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Worksheets

Comp Review Sciences - Practice

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A red blood cell will in a hypertonic solution (crenation), but will in a hypotonic solution (hemolysis). The correct terms are shrink for and burst for.

4 lines
2.

The causative agent for Tularemia is from the genus:

a)

Clostridium

b)

Francisella

c)

Treponema

d)

Corynebacterium

3.

The causative agent for Syphilis is:

a)

Clostridium difficile

b)

Francisella tularensis

c)

Treponema pallidum

d)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

4.

When in solution, these will not pass through semi-permeable membranes: Match each definition with the correct term:

a)

colloids

1.

colloids

b)

methanal (formaldehyde gas)

2.

methanal (formaldehyde gas)

c)

Urotropin

3.

Urotropin

d)

methanol

4.

methanol

e)

formalin

5.

formalin

5.

This is all about pH... can you match these?

a)

neutral

1.

7.0

b)

acid (acidic condition)

2.

The body is in full rigor mortis

c)

acid (acidic range)

3.

Below 7

d)

basic (alkaline)

4.

The body is in advanced decomposition

e)

normal blood (slightly alkaline)

5.

7.3–7.4

6.

The brachiocephalic trunk provides blood supply to the:

a)

left side of the head and neck

b)

right upper extremity and right side of the head and neck

c)

left upper extremity

d)

pericardium

7.

NH₂ is the functional group for:

a)

hydrocarbons

b)

alcohols

c)

amines

d)

ketones

8.

The formation of urotropin demonstrates the affinity of formaldehyde for the:

a)

amino acids in proteins

b)

sodium in organic salts

c)

nitrogen in ammonia

d)

chlorine in bleach

9.

What are the two main sources of decomposition?

4 lines
10.

Match the following anatomical guides/limits:

a)

Not a valid guide or limit

1.

Terminates at the inferior border of the thyroid cartilage

b)

brachial artery

2.

Terminates just below the antecubital fossa

c)

right subclavian artery

3.

Terminates at the lateral border of the first rib

d)

right common carotid artery

4.

Terminates at the superior border of the thyroid cartilage

e)

axillary artery

5.

Terminates at the lower border of the tendon of the teres major muscle

11.

Which of the following is one of the uses of phenol in embalming?

a)

disinfectant

b)

preservative

c)

modifying agent (Phenol is used as a mold inhibitor and tissue modifier)

d)

humectant

12.

An example of a naturally acquired active immunity would be:

a)

vaccination with live virus

b)

injection of immune serum

c)

infection followed by recovery (producing your own antibodies)

d)

introduction of an antibody (this is passive, not active immunity)

13.

What is the term for bacteria that are round?

a)

spirilla

b)

vibrios

c)

cocci (round-shaped bacteria)

d)

bacilli

14.

What force occurs at the interfaces of solutions and cell membranes, limiting the diffusion of embalming chemicals into the tissues by contracting the surface of the solution?

a)

osmosis

b)

dispersion

c)

diffusion

d)

contractibility

15.

Which of the following types of solution has alcohol as a solvent?

a)

Emulsion

b)

Alloy

c)

Aqueous solution

d)

Tincture (a tincture uses alcohol as the solvent)

16.

Paraformaldehyde is a component of: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Hardening compounds

b)

Mold preventive agents

c)

Surface applications (surface embalming chemicals)

d)

Embalming powders (preservative powders)

e)

Cavity fluids (Paraformaldehyde is not used in liquid cavity fluid)

17.

Clostridium perfringens causes in the antemortem state which can become in the postmortem state.

a)

gas gangrene, tissue gas

b)

tetanus, rigor mortis

c)

botulism, putrefaction

d)

sepsis, mummification

18.

The rectus femoris muscle is associated with the:

a)

sternum

b)

rectum

19.

The parts of the cell that give it structure:

a)

cell wall

b)

cell membrane (in animal cells, the cell membrane and cytoskeleton maintain structure; plants have a cell wall for structure)

c)

cytoplasm

d)

ribosomes

e)

toxin

20.

