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Glycolysis Quiz

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 11hrs 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary purpose of glycolysis?

a)

To synthesize glucose from pyruvate

b)

To degrade glucose into pyruvate, producing ATP and NADH

c)

To convert pyruvate into lactose

d)

To break down proteins into amino acids

2.

What happens to most of the energy during glycolysis?

a)

It is released as heat

b)

It is stored in the pyruvate molecules

c)

It is converted into NADH and released as H+ ions

d)

It is used to form glucose

3.

What is the initial substrate for glycolysis?

a)

Pyruvate

b)

Oxaloacetate

c)

Glucose

d)

None of the above

4.

According to the equation of glycolysis, what are the net products of one glucose molecule?

a)

2 NADH, 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, 2 H₂O, 4 H⁺

b)

2 NAD⁺, 2 pyruvate, 2 ADP, 2 H₂O

c)

2 NADH, 2 pyruvate, 4 ATP, 2 H⁺

d)

2 NAD⁺, 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, 4 H₂O

5.

What is the main purpose of the irreversible phosphorylation of glucose by hexokinase?

a)

To allow glucose to diffuse out of the cell

b)

To trap glucose as glucose 6-phosphate inside the cell

c)

To break down glucose into pyruvate

d)

To produce ATP directly

6.

In which step of glycolysis is the first ATP molecule produced?

a)

Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate by hexokinase

b)

Conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate by phosphofructokinase-1

c)

Conversion of 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate by phosphoglycerate kinase

d)

Conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate by pyruvate kinase

7.

Hexokinase is one of the regulatory enzymes in glycolysis. Which of the following are also regulatory enzymes in this pathway?

a)

Phosphofructokinase and pyruvate kinase

b)

Aldolase and enolase

c)

Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase

d)

Triose phosphate isomerase

8.

During the conversion of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate in glycolysis, what is the source of the added phosphate group?

a)

ATP

b)

GTP

c)

Inorganic phosphate (Pi)

d)

FAD

9.

How does glucose-6-phosphate (Glu-6P) affect hexokinase and glucokinase?

a)

It inhibits both enzymes

b)

It inhibits hexokinase but not glucokinase

c)

It inhibits glucokinase but not hexokinase

d)

It activates both enzymes

10.

What is the name of the enzyme that catalyzes the irreversible phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate in glycolysis?

a)

Hexokinase

b)

Glucokinase

c)

Phosphofructokinase (PFK-1)

d)

Pyruvate kinase

11.

Which enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in glycolysis?

a)

Hexokinase

b)

Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)

c)

Pyruvate kinase

d)

Enolase

12.

Which enzyme catalyzes the oxidation of glyceraldehyde into 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate in glycolysis?

a)

Phosphofructokinase (PFK-1)

b)

Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase

c)

Pyruvate kinase

d)

Hexokinase

13.

Which molecule acts as an allosteric activator of phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)?

a)

ATP

b)

Citrate

c)

AMP

d)

Acetyl-CoA

14.

Which of the following molecules inhibits phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)?

a)

AMP

b)

Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate

c)

ATP

d)

ADP

15.

On which carbon of 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate is the high-energy phosphoryl group located, and why is it significant?

a)

Carbon 2, because it activates the enzyme

b)

Carbon 1, because it conserves much of the free energy of oxidation

c)

Carbon 3, because it prevents oxidation

d)

Carbon 4, because it inhibits glycolysis

16.

In the reaction catalyzed by phosphoglycerate kinase, where 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate donates a phosphate to ADP, which phosphate group is transferred?

a)

Phosphate on carbon 1 (C1)

b)

Phosphate on carbon 2 (C2)

c)

Phosphate on carbon 3 (C3)

d)

Phosphate on carbon 6 (C6)

17.

The conversion of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate in glycolysis is classified as which type of reaction?

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Oxidation-reduction

c)

Dehydration

d)

Decarboxylation

18.

