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Milady Medical Focus ADV 2025

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Why should estheticians have a basic understanding of frequently used medications and the potential side effects these medications may have on the skin?

a)

in order to identify skin conditions related to medication

b)

diagnosing medical conditions is one of the esthetician’s responsibilities

c)

prescribing medication is one of the esthetician’s responsibilities

d)

estheticians regularly administer medications during treatments

2.

What is the name of the formal process a drug manufacturer must go through when asking the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to approve a new drug?

a)

Investigational New Drug (IND) application

b)

New Drug Application (NDA)

c)

Abbreviated New Drug Application (ANDA)

d)

Biologics License Application (BLA)

3.

What are drug manufacturers seeking by going through the NDA process?

a)

permission to legally market a drug in the United States

b)

an endorsement recommending that consumers purchase a drug

c)

the removal of competing drugs from the marketplace

d)

permission to legally market a drug anywhere in the world

4.

An over-the-counter (OTC) medication is defined as:

a)

A medication that requires a prescription from a doctor

b)

the medication is safe to use without medical supervision

c)

A medication that is only available in hospitals

d)

the medication contains only organic ingredients

5.

What is true of cosmetics?

a)

they require FDA approval before becoming available for sale

b)

they are treated as over-the-counter (OTC) medications

c)

cosmetics are not regulated by the FDA

d)

the FDA monitors reformulations once they are on the market

6.

What is a fungal infection that affects the internal organs?

a)

toxic epidermal necrolysis

b)

systemic mycosis

c)

subcutaneous mycosis

d)

opportunistic mycosis

7.

What section of a prescription contains the date of the prescription and patient information?

a)

Superscription

b)

Inscription

c)

Subscription

d)

Signature

8.

What drug would be prescribed to reduce fine wrinkles and hyperpigmentation?

a)

Renova

b)

Retin-A

c)

Lamisil

d)

Lidocaine

9.

What is an OTC drug commonly taken for pain relief?

a)

Motrin

b)

Imodium

c)

Zantac

d)

Tums

10.

What section of a prescription includes such data as the name and quality of the medication to be dispensed?

a)

Superscription

b)

Inscription

c)

Subscription

d)

Signature

11.

What drug would be prescribed to increase turnover of follicular cells?

a)

Lidocaine

b)

Retin-A

c)

Lamisil

d)

Renova

12.

What OTC drug commonly taken to relieve indigestion has no known side effects?

a)

Imodium

b)

Acetaminophen

c)

Tums

d)

Ibuprofen

13.

What section of a prescription contains dispensing directions to the pharmacist?

a)

Superscription

b)

Inscription

c)

Subscription

d)

Signature

14.

What drug would be prescribed for treatment of Tinea infections?

a)

Renova

b)

Retin-A

c)

Lamisil

d)

Lidocaine

15.

What OTC drug is commonly taken for acid reflux and has the possible side effects of itching and rashes?

a)

Motrin

b)

Imodium

c)

Zantac

d)

Acetaminophen

16.

What section of a prescription includes directions to the patient, such as how often to take the medication?

a)

subscription

b)

inscription

c)

superscription

d)

signature section

17.

What drug would be prescribed to relieve pain related to arthritis?

a)

Lidocaine

b)

Lamisil

c)

Retin-A

d)

Renova

18.

What OTC drug is commonly taken to treat minor diarrhea and has the possible side effects of itching and rashes?

a)

Imodium

b)

Tums

c)

Zantac

d)

Motrin

19.

What is a fungal infection occurring below the skin?

a)

Tinea pedis

b)

Subcutaneous mycosis

c)

Candidiasis

d)

Superficial mycosis

20.

What is NOT among the common side effects of oral contraceptives?

a)

puffy face

b)

oily skin

c)

hirsutism

d)

acne

21.

What heart condition is defined as temporary restriction in normal blood flow?

a)

hypertension

b)

myocardial ischemia

c)

acute coronary syndrome

d)

angina

22.

What class of drugs is used to prevent or limit the severity of spastic activity resulting from certain neurological conditions?

a)

antiemetics

b)

antithrombotics

c)

anticonvulsants

d)

anticholinergies

23.

