rescuers)

b)

15:2 (1 rescuer)

30:2 (2 rescuers)

c)

30:2

d)

15:2

241.

CPR- Compression-ventilation ratios:

Infant

a)

< 1-year-old

b)

< 3-year-old

c)

< 5-year-old

d)

< 8-year-old

242.

High quality CPR, Compression depth:

Adults & adolescents

a)

at least 5cm,but no more than 6cm

b)

at least one third AP diameter of chest,

approximately 5cm

c)

at least one third AP diameter of chest,

approximately 4cm

d)

at least 5cm

243.

High quality CPR, Compression depth:

Children

a)

at least 5cm,but no more than 6cm

b)

at least one third AP diameter of chest,

approximately 5cm

c)

at least one third AP diameter of chest,

approximately 4cm

d)

at least 5cm

244.

High quality CPR, Compression depth:

Infants

a)

at least 5cm,but no more than 6cm

b)

at least one third AP diameter of chest,

approximately 5cm

c)

at least one third AP diameter of chest,

approximately 4cm

d)

at least 5cm

245.

High quality CPR:

Push fast give chest compression at a rate of ?

a)

100 to 120/min

b)

120 to 140/min

c)

60 to 100/min

d)

90 to 100/min

246.

life-threatening arrhythmias:

The heart’s electrical activity becomes disordered. The heart muscles quiver in a fast and unsynchronized way, so the heart does not pump blood.

a)

Ventricular fibrillation (VF)

b)

Pulseless ventricular

tachycardia

(pulseless VT)

247.

life-threatening arrhythmias:

a rapid heart rate when the ventricles (lower chambers) of heart begin contracting at a very fast pace. The ventricles pump so quickly and inefficiently that no pulse can be detected.

a)

Ventricular fibrillation (VF)

b)

Pulseless ventricular

tachycardia

(pulseless VT)

248.

Application of adhesive AED pad, Adult & child pads:

Adult can use child pads

a)

Yes

b)

No

249.

Application of adhesive AED pad, Adult & child pads:

Infants/children can use adult pads

a)

Yes

b)

No

250.

Com m on laboratory tests for sputum:

To identify a specific m icroorganism.

To identify the microorganism’s drug resistance and sensitivities.

Specimen Bottle used: Sterile Plastic Container for Sputum Culture

a)

Culture and Sensitivity Test (C&ST)

b)

Acid Fast Bascillus (AFB)

c)

Cytology

251.

Com m on laboratory tests for sputum:

To screen for the presence of AFB and detection of tuberculosis (TB).

Serial collection for 3 consecutive EARLY MORNING.

Specimen Bottle used: Plastic Container

a)

Culture and Sensitivity Test (C&ST)

b)

Acid Fast Bascillus (AFB)

c)

Cytology

252.

Common laboratory tests for sputum:

To identify lung cancer.

Serial collection for 3 consecutive days.

Specimen Bottle used: Plastic Container

a)

Culture and Sensitivity Test (C&ST)

b)

Acid Fast Bascillus (AFB)

c)

Cytology

253.

Common laboratory tests of urine:

• To identify urinary tract infection (UTI).

• To determine the most effective antibiotic for treatment (sensitivity).

• Types of tests:

 Midstream urine (MSU).

 Catheterized-saved urine (CSU).

Specimen Bottle Used: Urine culture bottle (with boric acid preservative).

a)

Urine for Culture

and Sensitivity

Test (C&ST)

b)

24-hour Urine

Specimen

c)

Urine for Cytology

d)

Early Morning

Urine (EMU) for

Acid Fast

Bacillus (AFB)

e)

Urine for

toxicology

screening

254.

Common laboratory tests of urine:

• To measure kidney excretion of certain substances, which include total urine protein, creatinine, urobilinogen, uric acid, electrolytes, and hormones during 24 hours’ period.

Specimen Bottle Used: 24-hour urine container.

Bottle content: Plain: Na/K, Urea, Creatinine, Protein, Free Cortisol.

5g NaHCO3: Urate.

