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PM GRAND FINALE

Total questions: 142

Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The project manager realizes two additional workers are needed for a project. Which stakeholder would the project manager work with to gain budget and resources for the project?
a)
Executives
b)
Project Sponsor
c)
Operations
d)
Sales and Marketing
2.
Who would the project manager work with to hire new personnel or contractors to fill an open position to meet resourcing needs?
a)
Human Resources
b)
IT
c)
Sales and Marketing
d)
Legal
3.
Which of the following terms describes a set of project‑management guidelines, best practices, and processes that make project management more effective within cost, scope, and time constraints?
a)
Project Management Body of Knowledge(PMBOK)
b)
Project Management Knowledge of Body(PMKOB)
c)
Project Management Professional
d)
Project Management Body of Knowledge
4.
Which of the following terms best describes a project‑management methodology that addresses the inflexibility of waterfall’s long and strict project phases by having short development sprints?
a)
Agile methodology
b)
Lean
c)
Six Sigma
d)
Critical Path
5.
Which project methodology is focused on minimizing the waste of resources and time?
a)
Agile
b)
Lean
c)
Critical Path
d)
Six Sigma
6.
Which of the following terms describes a trend in project management that includes traits such as emotional intelligence, conflict resolution, communication, negotiation, and mentoring?
a)
Artificial intelligence
b)
Hybrid teams
c)
Remote teams
d)
Soft skills
7.
Which of the following terms describes traditional project management?
a)
Automated management
b)
Flexible
c)
Sequential
d)
Remote and hybrid teams
8.
As a project manager, you will need to estimate how long tasks should take to create a project plan and help team members manage due dates. Which soft skill best describes this project‑management skill?
a)
Building relationships
b)
Communication
c)
Negotiation
d)
Time management
9.
As a project manager, you will keep up with many small parts of a project, like spreadsheets, project‑tracking software, and detailed plans. What trait best describes the ability to oversee all of these components in a project?
a)
Problem solving
b)
Detail oriented
c)
Curious
d)
Motivational
10.
What skill is a project manager using when they ask clarifying questions to understand better how to solve an issue blocking progress on a deliverable?
a)
Communication
b)
Leadership
c)
Trust Building
d)
Motivation
11.
What skill is a project manager using when resolving a problem between two teams to keep the project on track?
a)
Inspire
b)
Conflict Management
c)
Trust Building
d)
Leadership
12.
A project manager uses project‑management software that tracks risks and issues and provides a dashboard to communicate project status with all stakeholders. Which phase in the project‑management lifecycle would the project manager use this software in?
a)
Project planning
b)
Post‑project evaluation
c)
Project closing
d)
Project monitoring and reporting
13.
A project manager meets with the development team, product owner, and stakeholders to review the work that was completed during the sprint. What type of meeting is this?
a)
Stand‑up
b)
Sprint retrospective
c)
Project status meeting
d)
Sprint review
14.
A project manager meets with project stakeholders to share updates and answer any concerns that the stakeholders have. What type of meeting is this?
a)
Sprint retrospective
b)
Project status meeting
c)
Stand‑up
d)
Sprint review
15.
Which of the following careers is considered the most senior‑level position in project management?
a)
Senior project manager
b)
Project team lead
c)
Director of project management
d)
Scrum master
16.
Which of the following are specialized skills that you will need as a project manager unique to the finance industry?
a)
Financial analysis, budgeting, and forecasting
b)
Development of web apps and portals
c)
Risk management, process integration, QA, procurement
d)
Technical knowledge and business acumen for planning
17.
Which of the following is a responsibility of an IT project manager that overlaps with the responsibilities of a non‑IT project manager?
a)
Conceptual understanding of API integrations
b)
Identifying gaps, following governance, optimizing process
c)
Familiarity with object‑oriented analysis and design
d)
Establishing safe practices and secure configurations
18.
Which of the following describes the types of skills that include the ability to lead a team and overcome challenges the team comes across while working on a project?
a)
Technical skills
b)
Managerial skills
c)
Leadership skills
d)
Business skills
19.
