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Chemistry Final Exam - Part 1 Multiple Choice

Total questions: 232

Worksheet time: 8hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statements about a chemical change is true?

a)

A. A chemical change results in a change in energy AND a change in the amount of matter.

b)

B. A chemical change results in a change in energy but not a change in the amount of matter.

c)

C. A chemical change results in a change in the amount of matter but not a change in energy.

d)

D. A chemical change results in neither a change in energy OR a change in the amount of matter.

2.

What is purposefully being manipulated and changed in an experiment is the .

a)

constant

b)

dependent variable

c)

control group

d)

independent variable

3.

How many significant figures are in the measurement 0.0051 mL?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

4.

How many significant figures are in the measurement 906 mmHg?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

5.

You are conducting an experiment and find the volume of a substance to be 4.52 mL. If the known volume of the substance is 4.99 mL, find the percentage error in your measurement.

a)

-10.4%

b)

-9.42%

c)

10.4%

d)

9.42%

6.

How many valence electrons does an atom of aluminum typically have?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

13

d)

27

7.

You can determine the identity of an element if you know how many it has.

a)

protons

b)

neutrons

c)

electrons

d)

energy levels

8.

The nucleus of an atom has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT that it

a)

is positively charged.

b)

contains nearly all of the atom’s volume.

c)

is very dense.

d)

contains nearly all of the atom’s mass.

9.

The nucleus of isotope A of an element has a larger mass than isotope B of the same element. The number of protons in the nucleus of isotope A is the number of protons in the nucleus of isotope B.

a)

less than

b)

greater than

c)

the same as

10.

The nucleus of isotope A of an element has a larger mass than isotope B of the same element. The number of neutrons in the nucleus of isotope A is the number of neutrons in the nucleus of isotope B.

a)

less than

b)

greater than

c)

the same as

11.

Which of the following elements would be the most reactive?

a)

Bromine

b)

Silicon

c)

Nickel

d)

Krypton

12.

Anions have electrons and thus have a charge.

a)

lost; negative

b)

gained; negative

c)

lost; positive

d)

gained; positive

13.

Cations have electrons and thus have a charge.

a)

lost; negative

b)

gained; negative

c)

lost; positive

d)

gained; positive

14.

Which of the following groups of elements would most likely have the greatest electronegativity?

a)

Halogens

b)

Alkali metals

c)

Alkaline earth metals

d)

Transition metals

15.

Which of the following groups of elements would most likely have the least electronegativity?

a)

Halogens

b)

Alkali metals

c)

Alkaline earth metals

d)

Transition metals

16.

Metals will react as you move down and left in the periodic table. Nonmetals will react as you move up and right.

a)

increase; increase

b)

decrease; increase

c)

increase; decrease

d)

decrease; decrease

17.

Identify the number of energy levels in an element with this electron configuration: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

18.

Identify the total amount of electrons in an element with this electron configuration: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3.

a)

3

b)

5

c)

11

d)

15

19.

Identify the number of valence electrons in an element with this electron configuration: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3.

a)

3

b)

5

c)

11

d)

15

20.

Consider the periodic trend seen for ionic radius. Atoms that lose electrons tend to become ____. Atoms that gain electrons tend to become ____.

a)

smaller; smaller

b)

larger; smaller

c)

smaller; larger

d)

larger; larger

21.

The picture to the right best represents a(n) bond.

a)

hydrogen

b)

ionic

c)

metallic

d)

covalent

22.

Which of the following statements is true about O2?

a)

The two atoms share 4 electrons.

b)

It has a double bond.

c)

Its electronegativity difference is 0.

d)

All of the above are true.

23.

The forces between different molecules are considered intermolecular while the forces within molecules between the atoms are intramolecular. Chemical bonds are the same thing as forces.

a)

Intermolecular; intramolecular, intramolecular

b)

Intramolecular; intermolecular; intramolecular

c)

Intermolecular, intramolecular, intermolecular

d)

Intramolecular; intermolecular; intermolecular

24.

Which of the following statements is true about VSEPR theory?

a)

It is the tendency for electron pairs to want to be as far apart as possible because valence electrons are repulsed by each other.

b)

It is the tendency for electron pairs to want to be as far apart as possible because valence electrons are attracted to each other.

c)

It is the tendency for electron pairs to want to be as close together as possible because valence electrons are repulsed by each other.

d)

It is the tendency for electron pairs to want to be as close together as possible because valence electrons are attracted to each other.

25.

The most dominant intermolecular force at work between two CO₂ molecules would be.

a)

Hydrogen bonds

b)

Covalent bonds

c)

London dispersion forces

d)

Dipole-dipole forces

26.

How many atoms of oxygen are represented in 2Pb(SO₄)₂?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

8

d)

16

27.

Substance A is a and Substance B is a.

a)

reactant; reactant

b)

product; reactant

c)

reactant; product

d)

product; product

28.

How long did it take for the reaction to reach equilibrium?

a)

1 min

b)

1.5 min

c)

3 min

d)

5 min

29.

What would most likely happen to the point of equilibrium if more product was added 1 minute after equilibrium was reached?

a)

The graph will show a sharp rise in the B line.

b)

A new equilibrium will be established.

c)

Both substances A and B will increase in concentration.

d)

All of the above will most likely happen.

30.

According to Le Chatelier’s principle, if the temperature of an exothermic reaction at equilibrium is increased, what will happen?

a)

The forward reaction will be favored.

b)

The reaction rate will increase.

c)

The reverse reaction will be favored.

d)

No change will occur.

