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Networking and Security Quiz

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In the event of a theft, the most appropriate failure policy is a fail-open policy.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Ethernet performs error correction.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

When a repeater boosts a signal, any noise which has affected the signal will also be boosted.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Digital signals vary continuously, while analogue signals consist of discrete pulses.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Digital certificates are issued, maintained, and validated by an Organisation called a certificate authority (CA).

a)

True

b)

False

6.

The Transport layer header addresses a receiving application by a number called a port number.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

The fundamental difference between a switch and a router is that a switch belongs only to its local network and a router belongs to two or more networks.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

An 802.11 data frame contains four address fields, in contrast to the two address fields in 802.3 Ethernet.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Because digital signals do not depend on amplitude or frequency differences to communicate information, they are more vulnerable to EMI noise.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

How do routers create a broadcast domain boundary?

a)

They forward broadcasts only to necessary segments.

b)

They listen to and direct broadcast traffic.

c)

They only forward broadcasts that are intended for multiple subnets.

d)

They do not forward broadcast traffic.

11.

In fibre-optic terminology, SMF stands for __________.

a)

single-mode fibre

b)

standard-mode fibre

c)

small-mode fibre

d)

super-mode fibre

12.

A vSwitch (virtual switch) or bridge is a logically defined device that operates at what layer of the OSI model?

a)

Layer 1

b)

Layer 2

c)

Layer 4

d)

Layer 7

13.

Which of the following options is not a likely source of electromagnetic interference?

a)

power lines

b)

motors

c)

fibre optic cables

d)

microwaves

14.

The data field in an Ethernet frame must be at least

a)

12

b)

46

c)

384

d)

1500

15.

Analogue signals are boosted by:

a)

switches

b)

hubs

c)

repeaters

d)

amplifiers

16.

At the Transport layer of the OSI, what is used to find and communicate with a particular application running on a host?

a)

IP addresses

b)

port numbers

c)

domain names

d)

MAC addresses

17.

Which of the following statements regarding a peer-to-peer network model is true?

a)

Peer-to-peer networks offer scalability, making them advantageous.

b)

Secured access points are typically implemented in peer-to-peer networks to prevent unauthorized access.

c)

The cost of a network operating system is generally higher compared to a desktop operating system.

d)

A single point of control is not available in a peer-to-peer network model for diagnosing and monitoring network problems.

18.

The header of an Ethernet frame:

a)

signals to the receiving node that the bytes following are the actual frame

b)

provides the MAC address of the source and destination nodes

c)

ensures that the data the destination exactly matches the data issued from the source

d)

specifies the transport layer protocol carried in the frame

19.

What is the purpose of the Layer 2 LLC sublayer?

a)

It is used to handle multiplexing, flow and error control, and reliability.

b)

It is used to manage MAC addresses in message frames.

c)

It performs management of the physical layer's modulation techniques.

d)

It is used to manage low-level encryption on a network.

20.

What is assigned to each node on a network, which is then used by the Network layer to uniquely identify the node?

a)

MAC address

b)

IP address

c)

port address

d)

autonomous system address

21.

The preamble of an Ethernet frame:

a)

ensures that the data the destination exactly matches the data issued from the source

b)

provides the MAC address of the source and destination nodes

c)

specifies the transport layer protocol carried in the frame

d)

signals to the receiving node that the bytes following are the actual frame

22.

Which forwarding method used by a switch results in fewer errors?

a)

Cut through

b)

Fragment free

c)

Store-and-forward

d)

Token based

23.

A network with 8 bits remaining for the host portion will have how many usable host addresses?

a)

254

b)

256

c)

510

d)

512

24.

Frame Relay is a _______ layer protocol, generally used for ______.

a)

data link, WANs

b)

data link, LANs

c)

physical, WANs

d)

physical, LANs

25.

In a cellular network, where does each wireless base station connect to?

a)

They connect directly to the central office.

b)

They connect to a mobile switching centre.

c)

They connect to other wireless base stations, then to the central office.

d)

They connect to a wireless station repeater.

26.

What is the maximum number of host IP addresses that can exist in a Class C network?

a)

282^8

b)

2162^{16}

c)

2242^24

d)

2322^32

27.

What is the name of the GUI front end that is available for the Nmap utility?

a)

GUINmap

b)

Zenmap

c)

iMap

d)

VizMap

28.