Which of the following is a career path that can be described as strategically managing several projects, analyzing the business benefits of a program, and managing multiple project dependencies?
a)
Senior executive
b)
Project coordinator
c)
Program manager
d)
Portfolio manager
20.
You have been tasked with creating a social‑media campaign on one social‑media channel for a new product that a company is launching in two months. Which of the following terms best describes this initiative?
a)
A program
b)
A project
c)
A portfolio
d)
A sketch
21.
Which of the following terms best describes modern project management?
a)
Predictable cycles
b)
Sequential
c)
Flexible
d)
Linear planning
22.
As a project manager, you must communicate with internal teams and stakeholders in a respectful and inclusive way. Which soft skill best describes this project‑management skill?
a)
Negotiation
b)
Building relationships
c)
Conflict resolution
d)
Mentoring
23.
A project manager meets with the internal team at the end of a sprint to review processes, planning, communication, and collaboration during the sprint. Which of the following types of meetings is this?
a)
Sprint retrospective
b)
Sprint review
c)
Stand‑up
d)
Project status meeting
24.
A project manager facilitates regular meetings with stakeholders, keeps detailed agendas and notes, and shares a dashboard with the project’s status. Which phase in the project‑management lifecycle would this dashboard be necessary?
a)
Initiation
b)
Planning
c)
Project monitoring and reporting
d)
Closing
25.
Which of the following is a senior‑level career that can provide strategic direction for a company’s projects by defining how those projects fit into the business’s strategy and goals?
a)
Project coordinator
b)
Program manager
c)
Director of project management
d)
Project scheduler
26.
The Waterfall approach relies on phases such as _____.
a)
Designing, coding, and testing
b)
Visualization, work in progress, tracking flow
c)
Pair negotiations, unit testing, simplicity
d)
Planning poker, story mapping, refinement
27.
Which answer describes a core principle of Kanban?
a)
Push work to the next phase as fast as possible
b)
Visualize the Work, Limit the WIP, Focus on Flow, and Continuous Improvement
c)
Organize work into fixed‑length sprints
d)
Freeze scope until the end of the project
28.
Which statement best describes minimum viable product (MVP)?
a)
The cheapest and easiest thing you can build to test your hypothesis
b)
Code that is just enough to pass testing
c)
The result of phase 1 of a schedule
d)
A fully featured release candidate
29.
The key goal of Scrum is to build a _____.
a)
detailed plan before coding starts
b)
potentially shippable product with every iteration
c)
comprehensive requirements document
d)
rigid hierarchical team
30.
What is the role of the Scrum product owner?
a)
Remove impediments and coach the team
b)
Acts as liaison between the stakeholders and scrum team and articulates the vision
c)
Write all technical specifications
d)
Directly assign tasks to developers
31.
What is the role of the Scrum master?
a)
Coaches the team and shields them from external interference
b)
Approve budget changes
c)
Define user personas
d)
Sign‑off on deliverables
32.
Which answer describes the Scrum team?
a)
The team pulls work off the plan, assigns it to themselves, and develops software
b)
Hierarchical with a project manager at the top
c)
Made up only of developers
d)
Temporary contractors only
33.
What are the three Scrum artifacts?
a)
Product backlog, sprint backlog, increment
b)
Scope statement, WBS, schedule
c)
Risk register, issue log, lessons learned
d)
User stories, epics, themes
34.
Select the correct statement regarding Dev Ops and Agile team alignment.
a)
All of the above statements are correct
b)
Dev Ops replaces Agile entirely
c)
Agile only applies to testing, Dev Ops to coding
d)
Dev Ops disallows frequent releases
35.
Select the correct statement regarding Scrum.
a)
Scrum has sprints and existing roles such as scrum master
b)
Scrum plans the entire project upfront
c)
Scrum discourages team retrospectives
d)
Scrum teams are managed by a project manager
36.
Which answer is valued and emphasized in Agile?
a)
Adaptive planning and early delivery
b)
Comprehensive documentation over working software
c)
Contract negotiation over customer collaboration
d)
Following a plan over responding to change
37.
