wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Final Exam Review

Total questions: 261

Worksheet time: 5hrs 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A man jogs at a velocity of 2.5 m/s west for 1,200 s. He then walks at a velocity of 1.0 m/s east for 500 s and then stops to rest. What is the displacement of the man when he stops to rest?

a)

3,500 m west

b)

3,000 m west

c)

2,500 m west

d)

700 m west

2.

The graph below shows the motion of four cars. Based on the graph, which statement about all the cars is true?

a)

They are moving at a constant speed.

b)

They are changing their speed during travel.

c)

They are slowing down.

d)

They are stopped.

3.

A rock on Earth has a mass of 750 kg and a weight of 7,350 N. If the rock is taken into outer space, how will its mass and weight be affected?

a)

The weight and mass will remain the same because they are not altered by the effects of gravity.

b)

The weight will remain the same, but the mass will change because of the effects of gravity.

c)

The mass will be 76.5 kg, and the weight will increase because of the effects of gravity.

d)

The mass will be 750 kg, but the weight will decrease because of the effects of gravity.

4.

As the wheels of a train move along the train tracks, what type of friction exists between the wheels and the tracks?

a)

fluid friction

b)

rolling friction

c)

sliding friction

d)

static friction

5.

A 1,500-kg truck has a net force of 4,200 N acting on it. What is the truck’s acceleration?

a)

6,300,000 m/s/s

b)

2,700 m/s/s

c)

2.8 m/s/s

d)

0.36 m/s/s

6.

A child fills a bucket with salt water and sand. How are the contents of the bucket classified?

a)

a solution

b)

a compound

c)

a homogeneous mixture

d)

a heterogeneous mixture

7.

This diagram shows a 40-kg object being pulled in one direction while friction acts on it in the opposite direction. What is the net force on the object?

a)

160 N

b)

140 N

c)

120 N

d)

20 N

8.

How are the processes of melting and freezing similar?

a)

They are both processes that physically change a substance.

b)

They are both processes that chemically change a substance.

c)

They are both processes where heat is released by a substance.

d)

They are both processes where heat is absorbed by a substance.

9.

Which element is classified as a metal?

a)

boron (B)

b)

antimony (Sb)

c)

phosphorus (P)

d)

cadmium (Cd)

10.

Four different liquids will be separately poured into a single beaker. The liquids are ethanol, milk, oil, and water. The density for each liquid at room temperature is listed in the table below. How will the liquids be arranged from bottom to top in the beaker?

a)

milk, water, oil, ethanol

b)

milk, water, ethanol, oil

c)

water, milk, oil, ethanol

d)

water, oil, ethanol, milk

11.

The diagram below is the Bohr model of an atom. Which best describes this atom?

a)

It has 6 electrons.

b)

It has a positive charge.

c)

It has 6 valence electrons.

d)

It has a full outermost energy level.

12.

How does a piece of paper’s ability to be folded in half compare to its ability to burn?

a)

Its ability to be folded is a physical property, while its ability to burn is a chemical property.

b)

Its ability to be folded is a chemical property, while its ability to burn is a physical property.

c)

Both are physical properties of the piece of paper.

d)

Both are chemical properties of the piece of paper.

13.

How many valence electrons are in a neutral atom of nitrogen (N)?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

5

d)

15

14.

Electrons are being shared between atoms in a certain compound. Which elements could most likely form this compound?

a)

lithium (Li) and fluorine (F)

b)

aluminum (Al) and iodine (I)

c)

sulfur (S) and oxygen (O)

d)

iron (Fe) and chlorine (Cl)

15.

What is the chemical formula for magnesium acetate?

a)

Mg2(C2H3O2)2

b)

Mg(C2H3O2)2

c)

Mg2C4H6O4

d)

MgC4H6O4

16.

Which represents a balanced chemical equation?

a)

CO2 + 2H2O → 2CH4 + 2O2

b)

CH4 + O2 → CO2 + H2O

c)

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

d)

CO2 + H2O → CH4 + O2

17.

What type of chemical reaction occurs when beryllium (Be) combines with oxygen (O2) to form beryllium oxide (BeO)?

a)

double replacement

b)

single replacement

c)

decomposition

d)

synthesis

18.

