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Type III EPA 608 – 50 Multiple Choice Questions

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What type of equipment is Type III certification intended for?

a)

High-pressure appliances

b)

Low-pressure appliances

c)

Small appliances

d)

Motor vehicle air conditioners

2.

Which refrigerants are typically used in low-pressure appliances?

a)

R-22, R-410A

b)

R-134a, R-404A

c)

R-11, R-123

d)

R-32, R-407C

3.

At what vacuum level must you recover refrigerant from a low-pressure appliance (with 200 lbs or more refrigerant) using recovery equipment manufactured after November 15, 1993?

a)

0 inches Hg

b)

10 inches Hg

c)

15 inches Hg

d)

25 inches Hg

4.

What is the typical high-pressure side of a low-pressure chiller under normal operation?

a)

Greater than 150 psig

b)

30 psig

c)

Vacuum

d)

Slight positive pressure

5.

What is the proper method to recover refrigerant from a low-pressure system?

a)

Recover vapor only

b)

Recover liquid only

c)

Recover liquid first, then vapor

d)

Use venting

6.

What temperature should be achieved to increase refrigerant removal efficiency from a chiller?

a)

0°F

b)

Room temperature

c)

130°F

d)

212°F

7.

Why is it important to heat the oil in a chiller during recovery?

4 lines
8.

Which device prevents refrigerant from flowing back into the system during recovery?

a)

Pressure relief valve

b)

Schrader valve

c)

Check valve

d)

Expansion valve

9.

Which component should be monitored when heating a chiller to speed up recovery?

a)

Discharge temperature

b)

Water temperature

c)

Pressure-relief valve

d)

Oil temperature

10.

Before recovering refrigerant, what should be done to isolate the system?

a)

Open all valves

b)

Pump down the system

c)

Close the service valves

d)

Close the purge unit

11.

What is the EPA-required leak rate threshold for low-pressure comfort cooling equipment?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

15%

d)

35%

12.

What is the leak rate threshold for low-pressure commercial refrigeration equipment?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

15%

d)

35%

13.

How long do you have to repair a leak in a system that exceeds the allowable rate?

a)

15 days

b)

30 days

14.

Which method is NOT acceptable for leak checking a low-pressure system?

a)

Ultrasonic leak detector

b)

Soap bubble solution

c)

Oxygen and refrigerant mixture

d)

Electronic leak detector

15.

How should a low-pressure system be pressurized for a leak check?

a)

With refrigerant

b)

With nitrogen

c)

With compressed air

d)

With oxygen

16.

What is the maximum pressure you should use when leak testing a low-pressure system with nitrogen?

a)

0 psig

b)

5 psig

c)

10 psig

d)

50 psig

17.

Why is oxygen never used for pressurizing a system?

a)

It’s expensive

b)

It reacts with refrigerants

c)

It is a fire hazard

d)

Both B and C

18.

What must be installed on a system with a history of chronic leaks?

a)

Pressure switch

b)

Leak detection system

c)

Relief valve

d)

Evaporator isolation valve

19.

When disposing of a low-pressure appliance, how much vacuum must be achieved using equipment made after Nov 15, 1993?

a)

0 inches Hg

b)

5 inches Hg

c)

10 inches Hg

d)

25 mm Hg absolute

20.

Before opening a system for service, what must be done first?

a)

Fill it with nitrogen

b)

Isolate the compressor

c)

Recover the refrigerant

d)

Replace the filter drier

21.

What type of equipment must be used for refrigerant recovery from low-pressure systems?

a)

Any pump

b)

Certified recovery equipment

c)

Water pump

d)

Portable vacuum

22.

After reaching required vacuum level during recovery, what must be done?

a)

Vent remaining refrigerant

b)

Wait for pressure rise

c)

Immediately open the system

d)

Flush with refrigerant

23.

Why should you wait after recovery before opening a system?

a)

To allow the system to cool

b)

To ensure refrigerant does not boil out of the oil

c)

To check if vacuum is holding

d)

Both B and C

24.