What is the default subnet mask for a class B network?

a)

255.0.0.0

b)

255.255.0.0

c)

255.255.255.0

d)

255.255.255.255

29.

What happens when a router receives a packet with a TTL of 0?

a)

The router drops the packet and sends an ICMP TTL expired message back to the host.

b)

The router attempts to forward the traffic on a local network.

c)

The router resets the TTL to 128.

d)

The router marks the packet as corrupted and forwards it to the next hop.

30.

Which of the following is an example of encapsulation?

a)

The addition of a header to data inherited from the layer above in the OSI model.

b)

The subtraction of a header from data inherited from the layer below in the OSI model.

c)

The modification of headers from a higher layer in the OSI model.

d)

The addition of a trailer to data inherited from the layer above in the OSI model.

31.

Wireless signals may be subject to diffraction, which refers to signals:

a)

splitting into secondary waves

b)

being absorbed by obstacles

c)

bouncing back to the source

d)

diffusing in multiple different directions

32.

Which of the following is false?

a)

bridging tables associate interfaces (ports) and MAC addresses

b)

bridging tables are used by switches

c)

bridging tables are used by hubs

d)

bridging tables are initially empty and are created by learning from traffic on the network

33.

Which of the following describes the broadcast address on an IPv4 network?

a)

all host bits set to 1

b)

all host bits set to 0

c)

final octet is always 255

d)

router defined - can be anything

34.

What is NOT one of the three characteristics of TCP in its role as a reliable delivery protocol?

a)

Connection-oriented Protocol

b)

Sequencing and checksums

c)

Framing

d)

Flow Control

35.

Which of the following is not performed by TCP?

a)

three-way handshake

b)

packet fragmentation

c)

sequencing

d)

acknowledgements

36.

What statement describes a transmission flaw that is occurring due to attenuation?

a)

A customer modem is continuously losing signal due to large distance from the transmitting device.

b)

A network switch interface is dropping due to a powerful radio transmitter in the adjacent room.

c)

A customer's video conferencing application is experiencing delay in audio and video that comes and goes.

d)

Two network interfaces are experiencing problems at the same time due to the cables having adjacent runs.

37.

An IP address of 201.168.13.99/28 has what network ID?

a)

201.168.13.80

b)

201.168.14.80

c)

201.168.13.96

d)

201.168.14.96

38.

When planning horizontal cabling, what is the maximum allowable distance that can be used?

a)

30 metres

b)

50 metres

c)

90 metres

d)

100 metres

39.

What type of diagram is a graphical representation of a network's wired infrastructure?

a)

network diagram

b)

wiring schematic

c)

topology map

d)

system diagram

40.

Which method of transmission allows signals to travel in both directions over a medium simultaneously?

a)

full duplex

b)

multiple

c)

total duplex

d)

half duplex

41.

What is the maximum segment length for twisted pair cables?

a)

10 metres

b)

100 metres

c)

30 metres

d)

300 metres

42.

The subnet mask 255.0.0.0 is equivalent to what?

a)

/8

b)

/16

c)

/24

d)

/255

43.

The TCP and UDP protocols both exist at what layer of the OSI model?

a)

Application

b)

Presentation

c)

Transport

d)

Network

44.

The combination of a public key and a private key are known by what term below?

a)

key bundle

b)

key team

c)

key pair

d)

key tie

45.

What does the VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) do?

a)

It shares trunking information amongst switches that participate.

b)

It shares VLAN database information amongst switches that participate.

c)

It is the protocol used by a trunk port for establishing a trunk with another switch.

d)

It is the protocol that defines how VLAN tagging is accomplished in an Ethernet network.

46.

The frame header at the Data Link layer includes hardware addresses of the source and destination NICs. What is another name for this address?

a)

MAC (Media Access Control) address

b)

DAC (Data Access Control) address

c)

DAC (Digital Access Control) address

d)

PAC (Packet Access Control) address

47.

At what layer of the OSI model does a network switch normally operate?

a)

Layer 2

b)

Layer 3

c)

Layer 4

d)

Layer 5

48.

What scenario describes an evil twin attack?

a)

A malicious access point is configured with the SSID of a non-malicious public access point.

b)

An attacker is actively attempting to brute force the PIN of a WPS enabled access point.

c)

A hacker is actively sending wireless probes to discover available wireless networks.

d)

A hacker is utilising a protocol analyser on a public Wi-Fi network to discover packet contents.