Which equation represents a neutralization reaction?

a)

acid + water → salt + base

b)

acid + base → water + salt

c)

acid + salt → base + water

d)

water + base → salt + acid

19.

Which of these elements is the most chemically reactive?

a)

beryllium (Be)

b)

calcium (Ca)

c)

strontium (Sr)

d)

radium (Ra)

20.

Which compound contains ionic bonds?

a)

C2H6

b)

PCl5

c)

Ca3N2

d)

SF2

21.

This unbalanced equation represents a chemical reaction: Pb(NO3)2 + NaI → NaNO3 + PbI2. What is the coefficient for NaI once the equation is balanced?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

22.

What type of bond will form when an element from group 2 (IIA) bonds with an element from group 17 (VIIA)?

a)

hydrogen bond

b)

covalent bond

c)

metallic bond

d)

ionic bond

23.

This chart shows the effects of several solutions on litmus paper. Which information can be determined from the litmus paper tests?

a)

Solutions 1 and 5 are both acids.

b)

Solutions 2 and 8 are both neutral.

c)

Solutions 3 and 6 are both bases.

d)

Solutions 4 and 7 are both acids.

24.

A 100-gram sample of cerium-143 has a half-life of 33 hours. How long will it take until there are only 6.25 grams of cerium-143 left?

a)

66 hours

b)

99 hours

c)

132 hours

d)

165 hours

25.

The chart below lists the specific heat capacity of four different metals of equal mass. If the temperature of each metal were increased from 20°C to 25°C, which metal would require the least amount of heat to raise its temperature?

a)

copper

b)

gold

c)

nickel

d)

titanium

26.

1. What is the charge on a neutron?

a)

a. positive

b)

b. negative

c)

c. neutral

d)

d. It depends on the element.

27.

2. What is the atomic number of silicon?

a)

a. 14

b)

b. 28.1

c)

c. 16

d)

d. 32.1

28.

3. How many electrons are in a neutral atom of nitrogen?

a)

a. 14.007

b)

b. 21

c)

c. 21.007

d)

d. 7

29.

4. All of the following are halogens EXCEPT....

a)

a. iodine.

b)

b. helium.

c)

c. fluorine.

d)

d. bromine.

30.

5. Only one of the following elements is an alkaline earth metal. Which one is it?

a)

a. Potassium

b)

b. Calcium

c)

c. Tungsten

d)

d. Silver

31.

6. The material that DOES THE DISSOLVING in a solution is...

a)

a. the solvent.

b)

b. always a solid.

c)

c. the solute.

d)

d. always an ionic compound.

32.

7. A paper clip attaches to a magnet, but they don't react with each other. This is an example of....

a)

a. a chemical property.

b)

b. a polarized property.

c)

c. an ionic property.

d)

d. a physical property.

33.

8. When liquid water is combined with solid baking powder, carbon dioxide gas is produced. This is an example of .....

a)

a. a polarized property.

b)

b. a physical property.

c)

c. a chemical property.

d)

d. a cationic property.

34.

9. A solution in which particles are evenly spread apart is ...

a)

a. a heterogeneous solution.

b)

b. a homogeneous solution.

c)

c. a nonpolarized solution.

d)

d. an ionic solution.

35.

10. An object has a volume of 30 mL and a density of 3 grams / mL. What is the mass of this object?

a)

a. 10 grams

b)

b. 90 grams

c)

c. 27 grams

d)

d. 33 grams

36.

11. What is the formula for sodium fluoride?

a)

a. SF

b)

b. SaFl

c)

c. NaF

d)

d. NaFl

37.

12. How many valence electrons does nitrogen have?

a)

a. 7

b)

b. 5

c)

c. 14

d)

d. 2

38.

13. What is the name of the compound with the formula Mg(OH)2?

a)

a. Magnesium hydroxide

b)

b. Magnesium oxygen hydrogen

c)

c. Sodium hydride

d)

d. Manganese oxide

39.

14. What is the name of the compound that has the formula P2O5?

a)

a. diphosphorus pentoxide

b)

b. phosphorus oxide

c)

c. phosphorus tetroxide

d)

d. diphosphorous oxide

40.