31.

What is the independent variable(s) in this experiment?

a)

The variable that is changed or controlled by the experimenter

b)

The variable that is measured in the experiment

c)

The variable that remains constant

d)

The result of the experiment

32.

b. What is the dependent variable(s) in this experiment?

a)

The variable that is measured in the experiment

b)

The variable that is changed by the scientist

c)

The variable that remains constant

d)

The variable that is not involved in the experiment

33.

c. Write a hypothesis for this experiment.

a)

A hypothesis is a possible explanation for an observation that can be tested.

b)

A hypothesis is a list of materials needed for the experiment.

c)

A hypothesis is the final conclusion of the experiment.

d)

A hypothesis is a summary of the experiment's results.

34.

What is the control group in this experiment?

a)

The group that receives the experimental treatment

b)

The group that is not exposed to the experimental treatment

c)

The group that receives a placebo

d)

The group that is measured after the experiment

35.

What is the experimental group(s) in this experiment?

a)

The group that receives the treatment or variable being tested

b)

The group that does not receive the treatment

c)

Both groups in the experiment

d)

The group that receives a placebo

36.

List two constants in this experiment.

a)

Temperature and volume

b)

Mass and time

c)

Pressure and temperature

d)

Volume and color

37.

Convert 3.6 tablespoons to L.

4 lines
38.

Butane (C4H10) can be described using which of the following statements involving the terms atom, element, and compound?

a)

Butane is an atom made up of elements carbon and hydrogen.

b)

Butane is an element made up of atoms of carbon and hydrogen.

c)

Butane is a compound made up of atoms of the elements carbon and hydrogen.

d)

Butane is a compound made up of only one type of atom.

39.

Use the information provided and a periodic table to complete the chart on your answer sheet. Which of the following tools is most essential for this task?

a)

A calculator

b)

A periodic table

c)

A ruler

d)

A protractor

40.

A Bohr model for an atom of magnesium with a mass number of 24 would have how many protons, neutrons, and electrons?

a)

12 protons, 12 neutrons, 12 electrons

b)

12 protons, 12 neutrons, 24 electrons

c)

24 protons, 12 neutrons, 12 electrons

d)

12 protons, 24 neutrons, 12 electrons

41.

Differentiate between a nuclear reaction and a chemical reaction.

a)

A nuclear reaction involves changes in the nucleus, while a chemical reaction involves changes in electron arrangement.

b)

A nuclear reaction involves changes in electron arrangement, while a chemical reaction involves changes in the nucleus.

c)

Both nuclear and chemical reactions involve only changes in electron arrangement.

d)

Both nuclear and chemical reactions involve only changes in the nucleus.

42.

Define the three types of nuclear reactions that can occur.

a)

Fission, fusion, and radioactive decay

b)

Combustion, oxidation, and reduction

c)

Photosynthesis, respiration, and fermentation

d)

Evaporation, condensation, and precipitation

43.

An electron moves from the 2nd energy level to the 1st. This would be considered:

a)

Absorption

b)

Emission

44.

Which of the following correctly identifies the error in the electron configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 3p6 4s2 4p5 for Bromine and provides the correct configuration?

a)

The configuration repeats 3p6 and should be 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p5.

b)

The configuration should have 3d10 before 3p6.

c)

The configuration should end with 4p6, not 4p5.

d)

The configuration should have 4s2 after 4p5.

45.

Metals tend to form cations and nonmetals tend to form anions because:

a)

metals lose electrons easily while nonmetals gain electrons easily

b)

metals gain electrons easily while nonmetals lose electrons easily

c)

both metals and nonmetals lose electrons easily

d)

both metals and nonmetals gain electrons easily

46.

On the periodic table, the atomic radii of elements tend to increase as you move down a group and left in a period. This pattern is seen because:

a)

Electrons are added to higher energy levels and there is less effective nuclear charge across a period.

b)

Electrons are removed from lower energy levels and there is more effective nuclear charge across a period.

c)

Protons are added to the nucleus, making the atom smaller as you go down a group.

d)

Neutrons are added to the nucleus, making the atom larger as you go across a period.

47.

The statement “bonding is a spectrum” means that:

a)

All bonds are either purely ionic or purely covalent.

b)

Bonding types exist on a continuous range between ionic and covalent.

c)

Bonding only occurs in molecules with similar atoms.

d)

Bonding is always unpredictable.

48.

The difference between an ionic bond and a polar covalent bond is:

a)

Ionic bonds involve the transfer of electrons, while polar covalent bonds involve unequal sharing of electrons.

b)

Ionic bonds involve equal sharing of electrons, while polar covalent bonds involve the transfer of electrons.

c)

Both involve equal sharing of electrons.

d)

Both involve the transfer of electrons.

49.

44. Write the name or chemical formula for each compound on your answer sheet.

a)

Write the name or chemical formula for each compound.

b)

Balance the chemical equation for each compound.

c)

Draw the structural formula for each compound.

d)

List the uses of each compound.

50.

Place each letter below in its correct location in the chart on your answer sheet. Which of the following is the correct placement?

a)

Option A

b)

Option B

c)

Option C

d)

Option D

51.

Complete each of the following equations. Then balance. a. Combustion: CH4 + O2 → b. Double: Pb(NO3)2 + NaCl →

a)

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O b. Pb(NO3)2 + 2NaCl → PbCl2 + 2NaNO3

b)

CH4 + O2 → CO2 + H2O b. Pb(NO3)2 + NaCl → PbCl2 + NaNO3

c)

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O b. Pb(NO3)2 + NaCl → PbCl2 + 2NaNO3

d)

CH4 + O2 → CO2 + 2H2O b. Pb(NO3)2 + 2NaCl → PbCl2 + NaNO3

52.