Bacteria grow best in a pH range that is:

a)

not less than 8 or more than 11

b)

less than 6

c)

highly alkaline

d)

not less than 6 or more than 8 (approximately pH 6–8 is optimal for most bacteria)

e)

consistently neutral

21.

All the following are viral diseases except:

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Mumps

c)

Rabies

d)

Rheumatic Fever (this is a complication of streptococcal infection, not a viral disease)

e)

Shingles

22.

[a] is the [b] virus that causes smallpox, and [c] is the [d] virus that causes rabies.

a)

variola is the dermotropic virus that causes smallpox, and rhabdovirus is the neurotropic virus that causes rabies.

b)

herpesvirus is the neurotropic virus that causes smallpox, and adenovirus is the dermotropic virus that causes rabies.

c)

rhabdovirus is the dermotropic virus that causes smallpox, and variola is the neurotropic virus that causes rabies.

d)

adenovirus is the dermotropic virus that causes smallpox, and herpesvirus is the neurotropic virus that causes rabies.

23.

The exit duct of the urinary bladder is:

a)

the urethra

b)

the ureter

c)

the vas deferens

d)

the epididymis

24.

The portion of the scapula that articulates with the head of the humerus is:

a)

Acromion process

b)

Coracoid process

c)

Glenoid cavity

d)

Spine of scapula

25.

The largest foramen in the body:

a)

foramen magnum

b)

vertebral foramen

c)

foramen ovale

d)

foramen transversarium

e)

obturator foramen (located in the pelvis)

26.

The mandibular fossa is found on which of the following bones?

a)

temporal

b)

sphenoid

c)

ethmoid

d)

humerus

e)

mandible

27.

Vertical groove on the central plane of the upper integumentary lip:

a)

philtrum (the vertical groove under the nose on the upper lip)

b)

submental sulcus

c)

bucco-facial sulcus

d)

mandibular sulcus

28.

Vertical furrows of the mouth crossing the mucous membranes and the integumentary lip:

a)

Philtrum

b)

Labial sulci (vertical lines on the lips)

c)

Mandibular sulcus

d)

Oris-facial sulci

29.

What is the recommended practice for dealing with long bone (leg bone) donors?

a)

Open donation sites before embalming and apply chemical packs

b)

Open donation sites after embalming, add preservative powder (hardening compound), and suture tightly (this is standard to treat after arterial injection)

c)

Open donation sites during embalming, after fluid reaches the area

d)

Assume donation sites treated by the procurement agency need no additional treatment (incorrect)

30.

33. The zygomaticus major muscle is related to which marking?

a)

Zygomatic arch

b)

Mandibular notch

c)

Coronoid process

d)

Mental foramen

31.

The distance between the eyes is equal to _____ the width of the mouth:

a)

two-thirds (2/3)

b)

one-half (1/2)

c)

twice (2 times)

d)

one-third (1/3)

32.

The basic head shape that is wider across the chin than the temples is:

a)

Round

b)

Square

c)

Triangle (a triangular face has a narrow forehead and wide jaw)

d)

Oval

e)

Diamond

33.

If an ear needed to be built on the body (restorative art), a(n) (a)   would be secured to the scalp or bony structures and the modeled ear would be built on this framework.

Choose from the below words

cement

bridge suture

armature (a wire or pliable base framework)

small piece of wax

34.

When raising vessels for embalming, the text recommends always raising the [a] first and always inserting instruments into the [b] first.

a)

When raising vessels for embalming, the text recommends always raising the superficial vessel first and always inserting instruments into the deep vessel first.

b)

When raising vessels for embalming, the text recommends always raising the deep vessel first and always inserting instruments into the superficial vessel first.

c)

When raising vessels for embalming, the text recommends always raising the artery first and always inserting instruments into the vein first.

d)

When raising vessels for embalming, the text recommends always raising the vein first and always inserting instruments into the artery first.