49.

A port number, which identifies an application on a host, exists at what level of the OSI model?

a)

Data link

b)

Transport

c)

Network

d)

Application

50.

In the TCP/IP model, what layer combines the responsibilities of the Application, Presentation, and Session layers from the OSI model?

a)

Application

b)

Internet

c)

Transport

d)

Link

51.

The wireless spectrum, as defined by the FCC, spans between which two frequencies?

a)

9 kHz and 300 GHz

b)

125 kHz and 150 GHz

c)

3 kHz and 500 GHz

d)

3 MHz and 300 GHz

52.

What type of remote access method enables a remote client to gain control and command a host computer?

a)

RAS

b)

Remote file access

c)

Terminal emulation

d)

VPN

53.

In the DNS hierarchy, where is information about how to find the top-level domain servers held?

a)

In the hosts file on the local machine.

b)

On the DNS root servers.

c)

On DNS caching-only servers.

d)

In the Organisation's forward lookup zone.

54.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

NEXT is crosstalk that occurs between wire pairs near the source of a signal.

b)

NEXT is crosstalk that occurs near the opposite end of a signal source.

c)

FEXT is crosstalk that occurs when an EMI source is near the data signal source.

d)

FEXT is crosstalk that occurs only when a cable segment exceeds the bend radius.

55.

The subnet mask 255.255.255.128 is equivalent to in CIDR notation.

a)

/24

b)

/25

c)

/26

d)

/27

56.

What are the three characteristics of TCP in its role as a reliable delivery protocol? Explain each of the three characteristics.

a)

Error detection, flow control, congestion control

b)

Speed, efficiency, simplicity

c)

Security, encryption, decryption

d)

Cost-effectiveness, scalability, flexibility

57.

Briefly explain the following technology: Bluetooth, ANT+, NFC, Infrared.

a)

Wireless communication technologies

b)

Data storage solutions

c)

Programming languages

d)

Operating systems

58.

Briefly explain the 7 layers in the OSI model.

a)

Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical

b)

Hardware, Software, Network, Data, Application, Security, Management

c)

Input, Output, Processing, Storage, Control, Communication, Feedback

d)

User, Interface, Processing, Storage, Network, Security, Management

59.

How can you determine the manufacturer of a NIC card based on the MAC address?

a)

By using the first three bytes of the MAC address

b)

By checking the last three bytes of the MAC address

c)

By analyzing the entire MAC address

d)

By using the MAC address in reverse order

60.

What are the three (3) steps of the TCP Three-way handshake?

a)

SYN, SYN-ACK, ACK

b)

CONNECT, SEND, RECEIVE

c)

START, PROCESS, END

d)

REQUEST, APPROVE, CONFIRM

61.

Compare and contrast public key and private key encryption.

a)

Public key is used for encryption, private key for decryption

b)

Both keys are used for encryption only

c)

Private key is used for encryption, public key for decryption

d)

Both keys are used for decryption only

62.

Describe the reserved IPv4 address ranges for Class D and Class E, including the numerical ranges and intended uses for each range.

a)

Class D: 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 for multicast; Class E: 240.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255 for experimental

b)

Class D: 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255 for private networks; Class E: 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 for public networks

c)

Class D: 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255 for reserved; Class E: 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255 for multicast

d)

Class D: 240.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255 for experimental; Class E: 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 for multicast

63.

Describe how the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) differ from each other, and provide examples of where each might be used.

a)

TCP is connection-oriented, UDP is connectionless; TCP for web browsing, UDP for streaming

b)

TCP is faster, UDP is slower; TCP for streaming, UDP for web browsing

c)

TCP is used for encryption, UDP for decryption; TCP for emails, UDP for file transfers

d)

TCP is for local networks, UDP for wide area networks; TCP for gaming, UDP for emails

64.

Consider the network above and use VLSM to subnet the network using the most efficient subnetting scheme for the LANs and the WANs. The WAN links are to be allocated from the network range directly following the LANs. The LAN subnets must be large enough to accommodate the number of actual host machines and no larger.

a)

Use Class C for all locations

b)

Use Class A for all locations

c)

Use VLSM with Class A, B, or C as needed

d)

Use Class B for all locations

65.

What is the supernet address, with mask, for the networks below?

a)

188.0.0.0/18

b)

188.0.32.0/18

c)

188.0.48.0/18

d)

188.0.64.0/18