What group of people are at the greatest risk for osteoporosis?

a)

people of African descent

b)

larger-sized women

c)

postmenopausal women

d)

young men

24.

What heart condition is defined as high blood pressure?

a)

angina

b)

hypertension

c)

acute coronary syndrome

d)

myocardial ischemia

25.

What class of drugs is used to prevent or limit the severity of symptoms of nausea and vomiting?

a)

antithrombotics

b)

anticonvulsants

c)

antiemetics

d)

anticholinergies

26.

What body size poses the greatest risk for developing osteoporosis?

a)

slight-sized

b)

larger-sized

c)

shorter

d)

taller

27.

What heart condition is defined as chest pain resulting from limited blood flow?

a)

acute coronary syndrome

b)

angina

c)

hypertension

d)

myocardial ischemia

28.

What class of drugs is used to dissolve blood clots?

a)

anticholinergies

b)

antiemetics

c)

antithrombotics

d)

anticonvulsants

29.

What ethnic backgrounds pose the greatest risk for osteoporosis?

a)

Caucasian and Asian

b)

African and Middle Eastern

c)

Latin and Middle Eastern

d)

African and Asian

30.

What heart condition is defined as chest pain resulting from lack of oxygen to the heart?

a)

angina

b)

acute coronary syndrome

c)

hypertension

d)

myocardial ischemia

31.

What class of drugs is used to limit spasms and cramping, particularly of the digestive and urinary tracts?

a)

anticholinergies

b)

antithrombotics

c)

antiemetics

d)

anticonvulsants

32.

What step of the scientific method involves presenting an explanation that documents the results of testing?

a)

hypothesis

b)

conclusion

c)

experimentation

d)

observation

33.

What should you do if you suspect a client is experiencing an allergic reaction to a medication?

a)

recommend an alternative medication for the client

b)

refer the client to a physician, who can diagnose and treat the issue

c)

tell the client to immediately stop taking the medication

d)

administer an antidote from the salon’s dispensary

34.

What is a fungal infection caused by fungi invading via breaks in the skin or abnormal immunity?

a)

systemic mycosis

b)

opportunistic mycosis

c)

subcutaneous mycosis

d)

toxic epidermal necrolysis

35.

What is a life-threatening skin disorder?

a)

toxic epidermal necrolysis

b)

opportunistic mycosis

c)

subcutaneous mycosis

d)

systemic mycosis

36.

What term refers to a facelift?

a)

abdominoplasty

b)

blepharoplasty

c)

rhytidectomy

d)

hypothesis

37.

What are injectable materials, such as Juvederm and Restylane, that are used with wrinkles and depressions?

a)

soft tissue fillers

b)

neurotoxins

c)

placebos

d)

control groups

38.

What are used for relaxing muscles and reducing wrinkles, as in Botox Cosmetic?

a)

soft tissue fillers

b)

placebos

c)

control groups

d)

neurotoxins

39.

\What are substances that appears similar to, but not the same as, the substance given to the experimental group during research?

a)

control groups

b)

soft tissue fillers

c)

placebos

d)

neurotoxins

40.

What term refers to a philosophy of reasoning that is based on first generating and then testing a hypothesis?

a)

deductive reasoning

b)

scientific method

c)

product development

d)

product analysis

41.

What does the “S” stand for in the acronym SOAP, which refers to a protocol for charting patient information in medical settings?

a)

Subjective

b)

Safety

c)

Severity

d)

Superior

42.

What group of participants in a research study receives a placebo instead of the factor being tested, in order to provide a comparison for testing efficacy of the product?

a)

control group

b)

research group

c)

experimental group

d)

study group

43.

What term refers to the type of treatments and services one can perform under license?

a)

scope of practice

b)

area of expertise

c)

job description

d)

level of expertise

44.

What term describes a physician who specializes in elective surgical procedures, such as eyelifts, facelifts, and tummy tucks?

a)

cosmetic plastic surgeon

b)

reconstructive surgeon

c)

medical esthetician

d)

dermatologist

45.