Write the chemical equation for each of the following reactions with appropriate notation. Then balance and classify. Aqueous copper (II) chloride reacts with aqueous lithium hydroxide to make solid copper (II) hydroxide and aqueous lithium chloride.

a)

CuCl2(aq) + 2LiOH(aq) → Cu(OH)2(s) + 2LiCl(aq)

b)

CuCl2(aq) + LiOH(aq) → Cu(OH)2(aq) + 2LiCl(s)

c)

CuCl2(s) + 2LiOH(aq) → Cu(OH)2(aq) + 2LiCl(aq)

d)

CuCl2(aq) + 2LiOH(aq) → Cu(OH)2(aq) + 2LiCl(aq)

53.

The amount of product formed in a reaction is always determined by the limiting reactant because:

a)

the limiting reactant is completely consumed first, stopping the reaction.

b)

the excess reactant determines the product amount.

c)

all reactants are always used up equally.

d)

the product forms only from the excess reactant.

54.

Consider the following reaction between lithium hydroxide and carbon dioxide. 2LiOH(s) + CO2(g) → Li2CO3(s) + H2O(l) a. Identify the limiting reactant if you start with 0.963 mol of LiOH and 0.571 mol of CO2.

a)

LiOH is the limiting reactant.

b)

CO2 is the limiting reactant.

c)

Both are limiting reactants.

d)

There is no limiting reactant.

55.

49. Consider the following reaction between lithium hydroxide and carbon dioxide. 2LiOH(s) + CO2(g) → Li2CO3(s) + H2O(l) b. Determine how many moles of excess reactant will remain unused.

a)

0.0895 mol CO2.

b)

0.0450 mol LiOH.

c)

0.1200 mol CO2.

d)

0.0100 mol LiOH.

56.

Consider the following reaction between lithium hydroxide and carbon dioxide. 2LiOH(s) + CO2(g) → Li2CO3(s) + H2O(l). How many moles of each product are formed?

a)

0.4815 mol Li2CO3 and 0.4815 mol H2O

b)

0.2407 mol Li2CO3 and 0.9630 mol H2O

c)

0.9630 mol Li2CO3 and 0.2407 mol H2O

d)

1.000 mol Li2CO3 and 0.500 mol H2O

57.

Find the molar masses of each product formed.

a)

Li2CO3: 73.89 g/mol H2O: 18.02 g/mol

b)

Li2CO3: 60.00 g/mol H2O: 20.00 g/mol

c)

Li2CO3: 100.00 g/mol H2O: 15.00 g/mol

d)

Li2CO3: 50.00 g/mol H2O: 25.00 g/mol

58.

Find the masses, in grams, of each product formed.

a)

Li2CO3: 0.4815 mol × 73.89 g/mol = 35.59 g H2O: 0.4815 mol × 18.02 g/mol = 8.68 g

b)

Li2CO3: 0.4815 mol × 60.00 g/mol = 28.89 g H2O: 0.4815 mol × 20.00 g/mol = 9.63 g

c)

Li2CO3: 0.4815 mol × 80.00 g/mol = 38.52 g H2O: 0.4815 mol × 15.00 g/mol = 7.22 g

d)

Li2CO3: 0.4815 mol × 70.00 g/mol = 33.71 g H2O: 0.4815 mol × 19.00 g/mol = 9.15 g

59.

If this reaction is conducted in a lab and 7.85 g of water are actually produced, what is the percent yield?

a)

90.5%

b)

75.2%

c)

82.7%

d)

97.1%

60.

BONUS: The compound that would mostly form between carbon and fluorine would be:

a)

Ionic, because of the large difference in electronegativity.

b)

Covalent, because both are nonmetals and share electrons.

c)

Ionic, because carbon easily loses electrons to fluorine.

d)

Covalent, because fluorine donates electrons to carbon.

61.

BONUS: Consider the compound that would mostly form between carbon and fluorine. b. Which of the following is the correct Lewis structure for the compound that would form?

a)

Lewis structure of CF4

b)

Lewis structure of C2F2

c)

Lewis structure of CF2

d)

Lewis structure of C2F4

62.

Consider the compound that would mostly form between carbon and fluorine. Write the chemical formula for the compound.

a)

CF4

b)

C2F2

c)

CF2

d)

C2F4

63.

Consider the compound that would mostly form between carbon and fluorine. Write the name for the compound.

a)

Carbon tetrafluoride

b)

Carbon difluoride

c)

Carbon hexafluoride

d)

Carbon monoxide

64.

BONUS: Consider the compound that would mostly form between carbon and fluorine. e. Predict its molecular shape (if applicable). If not applicable, explain why not.

a)

Tetrahedral

b)

Linear

c)

Trigonal planar

d)

Bent

65.

Consider the compound that would mostly form between carbon and fluorine. Is the compound polar? Use the proper notation to identify the partial charges.

a)

Yes, the compound is polar. Carbon has a partial positive charge (δ+) and fluorine has a partial negative charge (δ−).

b)

No, the compound is nonpolar. Both atoms have equal partial charges.

c)

Yes, the compound is polar. Fluorine has a partial positive charge (δ+) and carbon has a partial negative charge (δ−).

d)

No, the compound is nonpolar. Fluorine has a partial positive charge (δ+) and carbon has a partial negative charge (δ−).

