WorksheetsMTT Unit Review: Safety
Total questions: 98
Worksheet time: 49mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Name
4 lines
2.
To whom should an employee turn for information about workplace behavior guidelines?
a)
Safety co-ordinator
b)
Knowledgeable colleagues
c)
Their immediate team leader
d)
Human resources
3.
The __________ is an example of an internal customer.
a)
Vendor who sells replacement parts
b)
Distributor who sells the company's finished products
c)
Purchaser of the finished products
d)
Employee doing work on a product after you in the assembly line
4.
__________ refers to the people and resources a company devotes to assisting customers.
a)
Customer service
b)
Satisfaction effort
c)
Support staff
d)
Cost requirement
5.
The outcomes of the data must be made available to employees who take part in __________.
a)
Team building exercises
b)
Environmental tests
c)
Holiday activities
d)
Fire drills
6.
The Federal Agency that guarantees safe and healthy working conditions for employees is____________?
a)
Office of Standards and Health Agency
b)
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
c)
Occupational Security and Hearing Association
d)
Office of Statutes and Heritage Acquisitions
7.
Which of the following hazards would be monitored by the EPA (Environmental Protection Agency)?
a)
Airborne and waterborne contaminants
b)
Slips, trips, and falls
c)
Fires
d)
Mechanical hazards
8.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) demands inspection reports be documented for __________.
a)
ISO standards
b)
All emissions released into the air or waterways
c)
Storage methods
d)
Safety
9.
Which of the following describes a team of workers and management that collaborate to keep a safe workplace?
a)
An accident and injury investigation team
b)
A HAZMAT team
c)
A safety committee
d)
A fire brigade
10.
Suggestions about improving material and content for safety training should be gathered and considered by the __________.
a)
Supervisor
b)
Plant manager
c)
Safety officer
d)
Environmental coordinator
11.
Which hardhat category offers the least amount of impact resistance or protection from electrical dangers and is intended for usage in low clearance areas?
a)
Class A
b)
Class B
c)
Class C
d)
Bump Caps
12.
To provide for additional eye safety, safety glasses with side shields should be used with __________.
a)
Sunglasses
b)
Shaded lens
c)
Ear plugs
d)
A welding helmet
13.
OSHA has rules to control __________.
a)
Exposure to noise
b)
Number of hours an employee can work
c)
Speed of machinery in the plant
d)
Waste products that can go in a sewer
14.
What protection does a metatarsal guard provide?
a)
Arm protection
b)
Back protection
c)
Foot protection
d)
Face protection
15.
On a half-mask respirator, a worker should cover the cartridges with his/her hands when __________.
a)
Entering a confined area
b)
Checking the mask for leaks
c)
Moving from a hazardous area into an non-hazardous area
d)
At all times while wearing the mask
16.
What kind of respirator merely covers the mouth and nose?
a)
Painting respirator
b)
Filter respirator
c)
Hairline respirator
d)
Half-mask respirator
17.
Working in an atmosphere with less than __________ can cause disorientation.
a)
74.9% nitrogen
b)
19.5% oxygen
c)
75.0% sea level pressure
d)
1.8% carbon dioxide
18.
Hazardous materials being shipped internationally are given what identification code for labeling?
a)
HM (Hazardous Materials)
b)
HT (Hazardous Transport)
c)
UN (United Nations)
d)
OT (Overseas Transport)
19.
OSHA requires that a copies of the __________ be readily available to all employees.
a)
Sexual harassment policy
b)
Hazard Communication Program and SDS SHEETS.
c)
Minimum wage regulations
d)
Equipment maintenance schedule
20.
The __________ provides information about proper handling, storage, PPE, and disposal of each chemical.
a)
OSHA
b)
Label
c)
HMIs
d)
SDS
21.
Which of the following refresher training courses is required annually?
a)
Emissions control
b)
OSHA
c)
8-hour HAZMAT
d)
JIT manufacturing
22.
Which of the following statements about Safety Data Sheets are true?
a)
An obsolete SDS should be kept for review.
b)
The MSDS is an acceptable substitute for the SDS.
c)
A single SDS can be used for all material types.
d)
All chemicals that employees may come in contact with must have an SDS.
23.
The Emergency Response Team should be notified immediately if you observe a(n) __________.
a)
Inefficient work process
b)
Machined part that is not within the specified tolerance
c)
Employee showing up late
d)
A hazardous material or chemical spill
24.
A worker should not unload a truck if __________.
a)
It is facing down hill
b)
It has been sitting more than six hours
c)
They do not know the driver
d)
They do not understand a placard on the truck
25.
The __________ is used to identify the items being loaded for shipment as well as the potential hazards associated with those items.
a)
Shipping Manifest
b)
Shipping checklist
c)
Bill of materials
d)
Statement of disclosure
26.