Which enzyme catalyzes the conversion of PEP to pyruvate in glycolysis?

a)

Phosphofructokinase (PFK-1)

b)

Pyruvate kinase

c)

Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase

d)

Hexokinase

19.

What is the product of the carboxylation of pyruvate?

a)

Glucose-6-phosphate

b)

Oxaloacetate

c)

Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate

d)

1,3-bisphosphoglycerate

20.

Which enzyme mediates the carboxylation of pyruvate into oxaloacetate?

a)

Pyruvate kinase

b)

Phosphofructokinase (PFK-1)

c)

Pyruvate carboxylase

d)

Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase

21.

Where does the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate occur?

a)

Cytosol

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Nucleus

22.

How many ATP molecules are produced from each NADH during aerobic glycolysis via the respiratory chain system?

a)

1 ATP

b)

2 ATP

c)

3 ATP

d)

4 ATP

23.

What is the total number of ATP molecules yielded from one glucose molecule in aerobic glycolysis?

a)

2 ATP

b)

6 ATP

c)

8 ATP

d)

10 ATP

24.

In which organ does gluconeogenesis primarily occur?

a)

Muscle

b)

Liver

c)

Brain

d)

Heart

25.

In which cellular compartment are both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis processes located?

a)

Cytosol

b)

Mitochondrial matrix

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Plasma membrane

26.

What is the starting material for gluconeogenesis?

a)

Pyruvate

b)

Oxaloacetate

c)

Glucose-6-phosphate

d)

Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate

27.

During gluconeogenesis, which molecule provides the additional carbon atom when pyruvate is converted to oxaloacetate?

a)

Carbon dioxide (CO₂)

b)

Ethylene glycol

c)

Acetyl-CoA

d)

Bicarbonate (HCO₃⁻)

28.

Which cofactor is required by pyruvate carboxylase?

a)

Iron

b)

Biotin

c)

Zinc

d)

Magnesium

29.

Which enzyme catalyzes the conversion of oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) in gluconeogenesis?

a)

Pyruvate kinase

b)

PEP carboxykinase (PEPCK)

c)

Pyruvate carboxylase

d)

Malate dehydrogenase

30.

Acetyl-CoA acts as an allosteric activator for which enzyme?

a)

Pyruvate kinase

b)

Pyruvate carboxylase

c)

Hexokinase

d)

Phosphofructokinase-2

31.

Which of the following is not a major regulatory enzyme in glycolysis?

a)

Hexokinase

b)

Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)

c)

Pyruvate kinase

d)

Phosphoglycerate kinase

32.

In what form can oxaloacetate be transported out of the mitochondria?

a)

Pyruvate

b)

Malate

c)

Lactate

d)

Acetaldehyde

33.

How is the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex inactivated?

a)

Phosphorylation

b)

Dephosphorylation

c)

Low NADH/NAD⁺ ratio

d)

Low acetyl-CoA levels

34.

In the Cori cycle, which molecule is transported from muscle to the liver?

a)

Pyruvate

b)

Lactate

c)

Glycerol

d)

Alanine

35.

Why can acetyl-CoA not give rise to a net synthesis of glucose?

a)

Because it is reversible in the citric acid cycle

b)

Because of the irreversible nature of pyruvate dehydrogenase that converts pyruvate to acetyl-CoA

c)

Because acetyl-CoA is directly converted to glucose

d)

Because it lacks the necessary enzymes

36.

The reaction catalyzed by the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is reversible, allowing acetyl-CoA to be converted back into pyruvate.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Pyruvate dehydrogenase is a part of the citric acid cycle.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

A decrease in fructose-2,6-bisphosphate levels results in which of the following?

a)

Activation of phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)

b)

Activation of fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase (FBPase)

c)

Activation of glycolysis

d)

Increased ATP consumption

39.

The citric acid cycle contains a series of oxidation-reduction reactions.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Oxygen is used in the citric acid cycle.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Which enzyme in the citric acid cycle catalyzes the production of FADH₂?

a)

Isocitrate dehydrogenase

b)

α-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex

c)

Succinate dehydrogenase

d)

Malate dehydrogenase

42.

