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Worksheets

Lab Review 2

Total questions: 128

Worksheet time: 2hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the inputs (what goes in) of cellular respiration?

a)

amino acids

b)

carbon dioxide and water

c)

glucose (sugar) and oxygen

d)

adenosine triphosphate

2.

What are the products (what is made) of cellular respiration?

a)

Carbon dioxide, water, and ATP energy

b)

Water, glucose, and ATP energy

c)

Carbon dioxide, glucose, and ATP energy

d)

Oxygen, glucose, and ATP energy

3.

Which organelle is responsible for cellular respiration?

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria

c)

chloroplast

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

4.

What is the main purpose of cellular respiration?

a)

To break down glucose molecules

b)

To release carbon dioxide

c)

To produce energy for the cell

5.

What is the energy currency of cells produced during cellular respiration?

a)

ATP

b)

NADH

c)

GTP

d)

ADP

6.

What is photosynthesis?

a)

The process by which green plants and some other organisms use sunlight to synthesize water with the help of chlorophyll pigment, carbon dioxide, and oxygen.

b)

The process by which green plants and some other organisms use sunlight to synthesize oxygen with the help of chlorophyll pigment, carbon dioxide, and water.

c)

The process by which green plants and some other organisms use moonlight to synthesize foods with the help of chlorophyll pigment, carbon dioxide, and water.

d)

The process by which green plants and some other organisms use sunlight to synthesize foods with the help of chlorophyll pigment, carbon dioxide, and water.

7.

What are the two main reactants required for photosynthesis?

a)

oxygen and sunlight

b)

glucose and chlorophyll

c)

nitrogen and carbon dioxide

d)

carbon dioxide and water

8.

Which pigment is responsible for capturing sunlight in photosynthesis?

a)

melanin

b)

hemoglobin

c)

carotene

d)

chlorophyll

9.

What is the role of chlorophyll in photosynthesis?

a)

Chlorophyll provides structural support to plants.

b)

Chlorophyll absorbs carbon dioxide and releases oxygen.

c)

Chlorophyll captures light energy and converts it into chemical energy.

d)

Chlorophyll helps in the process of cell division.

10.

Cofactors involved in the electron transport chain

a)

NADH2, FADH

b)

NADH, FADH

c)

H, O2

d)

NADH, FADH2

11.

What macromolecule is the enzyme ATP synthase?

a)

protein

b)

carbohydrate

c)

lipid

d)

nucleic acid

12.

Cells can generate as many as 36 to 38 molecule of a ATP from the metabolism of one molecule of glucose. Which cellular process results in this amount of ATP production?

a)

Anaerobic cellular respiration

b)

protein synthesis

c)

aerobic cellular respiration

d)

photosynthesis

13.

Which of these statements best explains the process of energy conversion that takes place in the mitochondria?

a)

Energy is required for carbon dioxide molecules to form six-carbon sugar molecules.

b)

water molecules and radiant energy are necessary for anaerobic respiration to take place

c)

oxygen molecules release energy in the form of heat during combustion reactions

d)

The energy in the bonds of glucose molecules is transferred to the phosphate bonds in ATP.

14.

Cellular respiration involves an energy conversion. Which of the following represents the energy conversion that occurs during cellular respiration ?

a)

Light energy to chemical energy

b)

light energy to light energy

c)

chemical energy to light energy

d)

chemical energy to chemical energy

15.

A sprig of an Elodea plant was placed in a test tube and placed under a light source for several hours. After several hours, small bubbles appeared.


Which product is an example of the gas bubbles in the above reaction?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

hydrogen

c)

nitrogen

d)

oxygen

16.

The physical separation of mixtures of liquid components into individual components is..

a)

chromatography

b)

opacity

c)

latent

d)

trace evidence

17.
The Rf value  for the blue component is 
a)
0.3
b)
0.7
c)
10
d)
3
18.
The Rf value  for the red component is 
a)
0.3
b)
0.7
c)
10
d)
7
19.

In paper chromatography the paper is the _________ phase.

a)

stationary

b)

mobile

c)

solubility

d)

migratory

20.
What is one function of the other pigments  besides chlorophyll, in the chloroplast?
a)
to block damaging wavelengths of light
b)
to absorb different wavelengths than the chloroplasts
c)
to provide different colors to the leaves
d)
to transfer energy to a separate photosystem beside the one using chlorophyll a and b.
21.