66.

Identify the dominant intermolecular force at work in the substance.

a)

London dispersion forces (induced dipole-induced dipole interactions) are the dominant intermolecular force in CF4.

b)

Hydrogen bonding is the dominant intermolecular force in CF4.

c)

Dipole-dipole interactions are the dominant intermolecular force in CF4.

d)

Ion-dipole forces are the dominant intermolecular force in CF4.

67.

In a double replacement, ____________________

a)

The reactants are usually a metal and a nonmetal

b)

One of the reactants is often water

c)

The reactants are generally 2 ionic compounds in aqueous solutions

d)

Energy in the form of light or heat is often produced

68.

Which of the following statements is NOT true about what happens in all chemical reactions?

a)

The ways in which atoms are joined together change

b)

New atoms are formed as products

c)

The starting substances are called reactants

d)

The bonds of reactants are broken and new bonds of products are formed

69.

Chemical equations must be balanced to satisfy ____.

a)

The law of definite proportions

b)

The law of multiple proportions

c)

The law of conservation of mass

d)

Avogadro's principle

70.

What are the coefficients that will balance the skeleton equation below?

AlCl3 + NaOH → Al(OH)3 + NaCl

a)

1,3,1,3

b)

3,1,3,1

c)

1,1,1,3

d)

1,3,3,1

71.

How many moles of aluminum are needed to react completely with 1.2 mol of FeO?

2Al(s) + 3FeO(s) → 3Fe(s) + Al2O3(s)

a)

1.2 mol

b)

0.8 mol

c)

1.6 mol

d)

2.4 mol

72.

When an equation is used to calculate the amount of product that could form during a reaction, then the value obtained is called the ____.

a)

Actual yield

b)

Percent yield

c)

Minimum yield

d)

Theoretical yield

73.

The equation 2C3H7OH + 9O2 → 6CO2 + 8H2O is an example of which type of reaction?

a)

Combustion reaction

b)

Single replacement reaction

c)

Double replacement reaction

d)

Decomposition reaction

74.

A process that absorbs heat is a(n) _________.

a)

Exothermic process

b)

Polythermic process

c)

Endothermic process

d)