Which citric acid cycle enzyme produces GTP during its reaction?

a)

Succinyl-CoA synthetase

b)

Citrate synthase

c)

Aconitase

d)

Malate dehydrogenase

43.

Approximately how many ATP molecules are produced from the complete oxidation of two glucose molecules in aerobic respiration?

a)

60

b)

62

c)

66

d)

76

e)

78

44.

Which citric acid cycle intermediate is directly involved in the production of fatty acids and sterols?

a)

Succinyl-CoA

b)

Citrate

c)

Oxaloacetate

d)

Malate

45.

In the citric acid cycle, α-ketoglutarate serves as a precursor for the synthesis of which molecules?

a)

Fatty acids and sterols

b)

Purines and pyrimidines

c)

Heme and porphyrins

d)

Glutamate and other amino acids

46.

Is muscle glycogen unaffected by short periods of fasting?

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Which enzyme is responsible for creating branches in glycogen?

a)

Glycogen phosphorylase

b)

Glycogen synthase

c)

Amylo-(1,4→1,6)-transglycosylase

d)

Debranching enzyme

48.

What is the source of glycosyl residues added to the growing glycogen chain during glycogenesis?

a)

Glucose-6-phosphate

b)

α-D-glucose

c)

UDP-glucose

d)

Glucose-1-phosphate

49.

In glycogen synthesis, which amino acid in glycogenin provides the initial hydroxyl group for glucose attachment?

a)

Serine

b)

Tyrosine

c)

Threonine

d)

Alanine

50.

What is the role of glycogenin in glycogen synthesis?

a)

It acts as an enzyme to degrade glycogen

b)

It serves as a primer to initiate glycogen synthesis

c)

It transports glucose into the cell

d)

It phosphorylates glucose-6-phosphate

51.

When glycogen phosphorylase reaches approximately four residues before a branch point, what is the resulting structure called?

a)

Limit dextrin

b)

Glycogen core

c)

Glycogen primer

d)

Branching polymer

52.

What molecule is produced by the action of glycogen phosphorylase?

a)

Free glucose

b)

Glucose-1-phosphate

c)

Glucose-6-phosphate

d)

Both A and B

53.

What molecule is produced by the action of amylo-α(1,6)-glucosidase?

a)

Glucose-1-phosphate

b)

Free glucose

c)

Glucose-6-phosphate

d)

None of the above

54.

Which molecule is represented by the structure provided?

a)

FAD

b)

FMN

c)

NAD⁺

d)

NADPH

55.

What is the final electron acceptor in oxidative phosphorylation?

a)

NAD⁺

b)

FAD

c)

Oxygen (O₂)

d)

Coenzyme Q (ubiquinone)

56.

Which complexes in the electron transport chain function as proton pumps?

a)

Complexes I, III, and IV

b)

Complexes I, II, and III

c)

Complexes II, III, and IV

d)

Complex II only

57.

What is the prosthetic group that receives electrons from NADH in Complex I?

a)

FAD

b)

FMN

c)

NADH

d)

Heme

58.

Which enzyme catalyzes the formation of FADH₂ in the citric acid cycle?

a)

Isocitrate dehydrogenase

b)

Succinate dehydrogenase (complex II)

c)

Fumarase

d)

Malate dehydrogenase

59.

How many protons (H⁺) are pumped from the mitochondrial matrix to the intermembrane space during the complete passage of electrons from one NADH molecule through the electron transport chain?

a)

6 protons

b)

8 protons

c)

10 protons

d)

12 protons

60.

How many ATP molecules are generated from the oxidative phosphorylation of three NADH molecules?

a)

6 ATP

b)

7 ATP

c)

9 ATP

d)

12 ATP

61.

What type of molecule is QH₂ in the context of the electron transport chain?

a)

A hydrophilic quinone

b)

A hydrophobic quinone

c)

A hydrophilic cytochrome

d)

A hydrophobic proton

62.

