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Worksheets

Block 3 TH

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary purpose of an operating system (OS)?

a)

To run application software only.

b)

To manage and coordinate computer hardware activities.

c)

To provide internet access.

d)

To create software.

2.

Which of the following is considered system software?

a)

Web browsers

b)

Word processors

c)

Operating systems

d)

Games

3.

What is the role of a driver in a computer system?

a)

To run application software.

b)

To manage the operating system.

c)

To translate instructions between hardware and software.

d)

To provide a user interface.

4.

What is a key characteristic of a Command Line Interface (CLI)?

a)

It uses visual components like menus and icons.

b)

It is text-based, requiring users to type commands.

c)

It is user-friendly and easy for beginners.

d)

It is only used for multimedia tasks.

5.

What is a domain in a network environment?

a)

A collection of interconnected computing devices.

b)

A single computer in a network.

c)

A type of software application.

d)

A security protocol.

6.

What is a typical installation requirement for Windows 10 or 11?

a)

A Mac built in the last few years.

b)

512 MB of RAM.

c)

64 GB of available storage.

d)

A Linux distro.

7.

What is a key characteristic of Linux installation requirements?

a)

Specific requirements tailored to Apple's hardware.

b)

Consistent requirements across all distros.

c)

Highly customizable, varying by distro.

d)

Requires UEFI firmware with Secure Boot.

8.

What is a "standard image" used for in workstation setup?

a)

A collection of application software.

b)

A pre-configured operating system setup.

c)

A user's personal desktop configuration.

d)

A set of hardware drivers.

9.

What is the purpose of adding a computer to a domain?

a)

To operate independently with its own user accounts.

b)

To integrate it into a centralized network environment.

c)

To set up a small, peer-to-peer network.

d)

To install application software.

10.

Which of the following is an example of a general client application?

a)

Operating System

b)

Device Driver

c)

Microsoft Office

d)

Utility Program

11.

What is involved in mapping a client system to a network device?

a)

Physically attaching the device to the computer.

b)

Creating a network connection to access the device.

c)

Installing the operating system.

d)

Configuring hardware drivers.

12.

What are software management policies?

a)

Guidelines for installing hardware devices.

b)

Rules for user behavior on the computer.

c)

Guidelines for software acquisition, deployment, and usage.

d)

Procedures for backing up data.

13.

What is "counterfeiting" in the context of software?

a)

Upgrading software to a newer version.

b)

Copying software to create an unauthorized copy.

c)

Managing software licenses.

d)

Distributing software for free.

14.

What is the purpose of the Base Software License Management (BSLM) Program?

a)

To develop new software.

b)

To manage and ensure compliance with software licensing agreements.

c)

To provide user training on software applications

d)

To install software on user computers.

15.

What is the Approved Product List (APL)/Evaluated Product List (EPL) used for?

a)

To track hardware inventory.

b)

To validate Commercial off the Shelf (COTS) software.

c)

To manage user accounts.

d)

To schedule software updates.

16.

How are Control Panel functions used in an enterprise environment?

a)

To manage physical office spaces.

b)

To manage and customize system settings on workstations.

c)

To install new software applications.

d)

To provide user support.

17.

What is the purpose of Computer Management tools?

a)

To design computer hardware.

b)

To manage network infrastructure.

c)

To maintain and optimize workstations and servers.

d)

To develop software applications.

18.

What is OS image management?

a)

The process of installing application software.

b)

The process of creating, maintaining, and deploying standardized OS images.

c)

The management of hardware devices.

d)

The process of updating software licenses.

19.

What role does Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) play in image management?

a)

It provides guidance on setting up bootable USB/HDDs.

b)

It automates the deployment process of Windows operating systems and applications.

c)

It manages software licenses.

d)

It monitors network traffic.

20.

Which of the following is a type of software update?

a)

Hardware Update

b)

Driver Update

c)

Security Update

d)

Firmware Update

21.

Why are software updates important?

a)

They only change the appearance of the software.

b)

They protect systems from vulnerabilities and enhance functionality.

c)

They slow down the computer.

d)

They are not necessary for modern software.

22.

What is the purpose of Windows Update for Business (WUfB)?

a)

To provide updates for non-Windows operating systems.

b)

To allow organizations to manage how and when Windows updates are applied.

c)

To update application software only.

d)

To monitor network traffic.

23.

How is PowerShell used for updating software?

a)

To manually install updates on each computer.

b)

To automate the process of checking, downloading, and installing updates.

c)

To prevent software updates.

d)

To design software applications.

24.

What is a virtual machine?

a)

A physical computer.

b)

A software emulation of a physical computer.

c)

A type of hardware.

d)

A network device.

25.

What is a hypervisor?

a)

A software application.

b)

Hardware that runs the Operating System.

c)

Software or hardware that allows multiple operating systems to share a single physical host.

d)

A type of virtual machine.

26.

What is a Type 1 hypervisor?

a)

A hypervisor that runs on top of a host operating system.

b)

A hypervisor that runs directly on the physical hardware.

c)

A virtual machine monitor.

d)

A desktop application.

27.

What is the purpose of data backup?

a)

To speed up computer processing.

b)

To create a copy of data that can be recovered if the original data is lost or corrupted.

c)

To enhance the computer's graphical capabilities.

d)

To manage software licenses.

28.