________________ are red, orange, or yellow fat-soluble pigments found in all chloroplasts.

a)

carotenoids

b)

chlorophyll a

c)

chlorophyll b

d)

chlorophyll c

22.

Rf values are important because

a)

are variable for a molecule in a given solvent.

b)

are unique for a molecule in a given solvent.

23.

What technique are you going to use to extract pigments from the spinach and transfer them to the chromatography paper?

a)

ethanol extraction

b)

boiling spinach leaves in water

c)

rubbing over the spinach leaf with a coin

d)

gel electrophoresis

24.

Which of the following equations represents the overall chemical reaction for photosynthesis?

a)

6O2+ 6H2O → C6H12O6+ 6O2

b)

C6H12O6 + 6H2O→ 6O2+ 6O2

c)

6CO2+ 6H2O→ C6H12O6+ 6O2

d)

6O2 + 6H2O→ C6H12O6 + 6CO2

25.
The interior space of the chloroplast is called:
a)
Lamellae
b)
Grana
c)
Stroma
d)
Thylakoids
26.

Protein Synthesis, Photosynthesis, and other Biosynthetic pathways.

a)

Anabolic Pathways

b)

Catabolic Pathways

27.

The breakdown of glucose molecules to release energy.

a)

Anabolic Pathways

b)

Catabolic Pathways

28.

Independent Assortment and Crossing Over do what for the genetic variation of a species?

a)

increase the variation

b)

decrease the variation

c)

have no effect on the variation

29.

If a normal somatic cell has 40 chromosomes, how many would you expect to see after Mitosis?

a)

40

b)

80

c)

20

d)

0

30.

The 4 haploid cells are made during-

a)

mitosis I

b)

meiosis I

c)

mitosis II

d)

meiosis II

31.

When does crossing over occuring during meiosis?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

32.
When an area of a chromatid is exchanged with the matching area on a chromatid of its homologous chromosome, _________________ occurs
a)
crossing over
b)
mutagenesis
c)
hybridization
d)
fertilization
33.
The stages of mitosis in order
a)
Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase
b)
Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase
c)
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
d)
Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase
34.
What phase of mitosis is occuring in the picture?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Cytokinesis
d)
Telophase
35.

Which row indicates the correct process for each event indicated

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

36.

Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra chromosome in the body cells of humans. This extra chromosome occurs in a gamete as a result of:

a)

an error in the process of cloning

b)

an error in meiotic cell division

c)

a gene mutation

d)

replication of a single chromosome during mitosis

37.

One difference between cell division in plant cells and animal cells (zoom in the picture)

a)

centrioles form in plant cells but not in animal cells

b)

plants form a cell plate between daughter cells but animal do not

c)

a double nucleus forms in the animal cell but not in the plant cell

d)

more cytoplasm form in the animal cells than in plant cells

38.

Which part of the structure is represented by arrow 2:

a)

centriole

b)

centrosome

c)

centromere

d)

chromatid

39.

Which part of the structure is represented by arrow 4:

a)

chromatid

b)

chromosome

c)

autosome

d)

allele

40.

Which of the following distinguishes prophase 1 of meiosis from prophase of mitosis?

a)

homologous chromosomes

pair up

b)

spindle forms

c)

nuclear membrane breaks down

d)

chromosomes become visible

41.

Which of the following phases is the cell labeled “4” above currently in?

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase

e)

telophase

42.

which of the following phases is the cell marked 5 currently in?

a)

prophase

b)

anaphase

c)

telophase

d)

metaphase

e)

cytokinesis

43.

Place the images in the correct order showing how a cell progresses through mitosis...

a)

b)

c)

d)

1)
2)
3)
4)
44.

place the steps of the cell cycle in order in the table.

a)G1
b)S (synthesis)
c)G2
d)Prophase
e)Metaphase
f)Anaphase
g)Telophase
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
45.

A photomicrograph of onion root tip cells is shown.

Which phase of mitosis is occurring in the cell indicated by the arrow?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

46.

Oncogenes are mutated forms of genes. Oncogenes can transform a cell into a tumor cell. Some tumor cells are benign, while others are malignant. How does the presence of an oncogene lead to the formation of a tumor?

a)

ATP Production is inhibited.

b)

Cell division is unregulated.

c)

Somatic cell growth is inhibited.

d)

Antibody Activity is unregulated.