Which complexes are directly involved in the electron transfer mediated by the QH₂ shuttle?

a)

Complex I and complex II

b)

Complex I and complex III

c)

Complex III and complex IV

d)

Complex II and complex IV

63.

Complex II (succinate dehydrogenase) is an integral protein in the mitochondrial inner membrane.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

In the electron transport chain, electrons flow from ubiquinol to which molecule through cytochrome reductase?

a)

Cytochrome c

b)

NADH

c)

FADH₂

d)

Oxygen

65.

What is the primary role of pumping 4 H⁺ ions to the inter-membrane space?

a)

To synthesize ATP via the ATP synthase

b)

To directly produce NADH

c)

To oxidize cytochrome c

d)

To reduce oxygen to water

66.

In the context of cytochrome oxidase, what is the role of CuA and CuB?

a)

They act as substrates for ATP synthesis

b)

They serve as prosthetic groups

c)

They transport protons across the membrane

d)

They inhibit electron flow

67.

According to the chemiosmotic hypothesis, what drives the phosphorylation of ADP into ATP?

a)

The direct oxidation of NADH

b)

The proton gradient across the mitochondrial membrane

c)

The reduction of oxygen to water

d)

The breakdown of glucose in glycolysis

68.

Which of the following categories does the molecule in the previous image belong to?

a)

Triacylglycerols

b)

Phospholipids

c)

Glycolipids

d)

Sphingolipids

69.

Which of the following categories does the molecule in the previous image belong to?

a)

Triacylglycerols

b)

Phospholipids

c)

Glycolipids

d)

Sphingolipids

70.

Triacylglycerols are totally non-polar.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Triacylgcerols with a higher percentage of unsaturated fatty acids are classified as fats.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Phospholipids are amphipathic molecules.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

What is the parent compound for many glycerophospholipids?

a)

Sphingosine

b)

Ceramide

c)

Phosphatidic acid

d)

Glycerol

74.

Which of the following correctly describes this fatty acid?

a)

16 carbons, 1 double bond, Omega-9

b)

18 carbons, 0 double bonds, Omega-9

c)

18 carbons, 2 double bond, Omega-6

d)

18 carbons, 2double bond, Omega-9

75.

Based on the chemical structure provided, which of the following accurately describes this fatty acid?

a)

16 carbons, 1 double bond, Omega-7

b)

18 carbons, 1 double bond, Omega-9

c)

18 carbons, 2 double bonds, Omega-6

d)

16 carbons, 0 double bonds, Omega-9

76.

Unsaturated fatty acids have higher melting points than saturated fatty acids.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Carbon/carbon double bonds are stable as Cis isomers.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Which of the following eicosanoids is involved in renal vasodilation?

a)

Thromboxanes

b)

Leukotrienes

c)

Prostaglandins

d)

All of the above

79.

Following a tissue injury, which eicosanoid plays a key role in vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation?

a)

Prostaglandins

b)

Thromboxanes

c)

Leukotrienes

d)

All of the above

80.

Leukotrienes are primarily involved in which of the following?

a)

Vasodilation and decreased inflammation

b)

Bronchodilation and vasoconstriction

c)

Bronchoconstriction, vasoconstriction, and inflammation

d)

Increased gastric secretion and bronchodilation

81.

Which type of membrane transport is depicted in the image for the hydrated solute?

a)

Active transport

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Simple diffusion

d)

Osmosis

82.

Which type of membrane transport is depicted in the image for the hydrated solute?

a)

Active transport

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Simple diffusion

d)

Osmosis

83.

Does the plasma membrane of mitochondria contain more lipids than proteins?

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Which transport system allows the movement of a single substance in one direction?

a)

Symport

b)

Antiport

c)

Uniport

d)

None of the systems allow this.

85.

True or False: A deficiency in Vitamin D3 can lead to defective bone formation and Rickets disease.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

What is the structure shown in the provided figure?

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin E

d)

Vitamin C

87.