How is the Waterfall method different from Agile?
a)
The waterwall method has phases so that when one ends, the next begins
b)
Waterfall welcomes change at any point in the project
c)
Waterfall delivers incremental value every sprint
d)
Waterfall uses cross‑functional, self‑organizing teams
38.
How is Scrum different from Kanban?
a)
Scrum has roles, such as scrum master, while Kanban does not have existing roles
b)
Scrum limits WIP while Kanban does not
c)
Scrum has no defined roles; Kanban has a product owner
d)
Scrum discourages retrospectives; Kanban requires them
39.
Select the correct statement regarding the Scrum master.
a)
The scrum master is a coach rather than a task master
b)
Assigns tasks directly to developers each day
c)
Owns and prioritizes the product backlog
d)
Writes all technical specifications
40.
What happens to sticky notes on a Kanban board?
a)
Remain in “To Do” until the end of the project
b)
They are moved across the board to show progress
c)
Are archived after each sprint
d)
Are replaced with user stories during retrospectives
41.
INVEST says stories should be _____.
a)
Independent + Negotiable + Valuable + Estimable + Small + Testable
b)
Incremental + Necessary + Valuable + Estimable + Specific + Testable
c)
Independent + Necessary + Valuable + Estimate + Small + Traceable
d)
Integrated + Negotiable + Viable + Estimable + Small + Testable
e)
Incremental + Negotiable + Visible + Estimable + Small + Testable
42.
Select the correct statement regarding product backlog.
a)
The product backlog is ordered by importance
b)
Created at sprint planning and never changes
c)
Maintained solely by Scrum Master
d)
Contains tasks assigned daily to developers
e)
Optional artifact in Scrum
43.
Who has the key role at the backlog‑refinement meeting?
a)
Scrum Master
b)
Product Owner
c)
Development Team
d)
Stakeholders
e)
Project Manager
44.
What is velocity in terms of sprint planning?
a)
Time it takes to complete a user story
b)
Hours worked per developer
c)
The number of story points a team can complete in a single sprint
d)
Percentage of tests passed
e)
Number of defects fixed
45.
You measure story points completed vs. story points remaining for a sprint using a _____ chart.
a)
Burn‑up
b)
Gantt
c)
Scatter
d)
Burndown
e)
Velocity
46.
What is a sprint review?
a)
A live demonstration meeting
b)
Meeting to reflect on team process
c)
Daily meeting to plan tasks
d)
Meeting to estimate backlog items
e)
Meeting to assign tasks
47.
Are customers invited to the sprint review?
a)
Yes. The development team, product owner, scrum master, stakeholders, and customers are invited to participate
b)
No, only the development team attends
c)
Only at release retrospectives
d)
Only remotely, never in person
e)
Yes, but only if Product Owner is absent
48.
Select the correct statement regarding the sprint retrospective.
a)
Focuses on product feedback
b)
Happens at the start of the sprint
c)
It is an opportunity for team members to reflect on the sprint and speak freely about it
d)
Optional ceremony
e)
Stakeholders must attend
49.
Which of the following is a key question to ask during the sprint retrospective?
a)
What should we change going forward
b)
How many story points are left?
c)
Which stakeholders missed deadlines?
d)
What is our marketing plan?
e)
How much budget remains?
50.
Select the statement that describes an end‑of‑sprint activity.
a)
Updating the burn‑up chart daily
b)
Move stories from the done column to the closed column
c)
Grooming backlog mid‑sprint
d)
Holding the daily stand‑up
e)
Estimating stories with planning‑poker
51.
What do development‑team members do daily?
a)
Deliver a full product increment
b)
They take the next highest priority story from the sprint backlog
c)
Meet all stakeholders
d)
Write retrospectives
e)
Update the product roadmap
52.
What is the main purpose of the daily stand‑up?
a)
For the development team members to each briefly report on their work
b)
Review product increment with stakeholders
c)
Estimate backlog items
d)
Approve budget changes
e)
Brainstorm new features
53.