47.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
48.
______________ is the type of reproduction that involves 1 parent, and performs exact DNA replication? During this type of reproduction, there is no fertilization. Also, cells undergo the cell division called mitosis during this type of reproduction.
a)
asexual reproduciton
b)
sexual reproduction
c)
binary fission
d)
sporulation
49.
As we already know, bacteria reproduce very rapidly under certain environmental conditions. What is the method within which bacteria undergo asexual reproduction?
a)
Budding - asexual reproduction in which a new organism develops as an outgrowth of the parent. The new organism, called the bud, is a tiny duplicate of the parent organism. In budding, the nucleus divides equally and the cytoplasm divides unequally.
b)
Regeneration by Fragmentation - type of asexual reproduction where the organism fragments a piece of itself off. In turn, the fragment reproduces an identical creature. Examples are flatworms and starfish 
c)
Binary Fission - type of asexual reproduction where the parent organism divides equally in half reproducing identical offspring
d)
Sporulation - cells that contain a nucleus and a small amount of cytoplasm. Spores are surrounded by tough protective coats that enable them to survive unfavorable conditions, such as extreme heat or cold, for long periods of time. When environmental conditions become favorable, each spore can develop and produce by releasing spores.
50.
During the late 1800's, oyster fishermen were having a problem with starfish eating most of the oyster population. As a result, the fishermen "cut apart" the starfish. Why would this be a "bad" idea?
a)
Starfish reproduce by budding, within which the starfish grew back and wiped out most of the oyster population.
b)
Starfish reproduce by binary fission, within which the starfish grew back and wiped out most of the oyster population
c)
Starfish reproduce by sporulation, within which the starfish grew back and wiped out most of the oyster population
d)
Starfish reproduce by regeneration by fragmentation, within which the starfish grew back and wiped out most of the oyster population.
51.

Select all of the following that are blood types

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AC

d)

AB

e)

O

52.

What are the two possible Genotypes for a person who has blood type A

a)

IA IA

b)

IB IB

c)

IA iO

d)

A

53.

A father has type O blood, the mother has type AB blood. What percent of their offspring will have type O blood?

a)

100%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

0%

54.

A mother is heterozygous for type B blood. What is her genotype?

a)

IB IB

b)

IA iO

c)

IB iO

d)

IA IB

55.

A woman inherited ​​IB from one parent and io from the other. She is ​​ ​ (a)   for Type ​ ​ (b)   blood.

Choose from the below words
heterozygous
B
D
AB
A
O
homozygous
isozygous
56.
What is suspect 3's ABO Blood Type?
a)
A
b)
AB
c)
B
d)
O
57.
What is the ABO type?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
AB
d)
O
58.
In which row of the chart would agglutination most likely occur?
a)

Row 1

b)

Row 2

c)

Row 3

d)

Row 4

59.
What is suspect 2's ABO Blood Type?
a)
AB
b)
O
c)
B
d)
A
60.

Which sample is O+

a)
b)
c)
d)
61.

The trait this pedigree traces is recessive because it skips a generation and individuals can be carriers. What is the most likely genotype for person III-3?

a)

GG

b)

Gg

c)

gg

62.

If this pedigree shows a recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual 4 be?

a)

HH

b)

Hh

c)

hh

63.
Is this trait (the shaded individuals) dominant or recessive?
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
64.
pedigreeWhat type of heredity is shown in the pedigree?
a)
Cannot tell
b)
Sex-Linked
c)
Autosomal Dominant
d)
Autosomal Recessive 
65.
What type of heredity is shown in the pedigree?
a)
Sex-Linked Dominant
b)
Sex-Linked Recessive
c)
Autosomal Dominant
d)
Autosomal Recessive 
66.
What is the mode of inheritance shown here?
a)
Autosomal Dominant
b)
Autosomal Recessive
c)
Sex Linked Recessive
67.
If this image were real, it would represent what type of inheritance?
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
codominance
c)
polygenic inheritance
d)
compete dominance
68.
A red flowered plant (RR) breeds with a White flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance.  What percentage of the offspring will have pink (RW) flowers?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
69.
A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co dominance
c)
Independent assortment
d)
Recessive inheritance
70.
In butterfly bushes, dark purple and pink parents will produce offspring with lavender flowers. This is a result of 
a)
codominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
complete dominance
d)
recessive dominance
71.
Why do we squish the strawberry well for a few minutes?
a)
to break the nuclear membrane
b)
to break the cell walls
c)
to dissolve the nuclear  membrane
d)
to isolate the DNA from the nucleus
72.
Why do we add detergent or soap to the squished strawberries?
a)
to break up the cell walls
b)
to dissolve the nuclear membrane
c)
to clean the strawberry
d)
to isolate the DNA
73.
Why do we add alcohol to the solution of detergent and strawberries?
a)
To break up the cell wall
b)
To destroy the nuclear membrane
c)
To isolate the DNA which is repelled by alcohol
d)
To isolate the DNA, which dissolves in alcohol
74.
What layers must be breached to access the DNA?
a)
cell membrane, nuclear membrane  and cell wall
b)
Cell Wall only
c)
mitochondria
d)
ribosomes
75.