HDL is a high-density lipoprotein that carries excess cholesterol from tissues to the liver.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

What characterizes the steroid nucleus?

a)

It consists of five fused rings with varying carbon atoms.

b)

It consists of four fused rings, three with 6 carbon atoms and one with 5 carbon atoms.

c)

It is composed of only non-polar rings with no specific structure.

d)

It has a single ring with 6 carbon atoms.

89.

Dietary fats are absorbed in the small intestine.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

emulsification increases the surface area of lipid droplets.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Which pancreatic enzyme is primarily responsible for the degradation of triglycerides (T.G) in the small intestine?

a)

Phospholipase A2

b)

Pancreatic lipase

c)

Cholesterol esterase

d)

Lyso-phospholipase

92.

Why can glycerol not be metabolized by adipocytes?

a)

Lack of glycerol kinase

b)

Absence of glycerol-3-phosphate

c)

Insufficient ATP levels

d)

Lack of transport proteins

93.

Glycerol can be metabolized by adipocytes.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

Where is glycerol released from adipocytes transported for metabolism?

a)

Muscle tissue

b)

Liver

c)

Pancreas

d)

Kidney

95.

What is the primary metabolic outcome of increased epinephrine and glucagon in adipocytes during low blood glucose conditions?

a)

Increased glucose uptake

b)

Enhanced lipogenesis

c)

Increased hydrolysis of triglycerides to release fatty acids

d)

Decreased energy mobilization

96.

Bile salts are synthesized from which of the following in the body?

a)

Pancreas

b)

Liver

c)

Gallbladder

d)

Small intestine

97.

The formation of micelles plays what role in the digestion of lipids?

a)

Decreases the surface area of lipids exposed to enzymes

b)

Makes lipids insoluble in water

c)

Increases the surface area of lipids exposed to water-soluble enzymes

d)

Inhibits the action of fat-digesting enzymes

98.

A 24-carbon fatty acid undergoes complete β-oxidation. How many molecules of acetyl-CoA, NADH, FADH2 are produced, and how many cycles of β-oxidation occur?

a)

12 acetyl-CoA, 11 NADH, 11 FADH2, 11 cycles

b)

11 acetyl-CoA, 12 NADH, 12 FADH2, 12 cycles

c)

12 acetyl-CoA, 11 NADH, 11 FADH2, 11 cycles

d)

13 acetyl-CoA, 12 NADH, 12 FADH2, 12 cycles

99.

How many net ATP molecules are produced from the complete β-oxidation and citric acid cycle metabolism of a 16-carbon fatty acid?

a)

126 ATP

b)

128 ATP

c)

129 ATP

d)

132 ATP

100.

What are the final products of β-oxidation of an odd-chain fatty acid?

a)

Only acetyl-CoA

b)

Only propionyl-CoA

c)

Propionyl-CoA and acetyl-CoA

d)

Pyruvate and acetyl-CoA

101.

What is the role of malonyl-CoA in fatty acid metabolism?

a)

Stimulates β-oxidation

b)

Converts fatty acids to glucose

c)

Inhibits carnitine acyltransferase I

d)

Activates thiolase

102.

Under which metabolic condition is the oxidation of fatty acids typically inhibited?

a)

When there is an excess of carbohydrates and glucose.

b)

When the levels of acetyl-CoA are low.

c)

When the NADH/NAD+ ratio is low.

d)

When the body needs more energy.

103.

A high concentration of acetyl-CoA directly inhibits which enzyme in the β-oxidation pathway?

a)

Thiolase

b)

β-hydroxyacyl CoA dehydrogenase

c)

Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase

d)

Enoyl-CoA hydratase

104.

If glucose is not readily available, the brain can use acetoacetate and β-hydroxybutyrate as alternative fuels.

a)

True

b)

False

105.

Ketone bodies can be used as a fuel source by the heart, skeletal muscles, and kidney.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

Large quantities of acetoacetate production, which can occur in untreated diabetes or starvation, can result in an increased amount of acetone and a characteristic odor on the breath.

a)

True

b)

False

107.