Ectothermic process

75.
What is the volume in this buret?
a)
24.1mL
b)
24.3mL
c)
24.2L
d)
24.2mL
76.
What kelvin temperature is equivalent to -24 0C?
a)
a. 226 K
b)
b. 249 K
c)
c. 273 K
d)
d. 297 K
77.
The atomic mass of titanium is 47.88 atomic mass units. This atomic mass represents the 
a)
a. total mass of all of the protons and neutrons in the atom of Ti
b)
b. total mass of all the protons, neutrons, electrons in an atom of Ti
c)
c.  weighted average mass of the most abundant isotope of Ti
d)
d. weighted average mass of all the naturally occurring isotopes of Ti
78.
More than two-thirds of the elements are classified as
a)
a. nonmetals
b)
b. metals
c)
c. metalloids
d)
d. noble gases
79.
The arrangement of the elements in the present Periodic Table is based on atomic
a)
a. mass
b)
b. number
c)
c. radius
d)
d. density
80.
Atoms of elements in a group on the Periodic Table have similar chemical properties.  This similarity is most closely related to the atoms'
a)
a. number of principal energy levels
b)
b. number of valence electrons
c)
c. atomic numbers
d)
d. atomic masses
81.
The elements in the modern Periodic Table are arranged according to their
a)
a. atomic number
b)
b. oxidation number
c)
c. atomic mass
d)
d. nuclear mass
82.
Which part of the Periodic Table contains elements with the strongest metallic properties?
a)
a. upper left
b)
b.  upper right
c)
c.  lower left
d)
d. lower right
83.
In the ground state, atoms of the elements in Group 15 of the Periodic Table all have the same number of
a)
a. filled principal energy levels
b)
b. occupied principal energy levels
c)
c. neutrons in the nucleus
d)
d. electrons in the valence shell
84.
Which list of elements contains two metalloids?
a)
a. Si, Ge, Po, Pb
b)
b. As, Bi, Br, Kr
c)
c. Si, P, S, Cl
d)
d. Po, Sb, I, Xe
85.
According to the Periodic Table, which element has more than one positive oxidation state (number)?
a)
a. cadmium
b)
b. iron
c)
c. silver
d)
d. zinc
86.
As the elements in Period 3 are considered from left to right, they tend to
a)
a. lose electrons more readily and increase in metallic character
b)
b. lose electrons more readily and increase in nonmetallic character
c)
c. gain electrons more readily and increase in metallic character
d)
gain electrons more readily and increase in nonmetallic character
87.
As the elements in Group 2 are considered in order of increasing atomic number, the atomic radius of each successive element increases. This increase is primarily due to an increase in the number of
a)
a. occupied principal energy levels
b)
b. electrons in the outermost shell
c)
c. neutrons in the nucleus
d)
d. unpaired electrons
88.
Which element has chemical properties that are most similar to the chemical properties of sodium?
a)
a. Mg
b)
b. K
c)
c. Se
d)
d. Cl
89.
An element that is malleable and a good conductor of heat and electricity could have an atomic number of
a)
a. 16
b)
b. 18
c)
c. 29
d)
d. 35
90.
A substance that is composed only of atoms having the same atomic number is classified as
a)
a. a compound
b)
b. an element
c)
c. a homogeneous mixture
d)
d. a heterogeneous mixture
91.
Which element is a noble gas?
a)
a. krypton
b)
b. chlorine
c)
c. antimony
d)
d. manganese
92.
All the elements in Period 3 have the same number of 
a)
a. occupied sublevels
b)
b. principal energy levels
c)
c. electrons
d)
d. protons
93.
Which type of matter is composed of two or more different elements that are chemically combined in a definite ratio?
a)
a. a solution
b)
b. a compound
c)
c. a homogeneous mixture
d)
d. a heterogeneous mixture
94.
Which terms are used to identify pure substances?
a)
a. an element & a mixture
b)
b. an element and a compound
c)
c. a solution & a mixture
d)
d. a solution & a compound
95.
An element in an atom moves from the ground state to an excited state, the potential energy of the electron
a)
a. decreases
b)
b. increases
c)
c. remains the same
96.
What causes the emission of radiant energy that produces the characteristic spectral lines?
a)
a. neutron absorption by the nucleus
b)
b. gamma ray emission from the nucleus
c)
c. movement of electrons to higher energy levels
d)
return of electrons to lower energy levels
97.
Which is an electron configuration for an atom of chlorine in the excited state?
a)
a. 2-8-7
b)
b. 2-8-2
c)
c. 2-8-6-1
d)
d. 2-8-7-1
98.
A chemical bond between two atoms results from a simultaneous 
a)
a. attraction by the protons for the neutrons
b)
b. attraction by the two nuclei for the electrons
c)
c. repulsion by the valence electrons of the atoms 
d)
d. repulsion by the protons of the two nuclei
99.
When a metal atom combines with a nonmetal atom, the nonmetal atom will
a)
a. lose electrons and decrease in size
b)
b. lose electrons and increase in size
c)
c. gain electrons and decrease in size
d)
d. gain electrons and increase in size
100.
Covalent bonds are formed when electrons are
a)
a. transferred from one atom to another
b)
b. captured by the nucleus
c)
c. mobile within a metal
d)
d. shared between two atoms
101.
Metallic bonding occurs betwee atoms of
a)
a. fluorine
b)
b. neon
c)
c. sulfur
d)
d. copper
102.
The atomic number of an atom is always equal to the total number of 
a)
a. neutrons in the nucleus
b)
b. protons in the nucleus
c)
c. neutrons plus protons in the atom
d)
d. protons plus electrons in the atom
103.
All the atoms of argon have the same
a)
a. mass number
b)
b. atomic number
c)
c. number of neutrons
d)
d. number of nucleons
104.
Mobile electrons are a distinguishing characteristic of
a)
a. an ionic bond
b)
b. an electrovalent bond
c)
c. a metallic bond
d)
d. a covalent bond
105.
a)
a. A
b)
b. B
c)
c. C
d)
d. D
106.
The atomic mass of an element is defined as the weighted average mass of that element's 
a)
a. most abundant isotope
b)
b. least abundant isotope
c)
c. naturally occurring isotopes
d)
d. radioactive isotopes
107.
The nucleus is part of the atom that
a)
a. consists mostly of empty space
b)
b. has a negative charge
c)
c. occupies most of the atom's volume
d)
d. contains most of the atom's total mass
108.
What is the mass number of an atom which contains 21 electrons, 21 protons, and 24 neutrons?
a)
a. 21
b)
b. 42
c)
c. 45
d)
d. 66
109.
What can be determine if only the atomic number of an atom is known?
a)
a. the total number of neutrons in the atom, only
b)
b. the total number of protons in the atom, only
c)
c. the total number of protons and the total number of neutrons in the atom
d)
d. the total number of protons and the total number of electrons in the atom
110.
Which statement best describes the nucleus of an aluminum atom?
a)
a. It has a charge of +13 and is surrounded by a total of 10 electrons
b)
b. It has a charge of +13 and is surrounded by a total of 13 electrons
c)
c. It has a charge of -13 and is surrounded by a total of 10 electrons
d)
d. It has a charge of -13 and is surrounded by a total of 13 electrons
111.
What is the total number of neutrons in an atom of 7Li3?
a)
a. 7
b)
b. 10
c)
c. 3
d)
d. 4
112.
What is the total number of electrons in a Mg2+ ion?
a)
a. 10
b)
b. 2
c)
c. 12
d)
d. 24
113.
A K atom differs from a K+ ion in that the K atom has one
a)
a. more electron
b)
b. less electron
c)
c. more proton
d)
d. less proton
114.
What is the net charge of an ion that consists of 10 electrons, 11 protons, and 12 neutrons?
a)
a. 1+
b)
b. 2+
c)
c. 1-
d)
d. 2-
115.
Different isotopes of the same element must have a different 
a)
a. mass number
b)
b. atomic number
c)
c. number of protons
d)
d. number of electrons
116.
Atoms of different isotopes of the same element differ in their total number of 
a)
a. electrons
b)
b. neutrons
c)
c. protons
d)
d. valence electrons
117.

Which group typically forms a -2 ionic charge?

a)

Group 3A

b)

Group 2A

c)

Group 7A

d)

Group 6A

118.

Which group typically forms a +3 ionic charge?

a)

Group 3A

b)

Group 2A

c)

Group 7A

d)

Group 6A

119.

Which group typically forms a +1 ionic charge?

a)

Group 1A

b)

Group 2A

c)

Group 7A

d)

Group 4A

120.

Periodic law states that the elements are arranged according to their atomic ________ so that elements with similar chemical properties are in the same ________ and properties repeat periodically.

a)

numbers, period

b)

masses, period

c)

masses, group

d)

numbers, group

121.