Why should one wear close fitting clothing when working around machines?
a)
Keep the machine clean
b)
Prevent damage to the machine
c)
Prevent injury caused by clothing getting caught in machinery
d)
Present an attractive appearance for visitors
27.
A worker should immediately lockout a machine if he or she finds the __________.
a)
Guard has been bypassed
b)
Machine is about to fail but is still producing bad parts
c)
Machine is running inefficiently
d)
Nearby machine has failed
28.
If an operator does not test equipment after it is locked out, __________.
a)
It does not matter because the lockout prevents energizing the power
b)
The circuit will not operate
c)
They should apply a tag stating so
d)
They should be retrained
29.
If an operator knows a safety problem exists with a machine, the operator should __________.
a)
Try to correct the problem.
b)
Use caution while operating the machine.
c)
Operate the machine normally.
d)
Notify a supervisor immediately.
30.
In terms of safety, everyone is responsible for reporting __________.
a)
Unclean areas
b)
Unsupervised labor
c)
Lazy employees
d)
Improperly guarded equipment
31.
A machine __________ is a device that is designed to keep the operator clear of dangerous moving parts.
a)
spindle
b)
Guard
c)
Rest
d)
Emergency stop
32.
A mechanical interlock __________ prevent(s) a machine's operation when the guard is out of place.
a)
Theoretically
b)
Electronically
c)
Physically
d)
Does not
33.
What type of safety barrier prevents an operator's arms from entering the machine during operation?
a)
Safety harness
b)
Proximity tether
c)
Locking hasp
d)
Holdback restraint
34.
All electrical circuits should be de-energized before maintenance by __________ to prevent an accident.
a)
Pushing Emergency stops
b)
Using lockout/tagout procedure
c)
Unplugging all machines
d)
Deactivating the circuit breaker
35.
When two or more people need to service a machine, who is responsible for performing the lockout/tagout?
a)
Each person must supply their own lock and key to the hasp.
b)
The immediate supervisor performs a master logout/tagout.
c)
Each party must coordinate their time during the lockout/tagout.
d)
Every department performs their own lockout/tagout.
36.
Tools operated electrically or by pneumatic power are classified as __________ tools.
a)
Power
b)
Garage
c)
Hand
d)
Handyman
37.
The first step in safe hand tool use is __________.
a)
Only use a tool for its intended use
b)
Wear the proper personal protection equipment (PPE)
c)
Be cautious using worn or damaged hand tools
d)
Alter tools to fit a task
38.
Power tools are more dangerous than hand tools because they __________.
a)
Are connected to a power source
b)
Are heavier and bulkier than their hand tool counterpart
c)
Operate at higher speeds and forces
d)
Are by nature difficult to operate
39.
The 3 prongs of a 110-volt power tool's power cord plug perform what purpose?
a)
One is the hot, one is the neutral, and one is the ground.
b)
One is the hot, one is the neutral, and one is the cheater.
c)
Two of them conduct electricity, and the third holds the plug in the outlet.
d)
Two of them are for AC current, and the third is used for DC current.
40.
As a safety precaution, which of these should be chained to a rigid fixture?
a)
A compressed gas cylinder
b)
A forklift
c)
A drill press
d)
A welder
41.
What device is used to protect the valve stem of a compressed gas cylinder?
a)
Restraining chain
b)
A dolly or handcart
c)
Steel safety cap
d)
A stainless steel regulator
42.
What word describes the types of gas that help a fire burn?
a)
Inert
b)
Oxidizer
c)
Flammable
d)
None of the above
43.
A __________ is a manually operated forklift.
a)
Pallet jack
b)
Hand truck
c)
Pry truck
d)
Dolly
44.
What is rigging?
a)
Moving an unbalanced load
b)
Securing and balancing a load in order to move it safely
c)
The use of furls, eye sockets, and tethers
d)
The use of forks, levels, and nylon cables
45.
Which of the following lifting devices do industrial workplaces use for moving loads?
a)
Forklifts, hoists, and overhead cranes
b)
Platform lifts, hoists, and chain falls
c)
Manual lifts, platform lifts, and scissor lifts
d)
Derricks, tower cranes, and scaffolding
46.
Cranes can only be operated by a __________.
a)
Safety engineer
b)
Forklift truck driver or crane operator
c)
A supervisor
d)
A trained and Certified crane operator
47.
When is it ok to use a hoist to lift something that weighs more than the rating on a hoist?
a)
When it does not exceed 5 percent of capacity
b)
Never
c)
When the load is lifted carefully
d)
When it does not exceed 10 percent of capacity
48.