What are the three key questions each team member answers at the daily stand‑up meeting?
a)
What they completed yesterday, what they plan to do today, and any blockers or impediments they are facing
b)
How many hours did I work? / Which tasks are done? / Which tests failed?
c)
What is velocity? / What are risks? / What is ROI?
d)
Where is backlog? / Who is accountable? / When is release?
e)
What resources needed? / Who approves them? / What budget?
54.
What is a burndown chart?
a)
All of the above
b)
Pie chart of resource usage
c)
Gantt‑style schedule
d)
Chart of velocity per sprint
e)
Chart of defect trends
55.
What is the difference between vanity metrics and actionable metrics?
a)
Actionable metrics tell you what to do, while vanity metrics do not provide specific guidance
b)
Vanity metrics relate to UI; actionable metrics to code
c)
Vanity metrics required by investors; actionable by devs
d)
Vanity are quantitative; actionable qualitative
e)
There is no difference
56.
Which of these metrics measures how quickly you recover from failure?
a)
Mean Time To Recovery (MTTR)
b)
Lead Time
c)
Cycle Time
d)
Deployment Frequency
e)
Velocity
57.
When a sprint finishes, how do you handle unimplemented stories?
a)
Move them to the top of the product backlog
b)
Extend the sprint until they’re done
c)
Mark them as done anyway
d)
Discard them entirely
e)
Hand them straight to QA
58.
When a sprint finishes, how do you get ready for the next sprint?
a)
All of the above
b)
Start coding immediately
c)
Skip the review
d)
Randomly raise velocity targets
e)
Replace the Scrum Master
59.
Who generally is responsible for writing user stories, and where are they placed when validated?
a)
Product owner
b)
Scrum Master writes; sprint backlog
c)
Developers write; sprint backlog
d)
Stakeholders write; release plan
e)
Project Manager writes; Gantt chart
60.
Which of the following does the team generate that reflects tasks required to complete a user story?
a)
Sprint backlog
b)
Burn‑up chart
c)
Definition of Done
d)
Product roadmap
e)
Increment
61.
Which of the following terms are deliverables from each iteration that are produced and delivered to the customer for feedback through a product demo or review?
a)
Increments
b)
Milestone
c)
Epic
d)
Sprint goal
e)
Release plan
62.
Which of the following statements about the monitoring‑and‑controlling process group is TRUE?
a)
It runs only at project close
b)
It is performed continuously to track progress and apply corrective actions
c)
It belongs to planning
d)
It produces the project charter
63.
The team develops all required deliverables and performs Quality‑Assurance functions to prevent defects. Which process group best fits the description?
a)
Executing process group
b)
Monitoring & Controlling
c)
Initiating
d)
Closing
64.
Which of the following best describes the closing process group?
a)
Authorizes the project and identifies stakeholders
b)
The team has gained customer sign-off and is preparing to transition the final product to operations
c)
Tracks project performance
d)
Produces work performance data
65.
Which of the following best describes the initiating process group?
a)
Produces the scope baseline
b)
The project charter is complete, the team is developing a stakeholder register, and the project manager schedules a pre-baseline presentation
c)
Controls changes
d)
Hands off deliverables
66.
Who writes user stories, and where do they place them when validated?
a)
The project owner writes user stories and places them in the product backlog
b)
Scrum Master → Sprint backlog
c)
Developers → Definition of Done
d)
Stakeholders → Release plan
67.
The project team is building high‑priority deliverables and performing critical quality‑assurance activities to follow standards and prevent defects. In which phase are they?
a)
The executing phase
b)
Planning
c)
Monitoring
d)
Closing
68.
Tomorrow is a big day. The project sponsor has just approved the project, and the project manager is building an agenda for a kick-off meeting. In which of the following phases does the kick-off meeting occur?
a)
Initiating
b)
The planning phase
c)
Closing
d)
Monitoring
69.