Where are the metalloids found on the Periodic Table?

a)

to the left of the stairstep

b)

along/on the stairstep

c)

to the right of the stairstep

122.

Which elements are to the LEFT of the staircase (yellow)?

a)

metals

b)

nonmetals

c)

metalloids

123.

Which elements are to the RIGHT of the staircase (red)?

a)

nonmetals

b)

metals

c)

metalloids

124.

Which elements are to the RIGHT of the staircase (red)?

a)

nonmetals

b)

metals

c)

metalloids

125.

The horizonal rows on the Periodic Table are called...

a)

groups

b)

period

126.
Silicon is a 
a)
Metal
b)
Nonmetal
c)
Metalloid
127.

Elements that share similar physical and chemical properties are most likely located in the same...

a)

period

b)

group

128.

Which process is an example of a physical change?

a)

Cutting Carrots into pieces and mixed in a salad

b)

A peanut butter and jelly sandwich being digested

c)

Sodium metal and water combining to form a compound and a gas

d)

Sodium metal and chlorine gas combined to form table salt

129.

Which process is an example of a physical change?

a)

Burning

b)

Rusting

c)

Flattening

d)

Decomposing

130.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a physical change?
a)
crumpled paper
b)
pencil sharpening
c)
shrunken clothing
d)
sour milk
131.
Which of the following is a sign that a chemical reaction has occurred?
a)
change in shape
b)
melting
c)

formation of a gas/fizzing

d)

dissolving in water

132.

Which of the following physical changes shows a change in a substance's STATE OF MATTER?

a)
a piece of paper being torn in half
b)
clay being molded into a bowl
c)
an ice cube being crushed
d)
liquid water becoming steam
133.

Table salt (NaCl) is a ...

a)
Element
b)
Compound
c)
Homogeneous Mixture
d)
Heterogeneous Mixture
134.

Aluminum metal is a ...

a)
Element
b)
Compound
c)
Homogeneous Mixture
d)
Heterogeneous Mixture
135.

Kool-Aid is a ...

a)
Element
b)
Compound
c)
Homogeneous Mixture
d)
Heterogeneous Mixture
136.
Italian Salad Dressing is a . . .
a)
heterogeneous mixture
b)
homogeneous mixture
c)
Pure Substance
d)
Compound
137.

A mixture that is NOT evenly distributed (has 2 or more phases) is called ....

a)
Compounded
b)
Homogenous
c)
Heterogenous
d)
Salty
138.

How many valence electrons does Aluminum Have?

a)

1 Valence electron

b)

2 Valence electron

c)

3 Valence electron

d)

4 Valence electron

e)

5 Valence electron

139.

What ionic charge does Potassium form when it becomes an ion?

a)

-3

b)

-1

c)

+1

d)

+3

140.

What ionic charge does Sulfur form when it becomes an ion?

a)

+2

b)

-2

c)

+1

d)

0

141.

How many valence electrons does Nitrogen Have?

a)

1 Valence electron

b)

2 Valence electron

c)

3 Valence electron

d)

4 Valence electron

e)

5 Valence electron

142.

Most atoms are trying to reach a full valence shell (octet) with ____ valence electrons.

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

32

143.

A limiting reactant is a reactant that.....

a)

runs out during a chemical reaction

b)

causes a reaction to stop

c)

determines the amount of products that can be made

d)

all of these

144.

How are covalent bonds formed?

a)

Covalent bonds are formed when two atoms transfer electrons.

b)

Covalent bonds are formed when two atoms repel each other.

c)

Covalent bonds are formed when two atoms attract each other.

d)

Covalent bonds are formed when two atoms share electrons.

145.

What does the visible light spectrum cover?

a)

The wavelengths that can be seen by the human eye.

b)

The wavelengths that cannot be seen by the human eye.

c)

The wavelengths used in radio communication.

d)

The wavelengths that are used in X-rays.

146.

Which wavelengths of the EM spectrum are dangerous to life?

a)

radio, micro and gamma

b)

gamma, infrared, and UV

c)

Infrared, UV and X Rays

d)

UV, X rays and Gamma

147.

F2 + LiBr → LiF + Br2F_2\ +\ LiBr\ \rightarrow\ LiF\ +\ Br_2  

a)

Synthesis/ Combination

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

e)

Combustion

148.

AlBr3+ NaOH → Al(OH)3 + NaBrAlBr_{3_{ }}+\ NaOH\ \rightarrow\ Al\left(OH\right)_3\ +\ NaBr  

a)

Synthesis/ Combination

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

e)

Combustion

149.

NaClO3 → NaCl + O2NaClO_3\ \rightarrow\ NaCl\ +\ O_2  

a)

Synthesis/ Combination

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

e)

Combustion

150.

K + Br2 → KBrK\ +\ Br_2\ \rightarrow\ KBr  

a)

Synthesis/ Combination

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

e)

Combustion

151.

Balance the following chemical equation: ___ Al + ___ O 2_2 → ___ Al 2_2 O 3_3

a)

2, 1, 2

b)

4, 3, 2

c)

1, 1, 1

d)

2, 3, 1

152.
The mass of one mole of substance is called...
a)
molecular mass
b)
mole constant
c)
molar mass
d)
atomic weight
153.

A mole of any substance is how many particles?

a)

6.02 x 1023

b)

6.02 x 10-23

c)

602 million

d)

602

154.