Hydrochloric acid (HCL): Calcium, Phosphate, Metanephrines.

a)

Urine for Culture

and Sensitivity

Test (C&ST)

b)

24-hour Urine

Specimen

c)

Urine for Cytology

d)

Early Morning

Urine (EMU) for

Acid Fast

Bacillus (AFB)

e)

Urine for

toxicology

screening

255.

Common laboratory tests of urine:

To identify cancer cells.

Specimen bottle used: Plain urine bottle.

a)

Urine for Culture

and Sensitivity

Test (C&ST)

b)

24-hour Urine

Specimen

c)

Urine for Cytology

d)

Early Morning

Urine (EMU) for

Acid Fast

Bacillus (AFB)

e)

Urine for

toxicology

screening

256.

Common laboratory tests of urine:

To screen for the presence of AFB for detection of TB.

For 3 consecutive early mornings.

Specimen bottle used: 500ml Plastic bottle.

a)

Urine for Culture

and Sensitivity

Test (C&ST)

b)

24-hour Urine

Specimen

c)

Urine for Cytology

d)

Early Morning

Urine (EMU) for

Acid Fast

Bacillus (AFB)

e)

Urine for

toxicology

screening

257.

Common laboratory tests of urine:

To detect for drug overdose

Specimen bottle used: 20 mL spot urine in plain bottle

a)

Urine for Culture

and Sensitivity

Test (C&ST)

b)

24-hour Urine

Specimen

c)

Urine for Cytology

d)

Early Morning

Urine (EMU) for

Acid Fast

Bacillus (AFB)

e)

Urine for

toxicology

screening

258.

Types of stool specimen collection:

• To identify a specific micro-organism growing in the stool.

• To identify the microorganism’s drug resistance and sensitivities.

a)

Stool for Culture and Sensitivity Test (C&ST)

b)

Stool for Faecal Occult Blood (FOB)

c)

Stool for Ova & parasites

d)

Inspection in ward

e)

Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)

259.

Types of stool specimen collection:

• To screen for the presence of invisible blood in the stool which is difficult to detect in naked eye inspection.

• For conditions such as colon cancer, bleeding gastrointestinal ulcers, and localized gastric or intestinal irritation.

• Required for 3 consecutive days.

a)

Stool for Culture and Sensitivity Test (C&ST)

b)

Stool for Faecal Occult Blood (FOB)

c)

Stool for Ova & parasites

d)

Inspection in ward

e)

Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)

260.

Types of stool specimen collection:

- To look for any ova and parasites

a)

Stool for Culture and Sensitivity Test (C&ST)

b)

Stool for Faecal Occult Blood (FOB)

c)

Stool for Ova & parasites

d)

Inspection in ward

e)

Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)

261.

Types of stool specimen collection:

- Save mainly for doctor's naked eye inspection

- Usually collected in bedpan or napkin

a)

Stool for Culture and Sensitivity Test (C&ST)

b)

Stool for Faecal Occult Blood (FOB)

c)

Stool for Ova & parasites

d)

Inspection in ward

e)

Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)

262.

Types of stool specimen collection:

- To detect globin moiety of human hemoglobin only

- Not appropriate for the detection of upper gastrointestinal tract bleeding

a)

Stool for Culture and Sensitivity Test (C&ST)

b)

Stool for Faecal Occult Blood (FOB)

c)

Stool for Ova & parasites

d)

Inspection in ward

e)

Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)

263.

Removal of suture/staples, Assessment:

1. client’s identity

2. physician’s orders

3. risk for impaired wound healing

4. comfort level (pain scale)

a)

1, 2

b)

1, 2, 3

c)

1, 2, 4

d)

All of the above

264.

Removal of staples:

• Place lower tips of sterile staple remover ? the staple

• Squeeze the handles together until they are completely closed

a)

under

b)

above

265.

Removal of staples:

• Place removed staples on a sterile gauze

• Remove ? staple to ensure the wound edges are healed

a)

intermittent

b)

continuous

266.

Removal of suture/staples, Documentation:

1. The number of sutures/ staples removed

2. appearance of the incision

3. Type of dressing applied

4. Client’s response

a)

1, 2

b)

1, 2, 3

c)

1, 2, 4

d)

All of the above

267.

Patient education:

● Instruct client to observe for any sign of ? of wound edges before removing remaining sutures or staples and inspect incision for continued healing.

