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11. Design Competency Based Assessment_v1

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What does assessment involve?
a)
Collecting evidence
b)
Making judgments
c)
Checking competency
d)
All of the above
2.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a Competency-Based Assessment (CBA)?
a)
It is evidence-based.
b)
It focuses on the capacity to perform workplace activities to industry standards.
c)
It uses norm-referenced assessment criteria.
d)
Evidence of competency may be collected over a period of time.
3.
Why is understanding the context of assessment important?
a)
It determines the scoring method for the assessment
b)
The specific environment or setting where the assessment takes place
c)
It helps select the participants for the assessment
d)
It eliminates the need for evaluation criteria
4.
How can diagnostic assessment be used in education and training?
a)
To determine students' final grades
b)
To help identify educational and training needs
c)
To track attendance
d)
To assign group projects
5.
What is the purpose of Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) in competency-based education and training?
a)
To assess and recognize new learning experiences only
b)
To recognize competencies gained through formal or informal learning and experiences
c)
To eliminate the need for any future learning or training
d)
To focus solely on formal qualifications and certifications
6.
Which of the following is essential for ensuring that an assessment is valid?
a)
Assessors must make judgments based on subjective opinions.
b)
Performance or assessment criteria must be ambiguous and open to interpretation.
c)
There should be a clear alignment between assessment criteria and the units or elements of competency, including skills, knowledge, and attitudes.
d)
The focus of the assessment should only be on theoretical knowledge without any practical components.
7.
What is a key characteristic of a reliable assessment?
a)
It is influenced by the personal biases of the assessor.
b)
It produces consistent results across different candidates, assessors, and situations.
c)
It changes its methods based on the candidate’s background.
d)
It measures only one specific skill at a time, regardless of context.
8.
What makes an assessment flexible?
a)
It only evaluates theoretical knowledge
b)
It is appropriate to the range of knowledge, skills, attitudes, delivery modes, locations, and candidate needs
c)
It focuses solely on practical skills
d)
It is standardized for all candidates
9.
Which of the following ensures fairness in assessments?
a)
Assessments that only consider academic performance.
b)
Assessments that are accessible to everyone, regardless of personal factors.
c)
Assessments that are based on geographical location.
d)
Assessments that focus on language proficiency
10.
What is the primary purpose of formative assessment in training?
a)
To evaluate learners' final competency after training
b)
To provide feedback that supports learning and progress toward competency
c)
To compare learners' performance with one another
d)
To certify learners as competent in a specific skill
11.
When is formative assessment typically conducted?
a)
At the beginning of training
b)
At the end of training
c)
Throughout the training period
d)
After competency has been achieved
12.
What is the primary purpose of summative assessment?
a)
To identify areas for improvement during training
b)
To determine whether a trainee has reached competency or achieved learning outcomes
c)
To provide feedback for continuous development
d)
To evaluate the overall effectiveness of the training program
13.
The integrated approach to assessment design focuses on combining which of the following?
a)
Only problem-solving skills
b)
Knowledge, skills, and attitudes
c)
Technical skills only
d)
Knowledge and understanding only
14.
What is one of the benefits of clustering competencies for assessment?
a)
It provides less evidence for each competency dimension
b)
It reflects real ways of working
c)
It requires more time and resources for assessment
d)
It isolates each competency dimension
15.
Which is not include in Holistic Assessment?
a)
Knowledge
b)
Problem Solving
c)
Cost Effectiveness
d)
Ethics
16.
Which one of the following is not context of Assessment may include-
a)
Physical environment & social environment
b)
Relationship between units of competency
c)
Outline the assessment procedure
d)
Time period over which assessment
17.
Which assessment principle refers to consistently interpreted assessment outcomes.
a)
Validity
b)
Fairness
c)
Flexibility
d)
Reliability
18.
What should be accessible to all candidates to ensure fairness in the assessment process?
a)
Hidden assessment procedures
b)
Limited challenge opportunities
c)
Challenges and appeals
d)
Restricted feedback with limited appeals
19.
What should be available for trainees dissatisfied with an assessment decision?
a)
No any opportunity for appeal
b)
An appeal process accessible to them
c)
Limited access to assessment feedback
d)
Request for additional assessment tools
20.
Which of the following is NOT typically covered under legal and ethical requirements in a workplace setting?
a)
Occupational Health and Safety (OHS) policies and procedures
b)
Industry-specific legislation and regulations
c)
Environmental issues and regulations
d)
Personal performance and productivity measures
21.
Which of the following is NOT a key factor for analyzing competency standards to determine evidence?
a)
Bangladesh BNQF level descriptors
b)
Language literacy and numeracy levels
c)
Workplace environmental policies
d)
Dimensions of competency
22.
What is Direct Evidence in the context of assessment?
a)
Evidence that is obtained from secondary sources or hearsay
b)
Evidence that can be observed or witnessed directly by the Assessor
c)
Evidence that is documented but not directly observed
d)
Evidence based on assumptions or inferences
23.
Which of the following are considered examples of direct evidence when assessing a candidate?
a)
Written reports from the candidate
b)
Observations by the assessor of the candidate performing activities
c)
Feedback from peers of the candidate
d)
Reviewing historical data of the candidate's work performance
24.
What is "Indirect Evidence"?
a)
Evidence that directly shows the candidate’s actions
b)
Evidence that can be reviewed
c)
Evidence that cannot be examined
d)
Evidence that is only based on opinions
25.