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of data loss?

a)

Hardware failure

b)

Software updates

c)

Human error

d)

Cyberattacks

29.

What does the term "data restoration" refer to?

a)

Upgrading software to a newer version.

b)

The process of retrieving backed-up data to its original or a new location following a data loss event.

c)

Optimizing system performance.

d)

Managing network settings.

30.

What is a full backup?

a)

A backup of only the most recent changes.

b)

A backup of the entire dataset.

c)

A backup of application software only.

d)

A backup of system settings only.

31.

Which backup method involves backing up only the changes made since the last full backup?

a)

Full backup

b)

Differential backup

c)

Incremental backup

d)

Cloud backup

32.

What is a differential backup?

a)

A backup of the entire dataset.

b)

A backup of changes made since the last full backup.

c)

A backup of system files only.

d)

A type of cloud backup.

33.

Which backup method is generally the fastest to restore?

a)

Incremental backup

b)

Differential backup

c)

Full backup

d)

Cloud backup

34.

What is an advantage of incremental backups?

a)

Fastest restore time.

b)

Requires less storage space for each backup.

c)

Simplifies the restoration process.

d)

Backs up the entire dataset each time.

35.

What is a disadvantage of full backups?

a)

Slower restore time.

b)

Requires more storage space.

c)

More complex to manage.

d)

all of the above.

36.

What is the 3-2-1 backup strategy?

a)

A strategy for software development.

b)

A backup strategy recommending three copies of data, two different storage media, and one offsite copy.

c)

A method for network configuration.

d)

A strategy for hardware installation.

37.

What is the primary purpose of offsite backups?

a)

To speed up daily operations.

b)

To protect data from local disasters.

c)

To manage software licenses.

d)

To enhance system graphics.

38.

Which of the following is an example of an offsite backup location?

a)

External hard drive

b)

USB flash drive

c)

Cloud storage

d)

Network-attached storage (NAS)

39.

What are some security measures implemented by cloud storage providers?

a)

Only physical security.

b)

Encryption, data replication, and two-factor authentication.

c)

No security measures.

d)

Basic password protection only.

40.

What is an advantage of cloud backups in terms of accessibility?

a)

Requires specific hardware.

b)

Data can only be accessed on the original device.

c)

Accessibility from any device with internet access.

d)

No version history.

41.

Why is regular monitoring and maintenance important for cloud backups?

a)

It is not necessary.

b)

To ensure backups are completing successfully and important files are not excluded.

c)

Only for file sharing.

d)

To change the appearance of files.

42.

What is Group Policy?

a)

A hardware component.

b)

A feature in Microsoft Windows for managing and configuring OS settings.

c)

A type of application software.

d)

A network cable.

43.

What is the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) used for?

a)

Running application software.

b)

Creating and applying Group Policies.

c)

Managing hardware devices.

d)

Monitoring network traffic.

44.

What are Group Policy Objects (GPOs)?

a)

Physical storage devices.

b)

Network cables.

c)

Templates for managing settings and configurations in Windows environments.

d)

Internet protocols.

45.

What is Cyber Vulnerability Management?

a)

Managing software installations.

b)

The process of identifying, evaluating, treating, and reporting on security vulnerabilities.

c)

Hardware maintenance.

d)

Network cabling.

46.

What is a key component of effective vulnerability management?

a)

Ignoring security updates.

b)

Regular vulnerability scanning and remediation.

c)

Only installing new software.

d)

Disabling firewalls.

47.

What does STIG stand for?

a)

Software Technical Installation Guide.

b)

Security Technical Implementation Guide.

c)

System Troubleshooting and Installation Guide.

d)

Standard Technology Integration Group.

48.

Who develops STIGs?

a)

Microsoft

b)

Department of Homeland Security

c)

Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)

d)

Apple

49.

What is the purpose of STIGs?

a)

To provide guidelines for software development.

b)

To ensure secure configuration of information systems.

c)

To manage network traffic efficiently.

d)

To enhance user interface design.

50.

What is the purpose of a STIG?

a)

To design computer hardware.

b)

To provide cybersecurity standards and guidelines for hardening various systems.

c)

To develop software applications.

d)

To manage network cables.

51.

Which of the following is an example of a type of STIG?

a)

Application STIGs

b)

Operating System STIGs

c)

Hardware STIGs

d)

Cable STIGs

52.

What are STIG categories used for?

a)

To organize software licenses.

b)

To prioritize the implementation of security controls based on severity.

c)

To manage hardware inventory.

d)

To label network cables.

53.

Which STIG category represents the most critical vulnerabilities?

a)

CAT 3

b)

CAT 2

c)

CAT 1

d)

None of the above

54.

What is the typical impact of a CAT 1 vulnerability?

a)

Minimal impact on system operations.

b)

Limited security breaches.

c)

Significant impact, potentially leading to complete system compromise or data breaches.

d)

No impact on system security.

55.

What is the recommended priority for addressing CAT 1 vulnerabilities?

a)

Address after CAT 3 vulnerabilities.

b)

Address as part of routine maintenance.

c)

Immediate attention and remediation.

d)

No need to address.

56.

How should CAT 3 vulnerabilities typically be handled?

a)

Immediate remediation.

b)

Prioritized over CAT 1 vulnerabilities.

c)

As part of routine maintenance and continuous improvement.

d)

Ignored.