What term describes a physician who specializes in and treats disease of the skin, hair, and nails?

a)

medical esthetician

b)

dermatologist

c)

cosmetic plastic surgeon

d)

reconstructive surgeon

46.

What term has no legal value and misrepresents the technician’s license?

a)

medical esthetician

b)

cosmetic plastic surgeon

c)

dermatologist

d)

reconstructive surgeon

47.

What step of the scientific method involves study of the issue in question?

a)

observation

b)

hypothesis

c)

experimentation

d)

conclusion

48.

What does the “O” stand for in the acronym SOAP, which refers to a protocol for charting patient information?

a)

Objective

b)

Operation

c)

Observation

d)

Obligation

49.

What statement about the relationship between estheticians and physicians is NOT true?

a)

work by estheticians complements the work of physicians

b)

estheticians play a supportive role in client consultation

c)

estheticians play the leading role in client consultation and education

d)

the work of estheticians adds real value to medical practices

50.

What license is an esthetician seeking work in a medical practice expected to have?

a)

emergency medical technician license

b)

nursing license

c)

esthetician license

d)

medical license

51.

What requirements in some states can interfere with the esthetician’s ability to operate under his or her own esthetic license in a medical practice?

a)

apprenticeship requirements

b)

confidentiality requirements

c)

ethical requirements

d)

workplace-safety requirements

52.

What action can bring serious legal consequences?

a)

performing treatments or services beyond your scope of practice

b)

providing pre-surgical esthetic care without a medical license

c)

performing esthetic services without managerial supervision

d)

providing post-surgical esthetic care without a medical license

53.

What term describes a physician who specializes in medically necessary procedures that correct abnormalities associated with such things as birth defects and accidents?

a)

reconstructive surgeon

b)

dermatologist

c)

cosmetic plastic surgeon

d)

medical esthetician

54.

What should you do if you are caught between the requirements of your job description and the scope of your license?

a)

seek advice from qualified professionals

b)

immediately quit your job

c)

perform whatever is asked of you

d)

immediately report your supervisor to state authorities

55.

What did the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) develop to protect individuals with regard to obtaining information about their health in a medical setting?

a)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

b)

Insurance Accessibility and Disclosure Act (IADA)

c)

Medical Practice Insurance Information System (MPIS)

d)

Patient Information and Medical Data System (PIMDS)

56.

What term refers to an eyelift?

a)

rhytidectomy

b)

abdominoplasty

c)

hypothesis

d)

blepharoplasty

57.

What does the “A” stand for in the acronym SOAP, which refers to a protocol for charting patient information?

a)

Admittance

b)

Appraisal

c)

Assessment

d)

Authority

58.

What group of participants in a research study receives the factor, such as a new medication or product, that is being tested?

a)

experimental group

b)

study group

c)

research group

d)

control group

59.

What step of the scientific method involves forming an educated guess?

a)

hypothesis

b)

conclusion

c)

observation

d)

experimentation

60.

What term refers to evidence based on observation and theory rather than scientific experimentation?

a)

anecdotal evidence

b)

observational evidence

c)

empirical evidence

d)

intuitive evidence

61.

What is a title reserved for physicians who have taken and passed the exam required for board certification in their respective specialties?

a)

board certified

b)

Doctor of Medicine

c)

Master of Science

d)

specialty certified

62.

What is a medical facility that offers medical esthetic procedures and traditional spa or esthetic services in a spalike setting?

a)

medical spa

b)

esthetic medical retreat

c)

medical esthetic facility

d)

esthetic spa

63.

What is NOT a tool for achieving success in a work situation?

a)

learning not to take things personally

b)

showing up every day with a good attitude

c)

engaging in conflict with your coworkers

d)

leave with the feeling that you have done your best

64.

Why might working in a medical setting be a bad fit for someone who prefers autonomy?

a)

workers in medical settings are filmed 24/7 by security cameras

b)

medical practices often adhere to a strict top-down hierarchy

c)

medical settings are ideal workplaces for those who prefer autonomy

d)

medical workers are never allowed to work without direct supervision

65.