35.

Elongated prominence of flesh which accompanies a furrow:

a)

eminence

b)

furrow

c)

fold (a fold is the raised ridge adjacent to a furrow or wrinkle)

36.

A facial profile variation in which the forehead protrudes beyond the eyebrows while the chin recedes from the plane of the upper lip is called:

a)

concave-vertical

b)

convex

c)

convex-vertical

d)

concave

e)

concave-convex (forehead is concave/protruding, chin is convex/receding)

37.

A death mask is known as a(n):

a)

Doole

b)

effigy (a life or death mask likeness)

c)

Weeper

d)

Barbe

38.

A profile variation in which the forehead recedes from the eyebrows while the chin and upper lip project equally to an imaginary vertical line is:

a)

concave-vertical

b)

concave-convex

c)

concave

d)

convex

e)

convex-vertical (forehead is convex/receding, chin is vertical)

39.

Groove at the junction of the lower integumentary lip and the chin:

a)

submental sulcus

b)

labiomental sulcus (the groove between lower lip and chin)

c)

bucco-facial sulcus

d)

nasolabial sulcus

40.

The mouth is how many eyes wide?

a)

b)

2 (approximately two eye-widths)

c)

d)

3

41.

To tissue-build a sunken submandibular area, what is the best point of entry?

4 lines
42.

It is best to use massage cream to remove which of the following stains:

a)

urine stains on clothing

b)

cosmetic makeup on the face (massage cream is effective at removing cosmetics from skin)

c)

lipstick on fabric

d)

ink on clothing

43.

A frontal head form that is generally egg-shaped, with the cranium slightly wider than the jaws (the most common geometric head form), is:

a)

Round

b)

Oval (the egg-shaped, most common head form)

c)

Triangular

d)

Rectangular

44.

A material combined with pigments so they may be more easily applied is a:

a)

Compound

b)

Colloid

c)

Atomizer

d)

Vehicle (in cosmetics or paint, the vehicle is the medium that carries the pigment)

45.

Flushed with red when describing the complexion is:

a)

Crimson

b)

Florid (meaning ruddy or flushed)

c)

Sallow

d)

Dusky

e)

Swarthy

46.

Illumination resulting from the glowing of a heated filament:

a)

Incandescent (light from a filament lamp)

b)

Fluorescent

c)

Sunlight

d)

Refracted light

47.

Of the following waxes, which is used in the initial application of a wound ~1.5 inches in diameter in the cheek?

a)

Wound filler (firm wax for deep wounds, applied first)

b)

Surface restorer (soft wax for top layer)

c)

Derma bond (a tissue adhesive, not a wax)

d)

Medium wax

48.

The degree of brilliance (brightness of a color) is termed:

a)

Intensity (chroma)

b)

Value (lightness or darkness)

c)

Hue (the color family)

d)

Vividity (not a standard term in color theory)

49.

This would be an example of a medium wax:

a)

c and d – Derma-surgery wax and restorative (modeling) wax are examples of medium-consistency wax.

b)

a – Lip wax is an example of soft-consistency wax.

c)

b – Deep wound filler is an example of firm-consistency wax.

d)

e – Candle wax is not used in restorative art.

50.

The color that we see is:

a)

Absorbed

b)

Refracted

c)

Achromatic

d)

Reflected (we perceive the wavelengths of light that are reflected by an object)

e)

Diluted

51.

Four colors in a color scheme consisting of two separated colors on the color wheel and their complements describe a:

a)

complementary scheme

b)

split-complementary scheme

c)

contrast (non-complementary) scheme

d)

tetrad scheme (a set of four colors in two complementary pairs)

e)

analogous scheme

52.

A hypertonic solution:

a)

Has a higher solute concentration than the cell

b)

Has a lower solute concentration than the cell

c)

Has the same solute concentration as the cell

d)

Contains no solutes

53.