When calculating molar mass for an element, which number do you need to look at on the periodic table?

a)

Atomic number

b)

Atomic Mass

c)

Atomic particles

d)

Avogardo's Number

155.
When nuclei decay, massive amounts of __________ is released.
a)
energy
b)
jello
c)
protons
d)
neutrons
156.
Alpha particles have a _____ charge.
a)
+2
b)
0
c)
+1
d)
-1
157.
a)
Group 1
b)
Group 17
c)
Group 2
d)
Group 18
158.
Rows on the period table are called _____ while columns are called _____.
a)
groups, families
b)
groups, periods
c)
periods, groups
d)
families, groups
159.
Rows on the period table are called _____ while columns are called _____.
a)
groups, families
b)
groups, periods
c)
periods, groups
d)
families, groups
160.

Which is the correct molecular structure for carbon dioxide?

a)
b)
c)
d)
161.

Which of the following is the correct electron dot structure for nitrogen?

a)
b)
c)
d)
162.

This could be the dot diagram of

a)

Mg

b)

Cl

c)

C

d)

O

163.

What are valence electrons?

a)

The total number of electrons in an atom

b)

The number of electrons in the outermost shell

c)

The number of electrons in the second shell

d)

The number of protons in the outermost shell

164.

What type of bond contains atoms with "partial" charges? (Example: δ+)

a)

Polar Covalent

b)

Non-Polar Covalent

c)

Ionic

165.

What are the seven diatomic elements?

a)

H2, Cl2, Br2, O2, N2, I2, F2

b)

H2, Cl2, I2, F2, Hg2, Br2, Fe2

c)

H2, Cu2, Ni2, B2, O2, I2, Fe2

166.
How many valence electrons does nitrogen have?
a)
3
b)
2
c)
5
d)
1
167.
A covalent bond in which electrons are shared unequally is:
a)
polar
b)
a double bond
c)
ionic
d)
polyatomic
168.
This orbital diagram represents:  
a)
C
b)
B
c)
N
d)
O
169.
This orbital diagram represents:  
a)
C
b)
B
c)
N
d)
O
170.

If an atom has no charge, which of the following must be true?

a)

It has more neutrons than protons or electrons.

b)

There are only neutrons inside the atom.

c)

Its number of protons is equal to its number of electrons.

d)

The neutrons in the atom outnumber the electrons and protons.

171.
What two types of atoms make a covalent bond?
a)
2 Nonmetals
b)
1 Nonmetal and 1 Metal
c)
2 Metals
d)
2 Noble Gases
172.
How many valence electrons does calcium have?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
6
d)
7
173.
The octet rule means that all valence shells want to have the number...... 
a)
1
b)
9
c)
8
d)
16
174.
MgCl2
a)
Ionic
b)
Covalent
c)
Polyatomic Ion
d)
Metallic 
175.
CO2
a)
Ionic
b)
Covalent
c)
Polyatomic Ion 
d)
Metallic 
176.
NaCl
a)
Ionic
b)
Covalent
c)
Metallic
d)
Polyatomic Ion 
177.
What is a anion? 
a)
a metal with a negative (-) charge
b)
a non-metal with a negative (-) charge 
c)
a metal with a positive (+) charge 
d)
a non-metal with a positive (+) charge
178.
What is a cation? 
a)
a metal with a negative (-) charge
b)
a non-metal with a negative (-) charge 
c)
a metal with a positive (+) charge 
d)
a non-metal with a positive (+) charge
179.

What type of bonding does this picture show?

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

180.

What kind of bonds are shown here?

a)

Covalent

b)

Ionic

181.

Valence electrons are shared

a)

Ionic bonds

b)

Covalent bonds

182.

Valence electrons are transferred

a)

Ionic bonds

b)

Covalent bonds

183.
What is the formula for Boyle's Law?
a)
P1V1=P2V2
b)
P1V1/P2V2
c)
P1V2=P2V1
d)
P1/V1=P2/V2
184.
The relationship of which two variables are compared in Boyle's Law?
a)
pressure & volume
b)
volume & temperature
c)
temperature & pressure
d)
volume & moles (amount of gas)
185.
What is the formula Charles' Law?
a)
V = T
b)
VT = VT
c)
T1 / V1 = T2 / V2
d)
V1 / T1 = V2 / T2
186.
Determine the number of moles in a container of gas at STP with a volume of 99.2 L. 
a)
V1/n1 = V2/n2
b)
PV = nRT
c)
P1/T1 = P2/T2
d)
V1/T1 = V2/T2
187.
In order to convert to Kelvin, you add ______ to the Celsius measurement.
a)
372
b)
273
c)
237
d)
732
188.
What is 50 C in Kelvin?
a)
223
b)
323
c)
100
d)
50
189.
100 degrees Celsius is equal to _______ Kelvin. 
a)
0 K
b)
273 K
c)
173 K
d)
373 K
190.
In the ideal gas law, which variable represents the gas constant?
a)
n
b)
R
c)
T
d)
V
191.

Which of these is NOT a unit of pressure?

a)

cm3

b)

torr

c)

psi

d)

mmHg

192.

Find the unit of volume (multi answers are good!)

a)

psi

b)

cm3

c)

ml

d)

lm

e)

atm

193.

K,F,C all are units for....

a)

temp

b)

vol

c)

pressure

d)

weather

194.

PSI, torr, mmHG, atm all are units for....

a)

temp

b)

vol

c)

pressure

d)

weather

195.

ml, L, cm3 all are units for....

a)

temp

b)

vol

c)

pressure

d)

weather

196.