Tomorrow is a big day. The project sponsor has just approved the project, and the project manager is building an agenda for a kick-off meeting. In which of the following phases does the kick-off meeting occur?
a)
Initiating
b)
The planning phase
c)
Planning
d)
Closing
70.
A product owner meets with a key customer and converts requirements to user stories. Where are these stories stored for implementation?
a)
Product backlog
b)
Sprint backlog
c)
Release burn‑down
d)
Definition of Ready list
71.
Which baseline is typically completed and approved first during planning?
a)
Scope baseline
b)
Schedule baseline
c)
Cost baseline
d)
Performance baseline
72.
The primary focus of the project‑executing phase is production of which of the following?
a)
Deliverables
b)
Corrective actions
c)
Project charter
d)
Transition plan
73.
Your team receives a deliverable and is about to transfer it to Quality Control. Which statement about Quality Control is NOT true?
a)
The primary focus of quality control is to prevent defects from occuring
b)
QC measures deliverable conformity
c)
QC may lead to rework
d)
QC is an inspection activity
74.
A project manager receives a verified deliverable. What should be done next?
a)
The project manager validates scope to gain acceptance
b)
Archive it immediately
c)
Add it to backlog
d)
Perform root‑cause analysis
75.
During lessons‑learned sessions, which question is not required?
a)
What are the next steps?
b)
What went well?
c)
What could we improve?
d)
What should we stop doing?
76.
Which model does the product backlog follow?
a)
The DEEP model
b)
Rolling‑wave planning (progressive elaboration)
c)
Fixed‑scope
d)
Stage‑gate
77.
In the communications model, what is usually the most challenging aspect?
a)
Noise
b)
Encoding the message
c)
Selecting medium
d)
Transmitting data
78.
Which communication challenge is typically hardest for a PM to manage?
a)
Noise/interference
b)
Choosing language
c)
Scheduling meeting time
d)
Communication blockers
79.
Team members say they need training to use project systems. Which technology factor is this?
a)
Ease of use
b)
Infrastructure capacity
c)
Compatibility
d)
Security
80.
A PM forces a solution, ignoring stakeholder input, leaving them dissatisfied. What conflict‑resolution style is shown?
a)
Force/Direct
b)
Collaborating
c)
Compromising
d)
Smoothing
81.
Mary has a meeting with stakeholders. She emphasizes areas of agreement rather than differences. She postpones satisfying her needs to maintain harmony and relationships. What concept is shown in the scenario?
a)
Smooth/Accommodate
b)
Forcing
c)
Avoiding
d)
Collaborating
82.
The duty to understand the truth and act truthfully in our communications and in our conduct reflects which aspect of the Project Management Institute (PMI) Code of Ethics?
a)
Honesty
b)
Responsibility
c)
Respect
d)
Fairness
83.
A project manager is sending communications to one or multiple parties and will not receive any acknowledgment that the communications were read or understood. What communications method is this project manager using?
a)
Push communications
b)
Pull communications
c)
Interactive communications
d)
Agile radiators
84.
The communications management plan is complete, and the project manager moves the project to the executing phase or process group. On what process does the project management team now focus?
a)
Manage communications
b)
Plan communications
c)
Monitor communications
d)
Close communications
85.
A project manager uses a conflict resolution technique that is not optimal but often necessary. Each party receives something but must give up something in return. This technique may lead to buyer's remorse. Which of the following techniques is described?
a)
Compromise/Reconcile
b)
Forcing
c)
Avoiding
d)
Collaborating
86.
Ram uses a conflict management technique that incorporates multiple viewpoints and shows a cooperative attitude to solve the conflict. Ram wants to strive for consensus and commitment. Which of the following techniques is Ram using in the scenario?
a)
Collaborating/Problem‑solving
b)
Compromising
c)
Smoothing
d)
Forcing
87.
While reviewing various power sources, a project manager notes one power is the ability to gain support when the project team and stakeholders perceive the project manager as possessing special knowledge. Others must also perceive this knowledge as functional expertise that they consider essential. In addition, this power must be earned. What power is under consideration?
a)
Expert
b)
Legitimate
c)
Reward
d)
Coercive
88.