If a body is in advanced decomposition and the family wants to have a closed casket funeral (and the funeral will be delayed), you should:

a)

Soak the body in cavity fluid for 24 hours, then place it in a plastic pouch. (This helps preserve the remains when embalming is not effective.)

b)

Wrap the body in multiple layers of linens soaked in high-index arterial solution

c)

Inject an undiluted high-index fluid into the carotid artery (ineffective in advanced decomp)

d)

(Options C and D are not recommended in this scenario.)

54.

If an abdominal autopsy has been done, which of the following could be used to inject the head?

a)

Raise the right common carotid artery (the best choice for injecting the head separately)

b)

Raise the right axillary artery

c)

Use the abdominal aorta as it passes through the diaphragm

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

55.

Which of the following terms best describes the state of blood after reaction with arterial fluid?

a)

gas

b)

fluid

c)

powder

d)

coagulated (formaldehyde causes blood to clot and congeal)

56.

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a)

You should use a hypotonic arterial solution on a dehydrated body. (True – adds moisture)

b)

You should use an isotonic arterial solution on a body with normal moisture. (True)

c)

You should use a hypotonic arterial solution on a body with normal moisture. (NOT true – a normal body does not require extra dilute solution; this could cause edema.)

d)

You should use a hypertonic arterial solution on an edematous body. (True)

57.

61. Which of the following can be used as either an insert into a casket or as a separate shipping container?

a)

Air tray

b)

Urn

c)

Vault

d)

Outer burial container

58.

The family has selected direct cremation but they wish to view the deceased before cremation. They approve minimal care (disinfection, feature setting, etc.) and request no invasive procedures. Which of the following is acceptable?

a)

Aspiration of cavities (invasive – not without permission)

b)

Cavity fluid injection (invasive)

c)

Dental tie for mouth closure (non-invasive method of mouth closure using teeth)

d)

Musculature suture for mouth closure (invasive)

e)

Embalming (invasive)

59.

When transferring the deceased from a removal cot to the embalming table, you should:

a)

stand next to the cot and push the deceased onto the table

b)

stand on the opposite side of the embalming table and pull the deceased toward you from the removal cot (this gives more control and uses leverage safely)

c)

stand between the cot and table, lift the deceased and turn to place on table

d)

(with assistance) lift the cot and slide the deceased onto the table

60.

In the Jewish faith, what is the name of the watcher, or the person who sits with the body until burial?

a)

Sholoshim

b)

Shalom

c)

Shomer (the guardian who stays with the deceased)

d)

Tehillim

e)

Tachrichim

61.

If the deceased has an open wound in the area of the antecubital fossa (front of elbow), which plastic precaution would you use after treating the wound?

a)

plastic stocking (leg)

b)

coverall (torso)

c)

plastic sleeve (covers arm/forearm)

d)

plastic pants

62.

Which of the following would be used to ship uncasketed remains?

a)

Air tray (for casketed remains)

b)

Combination case (for body not in a casket)

c)

Alternative container (general term, not specifically for shipping)

63.

Proper positioning of a body in the casket includes tilting the face approximately ____ degrees to the ____.

a)

10, right

b)

15, right (about 15° toward the right side is common for viewing)

c)

15, left

d)

20, left

64.

A deceased Mormon who has received Temple Ordinances would be dressed in a robe with:

a)

a white apron and a green sash

b)

a green apron and a white sash (part of the LDS temple garment attire)

c)

a gray apron and a black sash

d)

a black apron and a white sash

65.

A Holy Society called the funeral home to find out when they can come to prepare Ms. J.P.’s body. They would be of which faith?

a)

Catholic

b)

Methodist

c)

Episcopalian

d)

Jewish (the “Holy Society” refers to the Chevra Kadisha in Judaism, who perform the washing and shrouding)

e)

Mormon

66.

A _____ is a structure designed for the temporary storage of bodies that are not to be immediately interred.

a)

rental casket

b)

crypt

c)

receiving vault (used to hold bodies temporarily, e.g., during winter)

d)

morgue

67.