(a)  

268.

Patient education:

● Reinforce instruction about resuming bathing and showering activities, preventing abdominal strain during defecation, and providing adequate ? and ambulation.

(a)  

269.

Patient education:

● Teach client not to put additional ? on suture line from such activities as lifting or bending. Clients with abdominal surgery or injury need to avoid lifting heavy packages or equipment for several weeks.

(a)  

270.

Patient education:

● Instruct client that sometimes there is a small amount of ? from wound immediately after suture removal.

(a)  

271.

Patient education:

● Instruct client to try to keep the wound dry for the first ? days. Showers are preferable to baths, to avoid soaking the wound; use a shower cap if the wound is on the head, and pat the wound dry if it gets wet. Do not rub the wound.

a)

5

b)

10

c)

3

d)

1

272.

Wound drain:

• Without a drain, some wounds would heal on the surface and trap the discharge inside and abscess might form

• Generally, the suction is discontinued from ? days postoperatively or when drainage is minimal.

a)

3 to 5

b)

2 to 4

c)

1 to 2

d)

4 to 5

273.

Special considerations when performing drainage tube removal:

● Do not carry out wound drain removal procedure and clarify with doctor if ? hours drain output remains high or suddenly increases drain output, or change in patient’s general condition and nature of drainage.

a)

24

b)

12

c)

36

d)

48

274.

Special considerations when performing drainage tube removal:

? removal of drainage tube and inform doctor if encounter any difficulties.

(a)  

275.

Special considerations when performing drainage tube removal:

● Check the integrity of the drainage tube after removal, and ? with another qualified staff or medical officer if any doubt. Report immediately if any missing parts of the drain are found after a thorough examination.

(a)  

276.

Drain site dressing:

• Clean from the exit site outwards in ? motion.

• Use “One swab once”, from inner to outer, from bottom and away from the insertion site.

• Clean the surrounding skin till the area that will be covered by the gauze

(a)  

277.

Prevent recurrence of urinary tract infection:

- These substances can be irritating to the urethra and encourage inflammation and bacterial infection

a)

Avoid use of harsh soaps, bubble bath, powder, or spray in perineal area

b)

Wear cotton underclothes

c)

Avoid tight-fitting pants or other clothing

d)

Wipe the perineal area from front to back after urination or defecation.

e)

take showers rather than baths

278.

Prevent recurrence of urinary tract infection:

- Accumulation of perineal moisture facilitates bacterial growth. Cotton enhances ventilation of the perineal area

a)

Avoid use of harsh soaps, bubble bath, powder, or spray in perineal area

b)

Wear cotton underclothes

c)

Avoid tight-fitting pants or other clothing

d)

Wipe the perineal area from front to back after urination or defecation.

e)

take showers rather than baths

279.

Prevent recurrence of urinary tract infection:

- This creates irritation of the urethra and prevents ventilation of the perineal area

a)

Avoid use of harsh soaps, bubble bath, powder, or spray in perineal area

b)

Wear cotton underclothes

c)

Avoid tight-fitting pants or other clothing

d)

Wipe the perineal area from front to back after urination or defecation.

e)

take showers rather than baths

280.

Prevent recurrence of urinary tract infection:

- Prevent introduction of gastrointestinal bacteria into the urethra

a)

Avoid use of harsh soaps, bubble bath, powder, or spray in perineal area

b)

Wear cotton underclothes

c)

Avoid tight-fitting pants or other clothing

d)

Wipe the perineal area from front to back after urination or defecation.

e)

take showers rather than baths

281.

Prevent recurrence of urinary tract infection:

- Bacteria present in bath water can readily enter the urethra

a)

Avoid use of harsh soaps, bubble bath, powder, or spray in perineal area

b)

Wear cotton underclothes

c)

Avoid tight-fitting pants or other clothing

d)

Wipe the perineal area from front to back after urination or defecation.

e)

take showers rather than baths

282.

Manage urinary incontinence:

Goals:

• Gradually lengthen intervals between urination to correct client’s frequent urination, stabilize the bladder and diminish urgency

• Delayed voiding provides larger voided volume and longer intervals between voiding

• Instructs client to practice deep, slow breathing every time client has a premature urge to void, until the urge diminishes or disappears.