Which role and responsibility would not be a consideration when implementing a predictive project?
a)
Scrum Master
b)
Project Sponsor
c)
Functional manager
d)
Project Manager
89.
You are communicating with a stakeholder with high power and low interest in the project. Which strategy is most appropriate to manage and engage with this customer?
a)
Keep Satisfied
b)
Manage Closely
c)
Monitor
d)
Keep Informed
90.
Which of the following documents can a project manager use to define current and desired stakeholder commitment levels and develop strategies to adjust the commitment levels?
a)
Stakeholder engagement plan
b)
Issue log
c)
RACI chart
d)
Communications register
91.
A project manager must define and document ground rules and norms to guide the team’s behavior. Which tool is best to achieve this goal?
a)
Team charter
b)
RAID log
c)
Product roadmap
d)
Decision tree
92.
Which of the following is a common method project managers use to define stakeholder responsibilities?
a)
RACI
b)
Gantt chart
c)
SWOT
d)
MoSCoW table
93.
A number of project team members are in the storm stage of the Tuckman Ladder. What is your best strategy option?
a)
Sell
b)
Micromanage tasks
c)
Ignore issues
d)
Replace team members
94.
People evaluate work based on the level of effort required to accomplish it. If the potential reward justifies the level of effort, the team member performs at a high level. Which of the following supports the described concept?
a)
Expectancy theory (Vroom)
b)
Maslow hierarchy
c)
Herzberg hygiene
d)
McGregor Theory X/Y
95.
The correct way to document risk is through risk metalanguage. Which of the following is the correct sequence?
a)
If <cause> occurs, then <risk event> may result in <impact>
b)
If <impact> happens, then <cause> occurs
c)
When <event> then <cause> leads to <impact>
d)
Cause – Impact – Event
96.
A project team identifies a risk early in the project. The project manager must assign this risk to a team member who will prioritize, manage, and monitor the risk throughout the project. What role is this team member assuming?
a)
Risk owner
b)
Risk auditor
c)
Risk sponsor
d)
Risk seeker
97.
A project team member wants to determine when risks are first identified and documented in the project management lifecycle. Which of the following process groups should you share?
a)
Planning
b)
The initiate phase
c)
Executing
d)
Monitoring
98.
A project team is developing a document that describes how risk management activities will be structured and performed. This document provides instructions and a roadmap for how the project team will conduct risk management for a project. What is this document called?
a)
Risk‑management plan
b)
Risk register
c)
Issue log
d)
Contingency plan
99.
The project team develops a probability and impact matrix. Which of the following best describes this document?
a)
The probability and impact matrix determine the relative priority of all risks by risk score
b)
Cost‑estimation tool
c)
Schedule compression tool
d)
Change‑control log
100.
A project team completes an analysis to set aside funds to respond to identified or known risks. What type of reserves does the project team determine?
a)
Contingency
b)
Management
c)
Cost
d)
Float
101.
An effective project risk management understands the degree of uncertainty an organization is willing to accept in anticipation of a reward and plans accordingly. What concept does this planning support?
a)
Risk tolerance
b)
Risk appetite
c)
Risk threshold
d)
Residual risk
102.
The first risks the project manager typically documents in a risk register are identified during the development of which document?
a)
Project charter
b)
Risk‑management plan
c)
Stakeholder register
d)
WBS dictionary
103.
The project team analyzes each risk to determine the probability and impact of its occurrence. The team determines a risk score by multiplying probability times impact to determine a risk score. This process is referred to as which of the following?
a)
Quantitative Monte‑Carlo
b)
Qualitative risk analysis
c)
Sensitivity analysis
d)
Risk audit
104.
A Subject Matter Expert (SME) states that if inventory safety levels fall below 300 units, the risk will become a critical issue that the team must address. Which of the following did the SME define?
a)
Risk owner
b)
Trigger condition
c)
Risk threshold
d)
Residual impact
105.