A pacemaker or defibrillator must be removed if there is going to be:

a)

interment (burial)

b)

inhumation (burial)

c)

exhumation (digging up)

d)

cremation (inurnment) (devices with batteries must be removed before cremation due to explosion hazard)

68.

A unionall would be the most appropriate plastic undergarment for which of the following cases?

a)

Burn patients with extensive wounds

b)

Patients with minor abrasions

c)

Patients with simple fractures

d)

Patients with mild dermatitis

69.

Eye enucleation is defined as the removal of the eye for transplantation, research, and education.

a)

cell

b)

tissue (typically refers to cornea transplant, which is tissue)

c)

organ

d)

system

70.

For the deceased Catholic, the rosary beads would be placed:

a)

on top of the casket

b)

around the deceased’s neck

c)

in the deceased’s hands (commonly rosary beads are folded in the hands of the deceased)

d)

under the deceased’s pillow

71.

If you regularly receive bodies shipped from out-of-town, it is ______ that you have an item called “______” on your General Price List (GPL).

a)

a recommendation; Receiving Remains

b)

a requirement; Shipping Remains

c)

a suggestion; Flying-In Remains

d)

a requirement; Receiving Remains (funeral homes must list a charge for “Receiving Remains” on the GPL if they receive bodies from other funeral homes)

72.

In the Jewish faith, the _____ is the ceremony of washing the deceased before burial.

a)

Taharah (the ritual washing of the body)

b)

Tehillim (prayers said for the deceased)

c)

Tenach (Tanakh – Hebrew scripture)

d)

Tehran (not applicable)

e)

Tachrichim (the burial shroud, not a ceremony)

73.

The hand-sewn white linen shroud in which deceased members of the Jewish faith are dressed is called:

a)

A. Taharah

b)

B. Tehillim

c)

C. Tachrichim (the burial garments or shroud)

d)

D. Tallith (Jewish prayer shawl, used for males but tachrichim refers to the shroud)

74.

Ms. P.R.’s family gave you what appears to be a gold Piaget watch and Tiffany diamond earrings and ring to place on her for the viewing. How should you document these valuables?

a)

Do not document; the family will be present at all times

b)

Describe them without stating value or brand: e.g., “yellow-colored metal watch, and earrings and ring each with a clear stone.” (Generic description is proper to avoid appraisal and liability.)

c)

Document as “gold Piaget watch, Tiffany diamond earrings and diamond ring” (too specific and implies value)

d)

Document as “expensive, antique jewelry” (too vague and still implies value)

75.

Which of the following are advantages of refrigeration of remains?

a)

It hastens the onset and duration of rigor mortis

b)

It slows the progress of rigor mortis

c)

It maintains blood in a liquid state

d)

It hastens decomposition

e)

It slows the progress of decomposition

76.

You have a case where the head and torso have been separated (decapitation). You should:

a)

Embalm the head and the torso separately (then later reconstruct/reattach as needed)

b)

Reattach the head to the torso before embalming and then embalm together

c)

Embalm the head only (and not the torso)

d)

Embalm the torso and hypodermically inject the head

77.

The deceased has large decubitus ulcers on the buttocks and several large open sores on the abdomen and lower back. After treating these areas, which plastic garment would be sufficient?

a)

Overalls (covers legs up to waist)

b)

Unionall (covers entire body)

c)

Coveralls (covers torso down to upper thighs, appropriate for trunk wounds)

78.

The general rule is that all human remains being transported by common carrier must be accompanied by a ______.

a)

Ziegler case

b)

burial-transit permit (or similar document) (required legal document for transporting remains)

c)

Embalming care report

d)

Certified copy of a cremation permit

79.

When a person dies outside of the United States, who is responsible to pay for the return of the remains?

a)

The family of the deceased (or their estate/insurance)

b)

The U.S. Consulate

c)

The U.S. Government

d)

The funeral home (receiving or shipping)

80.