What term refers to a “tummy tuck”?

a)

abdominoplasty

b)

hypothesis

c)

blepharoplasty

d)

blepharoplasty

66.

What step of the scientific method involves proving or disproving your educated guess?

a)

hypothesis

b)

observation

c)

experimentation

d)

conclusion

67.

What does the “P” stand for in the acronym SOAP, which refers to a protocol for charting patient information?

a)

Precaution

b)

Plan

c)

Preparation

d)

Protocol

68.

What can understanding of the basics of working in a medical setting prepare you for if you need to communicate with a physician about a client?

a)

dealing with office etiquette and legalities

b)

learning how to select and prescribe medications

c)

learning how to formulate and share medical diagnoses

d)

preparing for and performing surgical procedures

69.

What is paramount to success in working in a medical facility?

a)

understanding the hierarchy in a medical office

b)

being able to fill in for the a physician when he or she is busy

c)

persuading clients to purchase the most expensive services available

d)

ignoring your scope of practice to help get the job done

70.

What step of the scientific method involves presenting an explanation that documents the results of testing?

a)

hypothesis

b)

conclusion

c)

experimentation

d)

observation

71.

What term refers to an abnormal reaction and hypersensitivity to topical or oral substances that are ordinarily harmless?

a)

allergic reaction

b)

chain reaction

c)

chemical reaction

d)

knee-jerk reaction

72.

What is a wide-spectrum antibiotic that is derived from erythromycin?

a)

Zithromax Z Pak

b)

Famvir

c)

Arnica montana

d)

Aquaphor

73.

What term refers to an increase of new collagen deposits within the dermis caused by thermal heating from a laser system?

a)

collagen depositing

b)

collagen remodeling

c)

collagen shrinkage

d)

collagen shrinkage

74.

What term refers to thermal heating from a laser beam that can break down the collagen bonds and structures?

a)

collagen withdrawal

b)

collagen shrinkage

c)

collagen remodeling

d)

collagen depositing

75.

What important task does the esthetician perform prior to an ablative laser procedure?

a)

getting the skin into the best possible condition

b)

prescribing antibiotics

c)

minimizing the risk of infection

d)

diagnosing the medical condition requiring treatment

76.

Who supervises the work of estheticians before and after medical procedures?

a)

salon manager

b)

state board member

c)

medical office manager

d)

physician

77.

What does your scope of practice as an esthetician allow you to recommend?

a)

surgical procedures

b)

medical treatments

c)

therapeutic products for home care

d)

prescription medications

78.

What term refers to a procedure that disrupts the epidermis and possibly the dermis?

a)

ablative

b)

esthetic

c)

allergic

d)

epidermal

79.

What is the optimal amount of time prior to surgery for you to begin a treatment plan that will improve the overall outcome?

a)

eight days

b)

eight hours

c)

eight weeks

d)

eight months

80.

What is NOT an example of an in-medical office treatment?

a)

superficial chemical peel

b)

microdermabrasion

c)

laser resurfacing

d)

ultrasonic treatment

81.

How can you help a client who is nervous about an upcoming procedure and has a difficult time concentrating on detailed information?

a)

advise the doctor that the client will require additional sedation

b)

offer nonsurgical options that will deliver the same results

c)

send the client home with written information

d)

recommend they postpone the procedure until they feel better

82.

What is NOT an example of a superficial chemical peel?

a)

paraffin wax

b)

Jessner’s solution

c)

beta hydroxy acid (BHA)

d)

alpha hydroxy acid (AHA)

83.

How long before a peel should the client stop using home care AHAs, retinoic acids or scrubs?

a)

one to two days

b)

six to nine days

c)

15 to 20 days

d)

one to three months

84.

What is an alternative to chemical peels that estheticians can perform, especially on strong, oily, thick skin that has had extreme sun exposure?

a)

microdermabrasion

b)

laser resurfacing

c)

collagen remodeling

d)

collagen shrinkage

85.

What is the gentlest enzyme used in enzyme peels?

a)

papain

b)

bromelain

c)

typsin

d)

pancreatin