15. Which of the following statements is true of a cation?

a)

a. Cations form from metals.

b)

b. Cations form when atoms lose electrons.

c)

c. Cations have positive charges.

d)

d. All of the above statements are true.

41.

16. What does the law of conservation of mass state?

a)

a. Energy isn't created or destroyed in a chemical reaction.

b)

b. Chemical reactions can create mass.

c)

c. Chemical reactions can destroy mass.

d)

d. Mass isn't created or destroyed in a chemical reactions.

42.

17. What coefficients balance the following equation:


CH4 + O2 --> CO2 + H2O

a)

a. 3 , 2 , 3 , 2

b)

b. 2 , 1 , 2 ,1

c)

c. 1 , 2 , 1 , 2

d)

d. 2 , 2 , 2 , 2

43.

18. Classify the following reaction:


P4O10 + H2O --> H3PO4

a)

a. Decomposition

b)

b. Single replacement

c)

c. Synthesis

d)

d. Double replacement

44.

19. What scientist gets credit for discovering the law of conservation of mass?

a)

a. J.J. Thomson

b)

b. Antoine Lavoisier

c)

c. James Clerk Maxwell

d)

d. Ernest Rutherford

45.

20. Classify and balance the following chemical equation:


HCl + Ca(OH)2 --> CaCl2 + H2O

a)

a. Double replacement ; 2 , 1 , 1 , 2

b)

b. Double replacement ; 1 , 2 , 2 , 1

c)

c. Single replacement ; 2 , 1 , 1 , 2

d)

d. Single replacement ; 1 , 2 , 2 , 1

46.

Total distance an object travels with direction.

a)

Displacement

b)

Distance

c)

Path

d)

Velocity

47.

What is the correct unit for distance?

a)

m or km

b)

d or kd

c)

s

d)

N

48.

What is the correct unit for velocity?

a)

m/s2

b)

mi/hr

c)

d/t

d)

m/s

49.

What is the correct unit for acceleration in kinematics?

a)

m/s

b)

m/min2

c)

m/s/t

d)

m/s2

50.

An airplane accelerates down a runway at 3.20 m/s2 for 8 s until it finally lifts off the ground.
Determine the velocity at take-off.

a)
0.4 m/s
b)
25.6 m/s
c)
2.5 m/s
51.
What is the formula to calculate speed?
a)
S = t/d
b)
S = d/t
c)
S = d x t
d)
S = t x d
52.
What is speed?
a)
how far you go
b)
how much distance is covered over a period of time
c)
how fast you accelerate
d)
the change in the location of a object
53.
What is velocity?
a)
the quickness of an object
b)
the location of an object
c)
acceleration
d)
speed in a specific direction
54.
A change in velocity over time is known as:
a)
acceleration
b)
constant speed
c)
average speed
d)
displacement
55.
You run from your house to a friend's house that is 3 km away. You then walk home. The distance you traveled is 6 km. What is your displacement? 
a)
6  km
b)
0 km
56.

A hummingbird averages a speed of about 45 km/hour. Ruby-throated hummingbirds take a non-stop trip across Gulf of Mexico in which they fly for 18 hours straight! How far is the trip across the Gulf of Mexico at their average speed?

a)
810 km
b)
2.5 km
c)
3.6 km
d)
360 km
57.
A quantity that is has magnitude and  direction is referred to as a
a)
vector quantity
b)
scalar quantity
58.
A golf ball accelerates off a tee at 15m/s2, changing its velocity from 0m/s to 50 m/s down the fairway. How long did it take the golf ball to accelerate?
a)
750 seconds
b)
35 seconds
c)
0.3 seconds
d)
3.3 seconds
59.

Who wins the tug of war in this picture?

a)

The person on the left will win

b)

The people on the right will win

60.

What is the unit used when measuring force?

a)

Kilogram

b)

Meter

c)

Pounds

d)

Newton

61.

A ____________ is a push or a pull on an object.

a)

friction

b)

force

c)

magnet

d)

gravity

62.

Are the forces in the picture:

a)

Balanced

b)

Unbalanced

63.