Which of the following refrigerants is a CFC?

a)

R-123

b)

R-11

c)

R-134a

d)

R-22

25.

Refrigerant must be reclaimed if:

a)

It’s clean

b)

It’s mixed

c)

It's reused in the same system

d)

It's from a small appliance

26.

Which component removes non-condensables from a low-pressure system?

a)

Expansion valve

b)

Purge unit

c)

Condenser

27.

What does a rise in condenser pressure indicate?

a)

System leak

b)

Presence of non-condensables

c)

Thermostat issue

d)

Overcharged system

28.

Which refrigerant has the lowest pressure at room temperature?

a)

R-22

b)

R-410A

c)

R-123

d)

R-11

29.

What is the common operating vacuum range of a low-pressure chiller?

a)

10-15 inches Hg

b)

20-25 inches Hg

c)

30 inches Hg

d)

100 psig

30.

Which part of the chiller system is most likely to leak?

a)

Compressor

b)

Oil cooler

c)

Evaporator barrel

d)

Purge unit

31.

Inhaling refrigerant can cause:

a)

Drowsiness

b)

Heart irregularities

c)

Frostbite

d)

All of the above

32.

When working with R-123 or R-11, which safety precaution is MOST important?

a)

Wear safety goggles

b)

Use halide torch

c)

Ensure ventilation

d)

Wear steel-toe boots

33.

How should refrigerant cylinders be stored?

a)

Horizontally

b)

Near heat

34.

What is the primary environmental concern with CFCs and HCFCs?

a)

Ground-level smog

b)

Ozone depletion

c)

Acid rain

d)

Greenhouse effect

35.

What is the global warming potential (GWP) of R-123 compared to CO₂?

a)

1

b)

90

c)

76

d)

76 times

36.

Who must certify recovery equipment used for low-pressure appliances?

a)

EPA

b)

OSHA

c)

AHRI

d)

Manufacturer

37.

Who is responsible for ensuring refrigerant recovery compliance on-site?

a)

The equipment owner

b)

The technician

c)

The EPA inspector

d)

The manufacturer

38.

Records of refrigerant recovery must be maintained for:

a)

6 months

b)

1 year

c)

3 years

d)

5 years

39.

Which agency enforces the Clean Air Act regulations regarding refrigerants?

a)

FDA

b)

DOE

c)

EPA

d)

DOT

40.

Ventilating refrigerant during service is:

4 lines
41.

What should be done if a chiller has a large leak and can’t maintain pressure for evacuation?

a)

Use a large recovery unit

b)

Use pressurized nitrogen

c)

Use multiple vacuum pumps

d)

Isolate and recover in segments

42.

What is a primary benefit of using a water-cooled condenser in a low-pressure chiller?

a)

Cost savings

b)

Faster cooling

c)

Greater efficiency

d)

None

43.

If refrigerant is detected in the purge unit discharge, what does this suggest?

a)

System is running efficiently

b)

Non-condensables are low

c)

Refrigerant loss

d)

Oil is overfilled

44.

A system evacuated to 10 mm Hg and pressure rises slowly—what does it mean?

a)

Leak

b)

Refrigerant still boiling off

c)

Both A and B

d)

System is clean

45.

What device helps remove moisture from a system?

a)

Sight glass

b)

Filter-drier

c)

Check valve

d)

Relief valve

46.

Which type of low-pressure refrigerant is an HCFC?

a)

R-11

b)

R-22

c)

R-123

47.

What is the result of a vacuum that won't hold after evacuation?

a)

Success

b)

Purge system activated

c)

Leak or trapped refrigerant

d)

Filter drier saturated

48.

What does a continuously running purge system indicate?

a)

Leak

b)

Normal operation

c)

Empty system

d)

Overcharged system

49.

Why must oils be handled carefully during recovery?

a)

They’re flammable

b)

They may contain refrigerant

c)

They evaporate quickly

d)

They smell bad

50.

If system pressure rises quickly after pump down, the likely cause is:

a)

Thermostat failure

b)

Non-condensables

c)

Refrigerant still present

d)

Compressor overheating