If the load on a fork truck obscures the view forward, the operator should __________.
a)
Reduce the load
b)
Drive slowly
c)
Drive the forklift truck in reverse
d)
Lower the load
49.
OSHA requires that a person who operates a forklift __________.
a)
Be at least 21 years of age
b)
Have a valid automobile driver's license
c)
Be trained and certified
d)
Have a commercial driver's license
50.
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) requires __________ forklift safety inspections.
a)
Hourly
b)
Weekly
c)
Daily
d)
Monthly
51.
A robot's teach pendant should have a __________ on it to stop the robot's motion immediately.
a)
Light curtain
b)
Lockout hasp
c)
Keyed interlock
d)
Emergency stop and a deadman switch
52.
Which of the following is responsible for most robot-related, industrial accidents?
a)
Sudden, unexpected movement
b)
Improper interlock systems
c)
Poor training practices
d)
Incorrect teach pendant programming
53.
An OSHA safety inspection is __________.
a)
Performed by an certified OSHA representative
b)
Conducted by workplace personnel
c)
Conducted only if an employee alleges violations
d)
Scheduled by the workplace management
54.
To make the workplace as safe as possible, companies __________ to learn how to improve safety.
a)
Rely on OSHA inspections
b)
Conduct performance reviews
c)
Conduct their own walk-through inspections
d)
Rely on complaints from employees
55.
Anyone who notices another employee engaging in an unsafe practice should __________.
a)
Send an anonymous letter to the supervisor
b)
Report the incident to the safety committee
c)
Give constructive input to the employee to encourage good safety practice
d)
Get the worker fired
56.
Regardless of how they are collected, safety concerns should be __________.
a)
Dismissed if not submitted by upper management
b)
Systematically documented and followed up on when appropriate
c)
Disregarded
d)
Reported directly to OSHA and upper management
57.
Which of the following should be done when a new or different machine is installed?
a)
A lockout/tagout
b)
A job safety analysis
c)
An environmental test
d)
An MSDS report
58.
A safe work place begins by designing safety into the __________.
a)
Safety standard
b)
Safety Committee
c)
Safety review
d)
Standard operating procedure (SOP)
59.
Mirrors help make a safe pedestrian walkway by __________.
a)
Aiding in backing vehicles
b)
Reflecting light into dark areas
c)
Helping control blind spots
d)
Allowing workers to check their clothing
60.
Extension ladders should be leaned against a wall with about a(n) __________ ratio of length to distance from the wall.
a)
12:1
b)
8:1
c)
6:1
d)
4:1
61.
Supervisors and/or safety committees should be made aware of __________.
a)
Cost overruns
b)
Only items that do not get people in trouble
c)
Possible improvements in ergonomics
d)
Unclean areas
62.
To protect your back during lifting, you should place your feet shoulder width apart, __________ and then grasp and lift the object.
a)
Bend at the waist
b)
Place one knee on the ground
c)
Squat down with your feet on either side of the object
d)
Bend at the knees
63.
A copy of the relevant OSHA standard must be available to workers who attend __________.
a)
Safety committee meetings
b)
OSHA required training
c)
Production training
d)
New line planning meetings
64.
Companies have a better ability to match workers to specific job needs if they use __________.
a)
Statistical Process Control
b)
Cross-training
c)
Sensitivity
d)
Better background hiring checks
65.
Emergency training like a first aid refresher should be provided __________.
a)
Once a year
b)
Twice a year
c)
Daily
d)
Only when hired
66.
When lecturing, safety officers should consider using __________ content to keep the participants interested in the material.
a)
Slides
b)
Filmstrips or videos
c)
Hands-on or interactive
d)
Irrelevant
67.
A paper fire can be safely extinguished using a Class __________ fire extinguisher.
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
68.
The class of fire determines the __________.
a)
Type of flammable material
b)
Temperature at which the fire burns
c)
Method of extinguishing the fire
d)
The location of the fire
69.
Flammable liquids should be stored in __________.
a)
Closed containers with oily rags
b)
A locked cabinet with proper signage
c)
A well-ventilated area
d)
An open container
70.
To avoid potential fires, combustible materials must be kept a minimum of __________ feet from any potential ignition sources.
a)
100
b)
10
c)
35
d)
65
71.
The dates and charge on the fire extinguishers should be checked __________.
a)
During the yearly fire system inspection
b)
When the fire alarm control panel (FACP) is repaired
c)
When performing a monthly inspection of the fire system
d)
When inspecting the fire sprinkler system
72.
If the round grounding pin is missing from an electrical chord, you should __________.
a)
Use it only on ungrounded receptacles
b)
Use an adapter to plug it into a three-pin receptacle
c)
Use it only if the tool is double insulated
d)
Never use it
73.