________ forces cause objects to move from their original positions.

a)

Net forces

b)
Balanced forces
c)
Unbalanced forces
64.

The forces in the picture are applied to the box. Which direction will the box move? 

a)

To the left ( <-- )

b)

To the right ( --> )

65.

This type of force between 2 surfaces rubbing on each other is _________.

a)

magnetism

b)
gravity
c)
friction
d)

tension

66.

Damon was testing the amount of time leaves take to fall to the ground after being tossed up into the air. What force made the leaves fall to the ground?

a)

Seasons

b)

Friction

c)

Magnetism

d)

Gravity

67.
The sum of all forces acting on an object.
a)
Contact Force
b)
Balanced Force
c)
Unbalanced Force
d)
Net Force
68.
When forces are ___________ the object will move.
a)
unbalanced
b)
balanced
c)
light
d)
gravity
69.

Which of Newton's laws states that an object in motion tends to stay in motion and an object at rest tends to stay at rest until acted on by an unbalanced force?

a)

1st

b)

2nd

c)

3rd

d)

4th

70.

Which of Newton's Laws is: For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction?

a)

1st

b)

2nd

c)

3rd

d)

4th

71.

What is the net force?

a)

400

b)

800

c)

200

d)

600

72.

Calculate the net force

a)

25

b)

65

c)

20

d)

15

73.

If you are pushing a 1200 kg car with an acceleration of 0.5 m/s2 , what is the force you have applied to the car?

a)

600

b)

2400

c)

4.16

d)

60

74.

calculate the force applied to a 5 kg shopping cart if it accelerates at 3 m/s2

a)

15

b)

1.67

c)

0.6

d)

1.57

75.

If I use fertilizer, then my plant will grow faster because the fertilizer will provide nutrients to the plant. Identify the correct step from the choices below.

a)

ask a question

b)

form a hypothesis

c)

design an experiment

d)

collect the data

e)

analyze and interpret the data

76.

You publish an experiment in a scientific journal. What step of the scientific method is this?

a)

ask a question

b)

form a hypothesis

c)

collect the data

d)

communicate findings

e)

analyze and interpret data

77.
An experiment is performed on plants to see how different liquids affect plant growth. Each plant in the experiment is given a different liquid; water, apple juice, or milk. Each plant has the same amount of soil, sunlight, and listens to the same music. In this investigation, the independent variable is ...
a)
The type of plant
b)
The amount of sunlight
c)
The type of music
d)
The type of liquid
78.
If I ride my bike to school instead of walking, then I will get to school faster. What is the dependent variable?
a)
True
b)
How fast you get to school
c)
Riding a bike or walking
d)
False
79.

The dependent variable is the variable that is _____

a)
the scientist controls what to test
b)
educated guess
c)
ask a question
d)

being measured

80.

When doing an experiment, which variable are you going to change?

a)
Dependent Variable
b)
Independent Variable
c)
Control group 
d)
Hypothesis
81.

What is the atomic number of an element that has 6 protons and 6 neutrons?

a)

18

b)

12

c)

24

d)

6

82.

What is the half-life of a substance if 25% of the original sample remains after 20 minutes?

a)

20 minutes

b)

10 minutes

c)

40 minutes

d)

30 minutes

83.

What is the electron configuration of carbon?

a)

1s2 2s1 2p3

b)

1s2 2s2 2p2

c)

1s2 2s2 2p3

d)

1s2 2s1 2p2

84.

How many valence electrons does an atom of chlorine have?

a)

2

b)

10

c)

7

d)

5

85.

In a nuclear reaction, what is the process called when a heavy nucleus splits into two or more lighter nuclei?

a)

nuclear division

b)

atomic disintegration

c)

nuclear fission

d)

nuclear fusion

86.

What is the balanced chemical equation for the reaction between hydrogen and oxygen to form water?

a)

2H2 + O2 -> 2H2O

b)

H2 + O2 -> H2O

c)

2H + O -> H2O

d)

H2O -> 2H2 + O2

87.

What type of chemical reaction is represented by the following equation: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O

a)

Single displacement reaction

b)

Combustion reaction

c)

Decomposition reaction

d)

Synthesis reaction

88.