A project team is beginning the project risk management process and wants to start by identifying risks. The project manager states that before identification, it is necessary to perform which of the following steps?
a)
Finalize schedule
b)
Plan
c)
Approve budget
d)
Hold lessons‑learned
106.
Which of the following stakeholder roles supports project risk management by approving the risk management plan for the project and approving, designating, and authorizing reserves if a risk response requires funding?
a)
Sponsor
b)
Steering‑committee
c)
Product owner
d)
PMO analyst
107.
Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding project risk management?
a)
Eliminates all uncertainty
b)
Risk monitoring and control involves tracking identified risks and executing risk response
c)
Only applies in Agile
d)
Occurs only at closeout
108.
A methodology to define risks recommends documentation using a cause, event, and impact format. What is this methodology referred to as?
a)
Bow‑tie
b)
Risk metalanguage
c)
Ishikawa
d)
PESTLE
109.
Risk identification is critical to overall project success. Which is the most important skill a project manager should try to improve to increase effectiveness?
a)
Contract law
b)
Analytical thinking and communication
c)
Coding
d)
Graphic design
110.
This document contains different sections which include: Risk management team, Definitions of probability and impact, Probability and impact matrix, Risk reassessment schedule, Risk contingency reserves, and Clarification and comments. What is this document called?
a)
Risk register
b)
Risk‑management plan
c)
RAID log
d)
Quality‑plan
111.
A project manager is referencing a document that lists potential risks that may impact projects broken out by category. This list is derived from lessons learned that document past risks on previous projects. Which of the following is this list called?
a)
Risk catalog
b)
Risk breakdown structure / RBS checklist
c)
SWOT chart
d)
Ishikawa diagram
112.
A project manager identifies hazardous materials planned for use on a project. The team identifies a substitute material to eliminate the risk cause. What risk strategy does this scenario employ?
a)
Transfer
b)
Avoid
c)
Accept
d)
Exploit
113.
Project A and B combine a materials order to gain a supplier discount and achieve cost savings. What risk strategy does this scenario employ?
a)
Share
b)
Mitigate
c)
Transfer
d)
Accept
114.
A project manager provides a list of questions to stakeholders before a brainstorming session. Which of the following allows individuals participating in this meeting to consider responses ahead of time?
a)
Delphi
b)
Brainwriting
c)
Affinity mapping
d)
MoSCoW
115.
Paul plans to use a systematic forecasting method to gather the opinions of a panel of experts on a problem the team is encountering. Which method will Paul employ?
a)
Brainwriting
b)
Delphi method
c)
SWOT
d)
Risk audit
116.
The team is reviewing the overall project risk monitoring process and the effectiveness of risk response strategies so that the team can make adjustments for the remainder of the project. What action is the team taking?
a)
Qualitative analysis
b)
Risk audit
c)
Risk transfer
d)
Monte‑Carlo
117.
A team initiates a risk response to install all electrical equipment in a facility. There is a risk of documenting negative impact if the permit process runs long. They implement a response to pay an expedited fee to receive the permits on time. The permits arrive, but the team does not authorize part of the work to be accomplished. A new risk is added to the risk register. How is this risk classified?
a)
Residual
b)
Secondary
c)
Primary
d)
Accepted
118.
A project manager conducts frequent brainstorming sessions to gather marketing information on new product offerings. Stakeholders complain that they need more time to prepare for these sessions and request an overview of what the team would brainstorm a few days before each meeting. Which technique would satisfy this need?
a)
Delphi
b)
Brain writing
c)
Fishbone
d)
SWOT
119.
What is the primary purpose of a periodic risk audit?
a)
Delete low risks
b)
Evaluate the effectiveness of the monitor risk process
c)
Approve reserves
d)
Re‑baseline scope
120.
Project managers normally conduct risk audits during which project lifecycle phase or process group?
a)
Closing
b)
Monitoring & Controlling
c)
Initiating
d)
Executing
121.
A lifecycle is a series of phases a project passes through to meet project requirements. On which methodology is the current Project Management Institute (PMI) predictive lifecycle based?
a)
PRINCE2
b)
PDCA
c)
ISO 21500
d)
Six Sigma DMAIC
122.