DNA is needed in living things to:

a)

Code for proteins

b)

Direct all cell activities

c)

Pass on genes to offspring

d)

All the above

76.

What is transformation?

a)

The use of viruses to transform or genetically


engineer cells.

b)

The measure of how well cells are transformed in a new phenotype.

c)

The insertion of a foreign plasmid into a bacterial cell which results in new acquired traits.

d)

Genetic engineering or transformation of mammalian cells.

77.

Bacterial media containing ampicillin is inoculated with the E coli bacteria that contains ampicillin resistant gene. The bacteria will;

a)

Grow on the agar plate

b)

Will not grow on the agar plate.

c)

will only grow after the plate has been incubated at 45C

d)

will only grow after the plate has been placed on ice.

78.

Bacterial DNA that is often circular or in the shape of a ring is called a:

a)

Clone

b)

Plasmid

c)

Fragment

d)

Recombinant DNA

79.
Which of the following best describes the role of primers?
a)
Frame the beginning and end of the target sequence
b)
Copy the DNA 
c)
Cause DNA strands to separate
d)
Heat the sample
80.

What was added to the PCR tube in the correct sequence?

a)

extracted DNA, primer 1, primer 2, nucleotides, DNA polymerase

b)

primer 1, primer 2, extracted DNA, nucleotides, DNA polymerase

c)

DNA polymerase, nucleotides, primer 1, primer 2, extracted DNA

d)

nucleotides, DNA polymerase, extracted DNA, primer 1, primer 2

81.
Why do the fragments of DNA in gel electrophoresis travel away from the negative electrode?
a)
DNA is negatively charged so attracted to the positive end of the unit
b)
DNA is positively charged to attracted to the negative end of the unit
c)
the agarose gel in negatively charged
d)
the agarose gel is positively charged
82.
Which suspect is likely guilty?
a)
Suspect #1
b)
Suspect #2
c)
Suspect #3
83.

What is competency for a cell?

a)

The insertion of a formed plasmid into the cell.

b)

The chemical process of switching the gene.

c)

Super coiled molecules formed in the plasmid of the cell.

d)

Change in the structure and permeability of the cell membrane.

84.

Cells are made competent by;

a)

The incubation of the bacteria at 95C

b)

A process that uses calcium chloride.

c)

A process that uses GFP

d)

A process that uses polymerases

85.

Heat shock

a)

Trap the plasmids inside the cell.

b)

Enlarges the pores of the cell.

c)

Provides for the death of the cell.

d)

Increases the disintegration of the cell wall.

86.

LB containing ampicillin (2nd plate) is inoculated with the E. coli bacteria that contains ampicillin resistant gene. The bacteria will;

a)

Grow on the agar plate

b)

Will not grow on the agar plate.

c)

will only grow after the plate has been incubated at 45C

d)

will only grow after the plate has been placed in a warm water bath for 2 minutes.

87.

Observe the results above. What gene is present in the engineered plasmid?

a)

kanamycin resistant gene

b)

ampicillin resistant gene

c)

tetracycline resistant gene

d)

No plasmid is necessary to grow on plate 3.

88.

Which of the following is the best explanation for the fragment pattern for individual X ?

a)

She has only one member of this chromosome pair.

b)

She has only one living parent.

c)

She is homozygous for this particular DNA fragment.

d)

She is the mother’s child but has a different father than the other children.

89.

In a transformation experiment, a sample of E. coli bacteria was mixed with a plasmid containing the gene for resistance to the antibiotic ampicillin (ampr). Plasmid was not added to a second sample. Samples were plated on nutrient agar plates, some of which were supplemented with the antibiotic ampicillin. The shaded area represents extensive growth of bacteria; dots represent individual colonies of bacteria.