How would you convert 34oC to Kelvin?

a)

K = oC + 273

b)

oC = K + 273

c)

K = oC - 273

d)

oC = K + 273

197.

1 atm= 760 mm Hg = ? kPa

a)

75.01

b)

90.02

c)

101.3

d)

110.5

198.

What is the name for this acid HNO2

a)

hydronitric acid

b)

nitrous acid

c)

nitric acid

d)

nitrate acid

199.

what is the name for this acid HF

a)

fluoric acid

b)

hydrofluoric acid

c)

fluorous acid

200.
Contains the maximum amount of dissolved solute
a)
unsaturated solution
b)
supersaturated solution
c)
saturated solution
201.
What is a solvent?
a)
The substance that does the dissolving in a solution.
b)
The substance that is being dissolved in a solution.
c)
The mixing of different substances.
d)
The process in which neutral molecules lose or gain electrons
202.
This is the part of a solution that dissolves
a)
Solute
b)
Solvent
c)
Solution
d)
Mixture 
203.
Another name for a homogeneous mixture is 
a)
an element.
b)
a solution.
c)
a compound.
204.
Kool-Aid - Powder, sugar, and water
Identify the solvent 
a)
water
b)
powder
c)
sugar
d)
powder and sugar
205.
The image shown is an example of a ___________.
a)
solution
b)
mixture
c)
gas
d)
plasma
206.
Olive Oil
a)
Heterogeneous  mixture
b)
Homogeneous mixture
207.
Which is an example of a solution?
a)
Chex Mix
b)
Mixed fruit
c)
Juice
d)
milk and cereal
208.
Find the Molar Mass of:
Ga2(SO3)3
a)
280 g/mol
b)
400 g/mol
c)
380 g/mol
d)
480 g/mol
209.

What is Avogadro's Number?

a)

1.2 x 102410^{24}  

b)

6.02 x 102310^{23}  

c)

602

d)

305

210.

1 mole=_____?

a)

6.022X1023

b)

6.022X10-23

c)

6.022X1024

d)

1.672X1023

211.
Which of the following is a chemical change?
a)
Iron rusting 
b)
Glass breaking
c)
Clothing ripping
d)
Hair cut
212.

( Fill in the blank) Long hair should be ____________ in the laboratory.

a)

tied back

b)

cut

c)

down

d)

curled

213.

(True or False) Horse playing is allowed in the laboratory

a)

true

b)

false

214.

( Fill in the blank) Long hair should be ____________ in the laboratory.

a)

tied back

b)

cut

c)

down

d)

curled

215.

(True or False) Horse playing is allowed in the laboratory

a)

true

b)

false

216.

(True or False) It is okay to pick up broken glass with your bare hands as long as the glass is placed in the trash can

a)

true

b)

false

217.
After completing an experiment, all chemical wastes should be
a)
dumped down sink
b)
taken home
c)
thrown in trash
d)
disposed of according to teacher's directions
218.
You are heating a substance in a test tube. Always point the open end of the tube
a)
towards your body
b)
toward your lab partner
c)
towards another classmate
d)
away from all people
219.
You have been injured in the laboratory (cut, burn, etc.). First you should
a)
visit school nurse
b)
text your parent
c)
see a doctor after school
d)
tell teacher immediatly
220.
The proper technique for smelling chemicals is ______________
a)
keeping your nose close to the glassware
b)
wafting
c)
to sniff only a small amount
d)
Trick question; you never are allowed to smell chemicals in class
221.
Be alert and proceed with caution at all times in the lab.  _______________ immediately of any unsafe conditions you see.
a)
Assess and fix
b)
Notify the teacher
c)
Notify your lab group
d)
Call out, "Code 1"
222.
Dress properly during lab activities; ________________________ are hazards in the lab
a)
Long hair, dangling jewelry, and lose or baggy clothing
b)
Electricity, machines, and live animals
c)
Glasses and contact lenses
d)
long-sleeved shirts and long pants
223.
Your goggles fog up you should
a)
Move to an area away from the lab and vent them to clear them up.
b)
Take them off and wipe them out.
c)
Vent them immediately.
d)
Work through it.
224.
Keeping your work area neat and clean is important because:
a)
My teacher is a neat-freak
b)
I won't lose my supplies in the clutter.
c)
It keeps the room from looking messy.
d)
It helps prevent accidents.
225.

The following footwear is the best in the laboratory

a)

sandals

b)

open-toed shoes

c)

closed-toe shoes

d)

shoes appropriate for the weather

226.

True or False: Laboratory work can be started immediately upon entering the laboratory even if the instructor is not yet present.

a)

True

b)

False

227.

True or False: Read all procedures thoroughly before entering the laboratory

a)

True

b)

False

228.

After completing an experiment, all wastes should be

a)

taken home

b)

tossed in the trash can

c)

disposed of according to your teacher's directions

d)

left out for someone else to clean

229.

Approved eye protection devices (such as goggles) are worn in the laboratory

a)

to avoid eye strain

b)

to improve your vision

c)

so that you look super cool

d)

any time chemicals, heat or glassware are used

230.
Part of lab safety includes reading the lab procedure...
a)
before doing the lab
b)
while doing the lab
c)
after doing the lab
d)
only if you think you really need it
231.
Before leaving the lab you should always wash or sanitize your hands.
a)
True 
b)
False
232.
I must follow all instructions, written and verbal, about the laboratory procedures given by the teacher.
a)
True
b)
False