What is the atomic number?

a)

the number of protons in the nucleus

b)

the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus

c)

the number of neutrons in the nucleus

d)

the number of protons in the energy levels

89.

What is the mass number?

a)

the number of protons in the nucleus

b)

the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus

c)

the number of neutrons in the nucleus

d)

the number of protons and electrons in the atom

90.

What is the atomic number of this atom?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

4

d)

7

91.

What is the mass number of this atom?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

4

d)

7

92.

Knowledge Check:

Why does Sodium become a +1 charge?

a)

Sodium gives away 1 e-, so it now has 1 less negative (-) charge.

b)

Sodium accepts 1 e-, so it now has 1 more negative (-) charge.

93.
What is the charge of an atom that has gained one electron?
a)
-1
b)
-2
c)
+1
d)
+2
94.

Is identical to a helium nucleus

a)

Electromagnetic Waves

b)

Beta Particle

c)

Gamma Photons

d)

Alpha Particle

95.

finish the equation


22688Ra --> ____ + 22688Ra

a)

42He

b)

0-1e

c)

y

96.

Identify the type of nuclear decay shown here

21483Bi 0-1e + 21484Po

a)

alpha

b)

beta

c)

gamma

97.

Solve this equation.

85209At = ___ + 24He

a)

83205Bi

b)

86209Rn

c)

81207Tl

d)

85208At

98.

How many HCl molecules do you need to balance this equation?

2Mg + ​ (a)   HCl ---> 2MgCl2 + 2H2

Choose from the below words
4
1
2
3
99.

What coefficient should be used to make the following equation balanced?

N2+O2--> __?__NO

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

100.

Is the following equation balanced?

Al + O2 ---> 2Al2O3

a)

YES

b)

NO

101.
CaCO3 ----> CaO + CO2
a)
Synthesis (or combination)
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single displacement
d)
Double displacement
102.

What type of reaction is the following:
C11H24+17O2> 11CO2 + 12H2OC_{11}H_{24}+17O_2->\ 11CO_2\ +\ 12H_2O  

a)

Combination

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

e)

Combustion

103.

How many protons, neutrons, and electrons are in a lithium atom?

a)

3 protons, 3 electrons, and 4 neutrons

b)

3 protons, 4 electrons, and 3 neutrons

c)

3 protons, 3 electrons, and 3 neutrons

d)

4 protons, 3 electrons, and 4 neutrons

104.

Which element has chemical properties most similar to that of potassium (K)?

a)

Ca

b)

Na

c)

C

d)

Ba

105.

In a covalent bond, electrons are...

a)

shared

b)

transferred

c)

always split between two atoms

d)

lost

106.

In an ionic bond, electrons are...

a)

shared

b)

transferred

c)

always split between two atoms

d)

lost

107.

Which of the following combinations will produce the largest current?

a)

120 V and 12 Ohms

b)

150 V and 10 Ohms

c)

100 V and 25 Ohms

d)

180 V and 90 Ohms

108.

What is true for the chemical reaction shown?

a)

It is balanced because the mass of the reactants is equal to the mass of the products.

b)

It is unbalanced because the mass of the reactants is greater than the mass of the products.

c)

It is unbalanced because the mass of the reactants is less than the mass of the products.

d)

It is balanced because the number of reactants is equal to the number of products.

109.

What coefficients will correctly balance the equation shown?

a)

1, 2, 2

b)

2, 2, 2

c)

2, 3, 2

d)

3, 2, 3

110.

The half-life of Phosphorous-32 is 14.3 days. What fraction of a 100 g sample would be left after 42.9 days?

a)

1/2

b)

1/4

c)

1/8

d)

1/16

111.

A saturated solution...

a)

can accept additional solvent to be dissolved in the solute

b)

can accept additional solute to be dissolved in the solvent

c)

has the maximum amount of solvent that can be dissolved in the solute

d)

has the maximum amount of solute that can be dissolved in the solvent

112.

Which combination below will create the fastest chemical reaction?

a)

a block of baking soda and vinegar at 20 degrees Celsius.

b)

powdered baking soda and vinegar at 50 degrees Celsius.

c)

a block of baking soda and vinegar at 50 degrees Celsius.

d)

powdered baking soda and vinegar at 20 degrees Celsius.