Which of the following tasks should NOT be done when preparing a body for public viewing of unembalmed remains (no authorization for invasive procedures)?

a)

Setting the features (mouth and eyes) – (This should be done.)

b)

Washing and disinfecting the body – (This should be done.)

c)

Using refrigeration or ice packs to delay decomposition – (This should be done.)

d)

Aspirating the body – This should NOT be done without permission, as it is an invasive procedure.

81.

Which of the following should be done if you have to keep an embalmed body for an extended period of time before the funeral?

a)

Keep the body flat on the table

b)

Elevate the head and shoulders (to help drainage and prevent discoloration)

c)

Delay cosmetic treatment

d)

Keep the body in a warm area

82.

A casket used in a Jewish Orthodox funeral service is called a(n):

a)

Kriah (Hebrew for the ritual of tearing one’s garment)

b)

Levaya (funeral procession)

c)

Aron (Hebrew term for the simple wooden casket)

d)

Kever (grave)

83.

Your funeral home has received a body from another funeral home, and the deceased has purge coming from the mouth that soiled the pillow and clothing. You have replaced the pillow and sent the clothes for cleaning. You should also:

a)

Notify the family immediately

b)

Clean and disinfect the mouth and surrounding area

c)

Ignore the purge as it is common

d)

Embalm the body again

84.

For the funeral of someone of the Jewish Orthodox faith, you will not schedule the funeral or burial during Shabbat, which:

a)

begins sun-up Saturday and ends sundown Saturday

b)

begins sundown Saturday and ends sundown Sunday

c)

begins sundown Friday and ends sundown Saturday (the Jewish Sabbath)

d)

begins sundown Friday and ends sundown Sunday

85.

Limited diffusion due to the searing of capillary walls demonstrates what action of formaldehyde?

a)

the sealing-off action

b)

the anti-diffusion action

c)

the “walling-off” action (coagulation of tissue proteins can block further diffusion)

d)

formaldehyde demand

e)

action of discontinuance

86.

When performing a hair restoration (replacement) on a decedent:

a)

Strands of hair should never overlap

b)

Hair patches should be approximately 2 inches wide

c)

All hair patches should be cut to exact length before application

d)

Hair patches should be longer than needed and trimmed after placement (to achieve a natural look and proper length)

87.

A device that uses water pressure to produce a vacuum for aspiration of the visceral cavities is a(n):

a)

air pressure machine

b)

hydroaspirator (uses running water to create suction)

c)

vacuum breaker

d)

autoclave

88.

A needle injector is used:

a)

to suture small incisions

b)

for mouth closure (it drives a pin with wire into the jaw for non-invasive mouth closure)

c)

to suture the scalp

89.

A thrombus in the iliac veins would:

a)

Decrease distribution to the lower extremities

b)

Decrease drainage from the upper extremities

c)

Decrease drainage from the lower extremities (a clot in the iliac veins impedes venous return from the legs)

d)

Prohibit diffusion in the lower extremities

90.

Dilution of arterial fluid in the body is known as:

a)

Primary dilution (the mixture in the tank)

b)

Secondary dilution (further dilution by the body’s fluids after injection)

c)

Accessory dilution

d)

Terminal dilution

91.

Burial at sea must be how many nautical miles from land (according to US regulations)?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3 (at least three nautical miles from shore)

d)

4

e)

5

92.

In embalming, what vein accompanies the brachial artery?

a)

Internal jugular vein

b)

Brachial vein(s) (venae comitantes that run with the brachial artery)

c)

Basilic vein (superficial vein of the arm, joins the axillary vein)

d)

Bronchial vein

93.

Of the 9 regions of the abdomen, the region immediately to the left of your right inguinal region is the:

a)

Umbilical

b)

Epigastric

c)

Hypogastric (the central lower region, directly medial to the right inguinal (iliac) region)

94.