Which of the following is a direct product of the breakdown of acetoacetate and β-hydroxybutyrate that then feeds into the citric acid cycle?

a)

Acetyl-CoA

b)

Pyruvate

c)

Lactate

d)

Oxaloacetate

108.

Acetoacetate and β-hydroxybutyrate are converted into how many molecules of acetyl-CoA?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

109.

During starvation, why is acetyl-CoA diverted away from the citric acid cycle?

a)

High insulin levels

b)

Accumulation of NADH

c)

Depletion of oxaloacetate due to gluconeogenesis

d)

Inhibition of ketone body enzymes

110.

What condition results from the accelerated production of ketone bodies in diabetes?

a)

High blood pH (alkalosis).

b)

Low blood pH (ketoacidosis or ketosis).

c)

High blood glucose levels (hyperglycemia).

d)

Low blood glucose levels (hypoglycemia).

111.

Bases from two adjacent DNA strands can form covalent bonds.

a)

True

b)

False

112.

The hydrogen bonding between adenine and thymine is stronger than the hydrogen bonding between guanine and cytosine.

a)

True

b)

False

113.

Nucleotides in DNA are linked together by hydrogen bonds.

a)

True

b)

False

114.

Packaging into chromatin is considered the tertiary (3°) structure of DNA.

a)

True

b)

False

115.

Based on the graph, which form of DNA absorbs more UV light at 260 nm?

a)

Double-helical DNA

b)

Single-stranded DNA

c)

Both absorb equally

d)

Neither absorbs significantly at this wavelength

116.

which DNA sequence has the highest melting temperature (Tm)?

a)

Poly (AT)

b)

Naturally occurring DNA with A/T and G/C base pairs

c)

Poly (GC)

d)

All three have the same melting temperature

117.

Starting with one double-stranded DNA molecule, how many DNA molecules will be present after 5 rounds of replication?

a)

5

b)

10

c)

25

d)

32

118.

Which enzyme is represented by the X?

Xهنا على حسب ما الدكتور هتحط حرف ال

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Primase

c)

Transcriptase

d)

Ligase

119.

Which enzyme is responsible for removing RNA primers and replacing them with DNA?

a)

DNA polymerase I

b)

DNA polymerase II

c)

DNA polymerase III

d)

None of the above

120.

Is the synthesis of complementary DNA in the 5' to 3' direction catalyzed by DNA polymerase III?

a)

True

b)

False

121.

Given a DNA template strand with the sequence 3'-CGT ATC GGA-5', what is the corresponding mRNA sequence?

a)

5'-CGT ATC GGA-3'

b)

5'-GCA TAG CCT-3'

c)

5'-GCU UAG CCG-3'

d)

5'-GCA UAG CCU-3'

122.

Are exons the nucleotide sequences that do not code for proteins?

a)

True

b)

False

123.

A point mutation changes the mRNA codon GAA to GAG. What type of mutation is this?

a)

Missense mutation

b)

Nonsense mutation

c)

Silent mutation

d)

Frameshift mutation

124.

Based on the provided genetic code table, how many amino acids are encoded by the mRNA sequence 5'-AUG GCA UUU-3'?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

125.

If a messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule is composed of precisely twenty-one nucleotide building blocks, how many amino acid units will it direct the assembly of during the process of protein synthesis?

a)

7

b)

21

c)

3

d)

8

126.

Given an anticodon sequence on a transfer RNA (tRNA) molecule of 5'-CAA-3', which specific amino acid would be attached to this tRNA,?

a)

Isoleucine

b)

Leucine

c)

Lysine

d)

Glutamine

127.

Hexokinase in the muscle is allosterically inhibited by ATP.

a)

T

b)

F

128.

Hexokinase in the brain is allosterically inhibited by ATP.

a)

T

b)

F

129.

Gluconeogenesis is simply the reverse of glycolysis.

a)

T

b)

F

130.

The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is located in the mitochondria

a)

T

b)

F

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11th Grade - University

BIODIVERSITY

130 questions

BIODIVERSITY

quiz

Worksheet

•

University