Plates that have only ampicillin-resistant bacteria growing include which of the following?

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

IV only

d)

I and III

90.

Which of the following best explains why there is no growth on plate II?

a)

The initial E. coli culture was not ampicillin-resistant.

b)

The transformation procedure killed the bacteria.

c)

Nutrient agar inhibits E. coli growth.

d)

The bacteria on the plate were transformed.

91.

Which of the following statements best explains why there are fewer colonies on plate IV than on plate III?

a)

Plate IV is the positive control.

b)

Not all E. coli cells are successfully transformed.

c)

The bacteria on plate III did not mutate.

d)

The plasmid inhibits E. coli growth.

92.
What is the name of the plasmid we used for lab?
a)
GFP
b)
bla
c)
araC
d)
pGLO
93.
 What was used to cut the plasmid to enable us to insert the desired gene?
a)
ligase
b)
restriction enzymes
c)
GFP
d)
pGLO
94.
Which plate had bacterial growth and bacterial GLOWth?
a)
LB
b)
LB/Amp
c)
LB/Amp/Ara
d)
All
95.
What is used to ensure the bacteria transformed with the gene for antiobiotic resistance as only the transformed bacteria will grow on this medium?
a)
ampicillan
b)
arabinose
c)
LB
d)
GFP
96.
Which gene is responsible for "turning on" the glow?
a)
bla
b)
ARAc
c)
GFP
d)
LB
97.
Why do you not add plasmid to the -pGlo tube?
a)
The plasmid was already added to the -pGlo tube before
b)
Instructions are wrong; you should add the plasmid in to the - tube
c)
The -pGlo tube is a control, with bacteria but no plasmid
98.

What is the purpose of PCR?

a)

To produce millions of copies of the DNA genome

b)

To produce millions of copies of a specific region of DNA

c)

To add nucleotides to a DNA sequence

d)

To watch polymerase work.

99.

What does PCR stand for?

a)

Polymerase Cytoplasmic Reaction

b)

Polymerase Chromosomal Reaction

c)

Polymerase Chain Reaction

d)

Probably Cannot React

100.

What happens in the denature step of PCR?

a)

The DNA nucleotides are broken apart.

b)

The base-pairing rules for DNA are reversed.

c)

The double-stranded DNA is separated into two single strands of DNA.

d)

The DNA is returned to its natural setting.

101.

At what temperature does the denature step of PCR occur?

a)

94-96° C

b)

50-65° C

c)

72° C

d)

Any temperature

102.

At what temperature does the anneal step of PCR occur?

a)

94-96° C

b)

40-60° C

c)

72° C

d)

Any temperature

103.

At what temperature does the extension step of PCR occur?

a)

94-96°C

b)

50-65°C

c)

72°C

d)

Any temperature

104.

Which is NOT as use of PCR?

a)

Cloning

b)

Paternity Testing

c)

Genotyping

d)

DNA Profiling

e)

Protein synthesis

105.

What is the purpose of x-tract buffer in PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) procedure?

a)

To amplify DNA fragments

b)

To increase the specificity of DNA amplification

c)

To facilitate denaturation of DNA

d)

Help extract DNA from cheek cells

106.

What is the purpose of the Heat Block step at 10 minutes @ 95 degrees Celsius in PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) procedure?

a)

To cool down the reaction mixture before the next step

b)

break open cells - release DNA into solution

c)

To activate the DNA polymerase enzyme

d)

To denature the DNA into single strands

107.

What is the function of Taq DNA Polymerase in the PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) procedure?

a)

Initiates the PCR reaction by denaturing the DNA template

b)

Adds primers to the DNA template for replication

c)

Facilitates the annealing of primers to the DNA template

d)

Catalyzes building complimentary strand during DNA synthesis (+ has a high heat capacity)

108.

What is the function of PCR Buffer with Mg(^2) in the PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) procedure?

a)

Enhances enzyme activity and optimizes stability of primer template

b)

Maintains the optimal pH for enzyme activity

c)

Provides the necessary nucleotides for DNA synthesis

d)

Facilitates the annealing of primers to the DNA template

109.

What is the function of Gel loading dye in the PCR Master Mix?

a)

Provides additional charge to DNA molecules for better separation

b)

Stains the DNA to be seen for gel electrophoresis

c)

Adjusts the pH of the gel matrix

d)

Cuts the DNA to make bands

110.