It is possible to have purge from all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

A. stomach (stomach purge: “coffee-ground” appearance)

b)

B. lungs (lung purge: frothy, sometimes pink)

c)

C. kidney (the kidneys do not directly produce external purge; kidney failure leads to other signs)

95.

Rigor mortis, gas in cavities, tumors, and bandages are all examples of:

a)

Extravascular resistance to fluid distribution (external or outside the vessels, preventing fluid flow)

b)

Intravascular resistance to fluid distribution

c)

Postmortem chemical changes

d)

Common causes of discoloration

96.

The cell in the middle is in a/an (a)   solution.

Choose from the below words
isotonic
hypertonic
hypotonic
97.

If each dialysis bag has a glucose solution of 5.0 ml, what would happen in each of the following scenarios:

1) It is exposed to a 5.0 ml solution. This solution is​ (a)   ; so the bag will stay normal.

2) It is exposed to a 10 ml solution. This solution is ​ (b)   ; so the bag will shrink.

3) It is exposed to a 3.5 ml solution. The solution is ​ (c)   ; so the bag will expand/blow up.

Choose from the below words
isotonic
hypertonic
hypotonic
98.

Which of the following solutions contains a higher concentration of solutes than the red blood cells?

99.

Bacteria or viruses that cause disease are called

a)

fungus

b)

pathogens

c)

decomposers

d)

protists

100.
A disease causing organism
a)
pathogen
b)
poison
c)
vaccine
101.

A (a)   is an agent that causes disease – either a microorganism (bacteria, protist, fungi or parasite), virus

102.

Bacteria or viruses that cause disease are called

a)

fungus

b)

pathogens

c)

decomposers

d)

protists

103.
What percentage of bacteria are harmful to humans?
a)
10%
b)
less than 1%
c)
90%
d)
more than 100% 
104.

The single deadliest entity on Earth is the ______________.

a)

bacteria

b)

bacteriophage

c)

antibiotic

105.

Match the following immune system components with their functions in the body's defense against pathogens.

a)

Protective Barrier

1.

Skin and mucous membranes that prevent pathogen entry

b)

Inflammatory Response

2.

Body's immediate reaction to injury or infection, causing redness and swelling

c)

Immune Response

3.

Specific targeting and elimination of pathogens by immune cells

d)

Stomach acid

4.

Acidic environment in the stomach that destroys pathogens

106.
What sort of pathogen causes influenza (flu)?
a)
A bacterium
b)
A virus
c)
A fungus
d)
A protist
107.

Which blood cells fight infection?

a)

Red

b)

White

c)

Plasma

d)

Platelets

108.

Part of the body's defense against pathogens in which cells of the immune system react to each kind of pathogen with a defense targeted specifically at that pathogen is called:

a)

Protective Barrier

b)

Inflammatory Response

c)

Immune Response

d)

Stomach acid

109.

Living things are made up of units called

a)

DNA

b)

Cells

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Seeds

110.

What is the main purpose of a vaccine?

a)

To cure diseases

b)

To diagnose diseases

c)

To prevent diseases

d)

To treat symptoms

111.

What is the role of memory cells in the immune system?

a)

To remember and quickly respond to pathogens the body has previously encountered

b)

To store information about the body's cells

c)

To produce antibodies continuously

d)

To memorize the genetic code of pathogens

112.

What is the function of antibodies in the immune system?

a)

To produce hormones

b)

To identify and fight pathogens

c)

To regulate body temperature

d)

To support cell division

113.

How can vaccines prevent outbreaks of diseases?

a)

By treating all symptoms of the disease

b)

By providing immunity to the entire population

c)

By creating herd immunity when a large portion of the population is vaccinated

d)

By killing all pathogens in the environment

114.

Which of the following is a characteristic of autoimmune diseases?

a)

The immune system ignores foreign invaders

b)

The immune system attacks the body's own cells

c)

The immune system is overly active against pathogens

d)

The immune system produces too many antibodies