Which of the following is considered indirect evidence when assessing finished products?
a)
Direct observation of the product's performance
b)
Written test to determine underpinning knowledge
c)
On-the-job demonstration of skills
d)
Practical application of knowledge in a real-world scenario
26.
What does “Sufficiency of evidence” means?
a)
Collecting evidence once in a single situation
b)
Using multiple methods of assessment to ensure sufficient evidence
c)
Ensuring the evidence is more than three years’ old
d)
Obtaining only one type of evidence
27.
Which of the following is NOT a requirement when collecting evidence for a unit of competency?
a)
All performance criteria
b)
Essential skills and knowledge
c)
Only the range statement
d)
All elements
28.
What does "authenticity" mean in assessment?
a)
The work must be created by the person being assessed.
b)
The work can be copied from someone else.
c)
The work must be checked by an expert.
d)
The work should be based on ideas from the assessor.
29.
What is the key principle of sufficiency when collecting evidence to assess a person's competence?
a)
Collecting evidence only once in a single situation.
b)
Using only one method of assessment to gather evidence.
c)
Ensuring evidence is collected multiple times, in different situations, and using various methods to assess all parts of the competency standard.
d)
Relying solely on the personal judgment of the assessor.
30.
Which of the following is NOT a common assessment method?
a)
Written Test
b)
Oral Questioning
c)
On the job observation checklist
d)
Portfolio
31.
Which one of the following is not evidence gathering tool-
a)
On the job observation
b)
On the job Observation Checklist
c)
List of questions and response sheet
d)
Task observation checklist
32.
In this assessment method, the candidate trainee is asked to perform a task under actual or simulated conditions. It may end with a product?
a)
Demonstration
b)
On the Job Observation
c)
Role Play
d)
Oral Questioning
33.
Which of the following is NOT a Evidence Gathering Tools?
a)
Short test questions
b)
Oral Questioning
c)
On the job observation checklist
d)
Portfolio evaluation checklist
34.
Which is one of the following is a direct evidence gathering tools?
a)
Previous project work
b)
Observation checklist
c)
Demonstration
d)
Third party report
35.
Which of the following is NOT a key responsibility of an assessment designer?
a)
Understanding the TVET environment
b)
Being proficient in competency-based assessment systems
c)
Developing training materials for learners
d)
Ensuring clarity on assessment validation processes
36.
What is the primary purpose of an assessment plan?
a)
To document student progress and attendance
b)
To provide a structured guide for assessors, including purpose, methods, and resources
c)
To outline disciplinary actions for learners who fail assessments
d)
To replace the need for practical assessments in competency-based training
37.
Who is responsible for developing an assessment plan?
a)
The learners
b)
The trainers
c)
The assessment designer
d)
The institution administrator
38.
Which of the following is NOT typically included in an assessment plan?
a)
Purpose and aims of assessment
b)
Context of assessment
c)
Personal opinions of the assessor
d)
Relevant benchmarks for assessment
39.
What is the primary purpose of an Assessment Planning Matrix?
a)
To track student attendance and participation
b)
To map elements and performance criteria against suitable assessment methods
c)
To replace traditional grading systems with self-assessments
d)
To provide a list of topics for classroom discussions
40.
Which of the following is NOT a common method of gathering evidence in assessment?
a)
Multiple observations of the candidate by the assessor
b)
Demonstration of specific skills needed to complete the task
c)
Guessing the candidate’s abilities based on assumptions
d)
Oral questioning of the candidate
41.
What is the primary purpose of evidence-gathering tools in the assessment process?
a)
To challenge the candidate’s understanding of complex concepts
b)
To provide a focus for the assessor and help candidates understand expectations
c)
To replace practical assessments with written tests
d)
To eliminate the need for assessor judgment
42.
What does an assessment tool include?
a)
Only the instrument
b)
Only the instructions
c)
Both the instrument and the instructions
d)
None of the above
43.
What is a recommended tool for identifying tools, equipment and material requirement in assessment?
a)
Assessment schedule on
b)
Assessment plan
c)
Assessment Resources checklist
d)
Assessment feedback form for tools, equipment and material
44.
How does an observation checklist benefit assessors during an assessment?
a)
It allows assessors to focus on one task at a time
b)
It helps assessors randomly evaluate candidates
c)
It helps assessors consistently track performance on specific tasks
d)
It replaces the need for verbal feedback to candidates
45.
When is oral questioning typically used in assessments?
a)
To verify observations
b)
To check underpinning knowledge
c)
To explore dimensions of competency, such as contingency skills and problem-solving
d)
All of the above
46.
What is the purpose of a portfolio in a professional context?
a)
To showcase personal achievements
b)
To present evidence of competence for a job or task
c)
To display creative work only
d)
To record the timeline of a project
47.
What could be included in a portfolio of evidence?
a)
Only training certificates
b)
Job descriptions and references from colleagues/employers
c)
Work journal, awards, and photos/videos
d)
All of the above
48.
Why is establishing the context of assessment important? Select the best option.
a)
To control the candidate’s performance
b)
To ensure that the assessment process occurs as expected
c)
To limit the candidate’s access to resources (Tools & Equipment)
d)
To increase and ensure the observability of the assessment
49.
What does the process of assessment primarily involve?
a)
Identifying areas for improvement and providing feedback.
b)
Collecting evidence and making judgments on whether competency has been achieved.
c)
Monitoring progress and setting future goals.
d)
Conducting training sessions to improve skills.
50.
When is summative assessment typically conducted in a training program?
a)
At the beginning of the training
b)
At the end of the training period
c)
During the training process
d)
Before the training begins