What is the function of PTC Primer Mix in PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) procedure?

a)

Increases the specificity of RNA amplification

b)

Facilitates denaturation of DNA strands

c)

Enhances the stability of the DNA template

d)

Contains complementary sequences to the target region for amplification

111.

What is the function of denaturation in PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) procedure

a)

Breaks hydrogen bonds to form single-stranded genes

b)

Increases the stability of the DNA template

c)

Facilitates the annealing of primers to the DNA template

d)

Finishes the PCR reaction by bonding with the DNA template

112.

What is the function of annealing in PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) procedure?

a)

Increases the temperature to denature the DNA template

b)

Promotes the elongation of the DNA strand

c)

Decreases temperature so primers attach to the template

d)

Facilitates the binding of DNA polymerase to the template strand

113.

What is the purpose of conducting 30 cycles in the PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) procedure?

a)

To ensure complete denaturation of the DNA template

b)

To optimize the binding of primers to the DNA template

c)

To amplify the DNA to billions of copies

d)

To stabilize the DNA strands for subsequent analysis

114.

Match the following:

a)

Temperature of Denaturing

1.

95° C

b)

Temperature of Annealing

2.

55° C

c)

Temperature of Extension

3.

72° C

115.

Label the components of a PCR reaction

a)

Helicase

b)

Primase

c)

dNTPs

d)

MgCl2

e)

Buffer

f)

Target sequence

g)

Primers

h)

Thermocycler

i)

Taq polymerase

j)

Human DNA polymerase

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
116.

Plasmid makes bacteria resistant to ampicillin and able to synthesize the green glow protein. Which plate will have highest percent of growth?

a)

Plate with nutrients and no ampicillin present

b)

Plate with ampicillin and nutrient present

117.

In fruit flies, eye color is a sex linked trait. Red (R) is dominant to white (r). What is the sex and eye color of flies with the following genotype: X R X r ?

a)

male with white eyes

b)

female with red eyes

c)

male with red eyes

d)

female with white eyes

118.

In fruit flies, eye color is a sex linked trait. Red (R) is dominant to white (r). What is the sex and eye color of flies with the following genotype: X R Y ?

a)

male with white eyes

b)

female with white eyes

c)

male with red eyes

d)

female with red eyes

119.

In fruit flies, eye color is a sex linked trait. Red is dominant to white. What is the sex and eye color of flies with the following genotype: X R X R ?

a)

male with red eyes

b)

female with red eyes

c)

male with white eyes

d)

female with white eyes

120.

Discuss the importance of using a DNA ladder in gel electrophoresis.

a)

It helps in staining the DNA

b)

It provides a reference for estimating the size of DNA fragments

c)

It speeds up the electrophoresis process

d)

It prevents DNA degradation

121.

What is the role of Chelex in isolating DNA?

a)
Chelex helps to isolate DNA by binding metal ions that can degrade it, thus protecting the DNA during extraction.
b)
Chelex is used to amplify DNA during PCR.
c)
Chelex acts as a buffer to stabilize DNA samples.
d)
Chelex is a type of enzyme that digests DNA.
122.
Organisms that contain genes from a different organism are called - 
a)
Transgenic
b)
Recombinant
c)
Cloned
d)
Restricted
123.

Which restriction enzymes from above make blunt cuts? (2)

a)

Alul

b)

HaeIII

c)

BamHI

d)

HindIII

e)

EcoRI

124.

Label the correct steps of the LYTIC CYCLE.

a)Lysis
b)Assembly
c)Synthesis
d)Injection
e)Attachment
1
2
3
4
5
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
125.

Label the Virus with the correct parts.

a)Nucleic Acid
b)Capsid
c)Envelope
1
2
3
1)
2)
3)
126.

What is the purpose of labeling microcentrifuge tubes with "0.1", "0.01", and "0.001" in the experiment described?

a)

To indicate the volume of PBS added

b)

To indicate the dilution factor of the samples you are preparing

c)

To indicate the concentration of the patient sample

d)

To indicate the temperature at which the experiment should be conducted

127.

What is the main objective of performing a viral plaque assay in Module I?

a)

To determine the pH level of the sample

b)

To measure the size of bacteria

c)

To quantify the amount of virus in a sample

d)

To test the effectiveness of antibiotics

128.
A(n) _____ is a virus that enters a bacterial cell.
a)
endospore
b)
decomposer
c)
plasmid
d)
bacteriophage

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