The initiating process group is the first phase in the PMI project lifecycle. Which is a key output of the initiation phase?
a)
Scope baseline
b)
Increments and Sprint backlog
c)
Change log
d)
Product backlog
123.
A project management team worked hard and long to finalize the project management plan. The project sponsor requested a few modifications but approved the plan. What is the next step the team must take?
a)
Freeze scope
b)
Conduct a kick-off meeting
c)
Close procurement
d)
Archive risks
124.
The team identifies risks that may impact a newly approved construction project. The team first identified the risks in the original business case, which determined that a project was required. Where will these risks first be documented?
a)
Risk register
b)
Project charter
c)
Issue log
d)
RAID
125.
A project to repave a parking area to accommodate increased customer traffic listed weather as a risk. The team believes there is a way to predict severe weather before it occurs. These include weather reports, radar, and line of sight. Which term are these early warning signs defining?
a)
Risk threshold
b)
Risk triggers
c)
Secondary risk
d)
Residual risk
126.
What is the project charter?
a)
Procurement contract
b)
A document that formally authorizes a project and gives the project manager authority to use organizational resources
c)
Sprint backlog
d)
Risk plan
127.
Burndown charts are used for _____.
a)
Tracking budget
b)
Tracking remaining work versus time in a sprint or project
c)
Estimating story points
d)
Managing stakeholders
128.
What is the main goal of the "Project Closure" stage from an information security perspective?
a)
Start new project
b)
Ensure all security requirements are met and residual risks are documented
c)
Add features
d)
Increase scope
129.
Which of the following is an important action in the "Project Monitoring and Control" stage of information security?
a)
Approve charter
b)
Regularly assessing and managing security risks
c)
Hire staff
d)
Write RFP
130.
What elements are important aspects of project management in the context of information security and effective communication?
a)
Budget & WBS
b)
Confidentiality, integrity, availability & clear reporting channels
c)
Gantt charts only
d)
GUI mock‑ups
131.
What is Security by Design?
a)
Add security after testing
b)
An approach where security is built into the system from the beginning of the design process
c)
Outsource audits
d)
Ignore non‑functional reqs
132.
Quality‑control team checks _____.
a)
Future features
b)
Whether the project deliverables meet the required quality standards
c)
HR policies
d)
Marketing KPIs
133.
What does a project manager do during the planning stage?
a)
Writes lessons‑learned
b)
Defines scope, schedule, cost baselines & plans risk/quality/comms
c)
Executes tasks
d)
Closes contracts
134.
Which method helps to identify the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats of a project?
a)
Epics
b)
SWOT analysis
c)
Story points
d)
CPI variance
135.
What is a risk with a positive impact on a project?
a)
Threat
b)
Opportunity
c)
Hazard
d)
Residual
136.
Which international standard specializes in information security risk management?
a)
ISO 9001
b)
ISO/IEC 27005
c)
ISO 14001
d)
ISO 31010
137.
Which of the following is an example of a threat within the framework of information security risks?
a)
Unpatched vulnerability
b)
Malware or a hacker attempting unauthorized access
c)
Encryption
d)
Backup
138.
What is used to separate trust zones in the threat model?
a)
Gantt chart
b)
Security boundaries
c)
Sprint board
d)
Ishikawa
139.
What does a security team do in a traditional model?
a)
Codes new features
b)
Enforce policies, monitor for incidents, and respond to threats
c)
Owns product backlog
d)
Writes marketing copy
140.
What is an "attack tree"?
a)
Kanban board
b)
A diagram that models all possible paths an attacker might take to compromise a system
c)
Risk register
d)
RAID log
141.
What is an example of a security flaw?
a)
Unpatched software vulnerability
b)
Routine patch management
c)
Enforcing least privilege
d)
Using HTTPS with TLS 1.3
142.
Which approach is the basis for building secure information systems?
a)
Security through obscurity
b)
Patch‑and‑pray
c)
Secure-by-design
d)
Accept all traffic by default