• Encourage voiding every 2 – 3 hours initially except during sleeping

• Gradually increase voiding to every 4 – 6 hour

a)

Bladder retraining

b)

Habit training

283.

Manage urinary incontinence:

Goals:

• Keep clients dry by having them void at regular intervals (e.g. 2 – 4 hours)

a)

Bladder retraining

b)

Habit training

284.

Manage urinary incontinence:

Apply ? urinary draining devices (e.g. condom catheter)

Purpose:

• Collect urine and control urinary incontinence

• Permit the client physical activity while controlling UI

• Prevent skin irritation

(a)  

285.

Manage urinary incontinence:

Urinary ?

• Introduction of a catheter into the urinary bladder

• Performed only when absolutely necessary

(a)  

286.

Hazard of urinary catheterization:

• Occurs while indwelling catheter in place or within 48 hours of its removal

• Most frequent health care-associated infection

• Introduce microorganisms into the bladder

• Signs and symptoms: foul-smell urine, cloudy urine, haematuria, renal inflammation, kidney infection, bladder spasms, elevated levels of WBCs and fever, be aware that client may be asymptomatic

a)

Catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)

b)

Trauma

287.

Hazard of urinary catheterization:

• Particularly in male, whose urethra is longer and more tortuous

• Damage to urethra if the catheter is forced through strictures or at an incorrect angle

a)

Catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)

b)

Trauma

288.

Materials of urinary catheters:

• Resistant to encrustation

• Can stay in place up to 12 weeks (depending on the manufacturer instruction)

• Used for clients with latex hypersensitivity

a)

Latex

b)

Silicone

c)

Polyvincyl chloride (PVC)

289.

Materials of urinary catheters:

• For intermittent use

• e.g. Nelaton catheter

a)

Latex

b)

Silicone

c)

Polyvincyl chloride (PVC)

290.

Lubricate the tip of the catheter:

?cm for female

a)

2.5 – 5

b)

1.5 - 5

c)

3 - 5

d)

5 - 10

291.

Lubricate the tip of the catheter:

?cm for male

a)

15 – 17.5

b)

15 - 18.5

c)

10 - 15.5

d)

10 - 17.5

292.

Urinary catheterization, Male:

- Retract ? if indicated

(a)  

293.

Urinary catheterization:

• Gently pull back the catheter until resistance is felt

- Ensure the balloon has inflated and to place it in the trigone of the bladder

• Reposition the foreskin for ? client if indicated

- Prevent paraphimosis or even gangrene

a)

Male

b)

Female

294.

Urinary catheterization:

• Hang the drainage bag ? the level of the bladder to ensure free flow of urine

(a)  

295.

Nursing Care to prevent catheter - associated urinary tract infection:

• Drink up to ?ml/ day if not contraindicated to ensure large urine output:

- Keeps bladder flushed out

- Decrease likelihood of urinary stasis and subsequent infection

- Minimize the risk of sediment or other particles from obstructing the drainage tubing

a)

3000

b)

1000

c)

2000

d)

1500

296.

Nursing Care to prevent catheter - associated urinary tract infection:

? the urine to decrease the risk of UTI and calculus formation

- Food such as eggs, cheese, meat and poultry, whole grains, cranberries, plum and prunes, tomatoes tend to increase the acidity of urine

- Most fruits and vegetables, legumes, milk and dairy products result in alkaline urine

(a)  

297.

Nursing Care to prevent catheter - associated urinary tract infection:

• Maintain ? / meatal hygiene

• Daily bathing:

- Use soap and water for the daily cleansing of the meatal area to maintain good catheter-urethral interface hygiene and remove gross debris from the catheter tubing during bathing or showering

- Keep genital and meatal area clean and dry

- Additional cleansing is indicated for patients with diarrhoea or incontinence

- If client’s condition is not suitable for bathing, a mild soap, fresh water and disposable wipes are adequate for washing the genitalia and groin area at least daily

(a)  

298.

Removal of an Indwelling Urinary Catheter:

• Check if there is any lower abdominal distension & failure to pass urine ? hours after catheter removal. Take appropriate actions accordingly

a)

3

b)

6

c)

9

d)

12