An important rule to follow for fire safety and containment is to __________.
a)
Remove unnecessary fire suppressant equipment from every workstation
b)
Keep exit paths cleared and fire doors closed
c)
Open all windows and doors to release smoke and fumes
d)
Fight fires with available extinguishers until the fire department arrives
74.
Who should be trained in the details of a company's Emergency Action Plan?
a)
All employees
b)
Designated first responders
c)
Emergency medical technicians
d)
All floor supervisors
75.
When an alarm sounds, you should initiate emergency shutdown procedures and evacuate __________.
a)
Immediately
b)
As soon as you see others doing so
c)
Before power fails
d)
After you confirm it is not a false alarm
76.
Call 911 immediately if you notice that another worker __________.
a)
Has swallowed a cleaning chemical
b)
Looks dizzy
c)
Is leaving work early
d)
Is vomiting
77.
Cool water is an appropriate treatment for __________.
a)
Rashes
b)
Minor burns
c)
Muscle strains
d)
Migraines
78.
Emergency showers and eyewash stations must be available where __________ are used.
a)
Bases
b)
Fluids
c)
Caustics or acids
d)
Power tools
79.
If a person is a qualified First Responder, what should they do when they see a serious injury?
a)
Dial 911 first, and then help the victim.
b)
Guide the ambulance crew to the victim.
c)
Dial 911 immediately and contact the safety office.
d)
Ask someone else to dial 911 and begin administering first aid.
80.
Tetanus is a possible result from __________.
a)
Puncture wounds from a nail
b)
Broken bones
c)
Second hand smoke
d)
Sprains
81.
When a workplace accident occurs, a(n) __________ should be called to provide first aid.
a)
Safety team leader
b)
Ambulance
c)
First responder
d)
Shift supervisor
82.
Who is responsible when effective communication cannot be established?
a)
The sending party
b)
The receiving party
c)
Both parties
d)
External noises
83.
Making assumptions about feelings, opinions, or motivations is a type of __________ that can hinder effective communication.
a)
Noise
b)
Brainstorm
c)
Encoding
d)
Filter
84.
Which of the following is an example of effective communication?
a)
Sticking to the point of the topic
b)
Leaving the Receiving party with few questions
c)
Using filler words or phrases in a message
d)
Frequently repeating talking points.
85.
A Receiver's __________ skill is extremely powerful and plays the greatest role in a successful communication process.
a)
Listening
b)
Language
c)
Feedback
d)
Transformation
86.
If a message seems negative, the Receiver should ask the Sender for __________.
a)
Cues
b)
Clarification
c)
Common Patterns
d)
Concerns
87.
The special responsibility of the Receiver is to avoid making __________.
a)
Preferences
b)
Assumptions
c)
Internal Filters
d)
Translation Errors
88.
What is the best way to respond to a disgruntled customer's phone call?
a)
Refer the customer to your immediate supervisor.
b)
Attempt to calm down the customer with positive body language.
c)
Remain courteous and respond to their concerns in a professional manner.
d)
Place the customer "on hold" until they are more reasonable.
89.
Which of the following gestures can be used to show that you are engaged and actively listening?
a)
Maintain eye contact with the speaker and lean forward..
b)
Avoid eye contact and lean back in your chair.
c)
Finish the speaker's sentences or ideas.
d)
Participate when it is your turn to speak.
90.
__________ communication is humankind's oldest and most preferred medium.
a)
Spoken
b)
Visual
c)
Written
d)
Electronic
91.
A(n) __________ is an example of both written and electronic communication.
a)
Instructional video
b)
Voicemail
c)
Email
d)
Teleconference
92.
Which of the following information is best conveyed using written communication?
a)
An established consensus within a work group
b)
A long list of names, dates, and addresses
c)
A complex emotional message on a controversial topic
d)
An urgent business presentation between multiple countries
93.
__________ involves all parties working out a process to reach a common goal.
a)
Collaboration
b)
Evaluation
c)
Preparation
d)
Assertion
94.
A(n) __________ is an organized production area that groups together all the different machines needed to make a group of parts
a)
Production group
b)
Manufacturing team
c)
Operation division
d)
Work cell
95.
Which of the following is a guideline that should be used for setting goals?
a)
Set only long-term goals.
b)
Do not set goals that are too specific.
c)
Goals should always be achievable.
d)
Do not evaluate progress too frequently.
96.
The first step of solving a problem is to __________.
a)
Propose solutions
b)
Determine the cause
c)
Work out the process
d)
Define the problem
97.
When assigning brainstorming responsibilities, the team should have a(n) __________.
a)
Facilitator
b)
Process table
c)
Data source
d)
Outline
98.
A(n) __________ is the fundamental problem that causes other problems to occur.
a)
Source problem
b)
Root cause
c)
Basis
d)
Basic problem
100 %