113.

In a fission reaction...

a)

lighter nuclei combine to form heavier nuclei

b)

heavier nuclei split to form lighter nuclei

c)

energy is released resulting in unstable elements

d)

energy is absorbed resulting in stable elements.

114.

A series circuit has..

a)

a single current path

b)

multiple current paths

c)

a greater voltage than current

d)

a greater current than voltage

115.

Based on the graph, how much NaNO3 dissolves at 10 degrees Celsius?

a)

0 g

b)

40 g

c)

65 g

d)

80 g

116.

Acids are...

a)

slippery

b)

bitter

c)

any pH higher than 7

d)

able to turn litmus red

117.

Which substance is the most basic?

a)

bleach with a pH equal to 13.0

b)

ocean water with a pH of 8.0

c)

ammonia with a pH of 9

d)

hydrochloric acid with a pH of 2

118.

Jada made an electromagnet. Which choice below would NOT help make it stronger?

a)

use an iron metal core

b)

increase the current flowing through the wire

c)

increase the number of coils of copper wire

d)

change the direction of current flowing through the electromagnet

119.

The reactivity of an atom is determined by

a)

its number of valence electrons

b)

the protons found in the outer shell

c)

the number of protons and neutrons in a nucleus

d)

the number of electrons and protons in its nucleus

120.

A light bulb has a resistance of 9 ohms when it is attached to an 18V battery. What is the current in the circuit?

a)

2 Amps

b)

2 Volts

c)

162 Amps

d)

162 Volts

121.

Nuclear waste from fission reactions has a very long half life. This is a ________________ of nuclear fission reactions.

a)

advantage

b)

disadvantage

122.

A large amount of energy can be produced from the fission of a small amount of uranium. This is considered a __________________ of nuclear fission.

a)

advantage

b)

diadvantage

123.

Ionic compounds have ____________ melting points and covalent compounds have __________ melting points.

a)

higher; lower

b)

lower; higher

c)

equal; higher

d)

lower; equal

124.

What is the chemical formula for potassium nitride?

a)

NK3

b)

K3N

c)

K2N

d)

KN3

125.

What is the chemical name for NaF?

a)

monosodium fluoride

b)

sodium fluorine

c)

sodium fluoride

d)

monosodium monofluoride

126.

Metals...

a)

have a low melting point

b)

are poor conductors

c)

are malleable

d)

are soft

127.

Why don't noble gases react?

a)

They have 2 electrons in their outermost valence shell.

b)

The outermost energy level of the noble gases is full.

c)

They form positive cations

d)

They form negative anions.

128.

What coefficient would balance this equation?


C2H4O2 + _____ O2  2 CO2 + 2 H2O

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

129.

If 30g of KCl is dissolved in 100mL of water at 60oC, the solution is...

a)

saturated

b)

unsaturated

c)

supersaturated

d)

neutralized

130.

In the model shown, the current flowing through each bulb will _________________________ the current at point A?

a)

be less than

b)

be more than

c)

remain the same as

d)

double

131.

In a motor an electromagnet...

a)

changes electrical energy into kinetic energy

b)

changes magnetic energy into electrical energy

c)

increases the strength of the magnet around it

d)

provides electrical energy required to run.

132.

The elements pictured in the diagram are __________ because they contain a different number of neutrons and the same number of protons.

a)

Ions

b)

Isotopes

c)

Cations

d)

Balanced

133.

A nucleus is unstable and radioactive if

a)

it has too few protons for the small number of neutrons

b)

it has too many neutrons for a large number of protons

c)

it has too many valence electrons for a small number of neutrons

d)

it has too many valence electrons for a large number of neutrons

134.

What force holds the nucleus of an atom together?

a)

strong force

b)

electrical force

c)

magnetic force

d)

atomic force

135.

In the graph shown, the half life of Iodine-131 is

a)

1 day

b)

2 days

c)

8 days

d)

16 days

136.

Which is the correct Bohr model for Calcium?

a)
b)
c)
d)
137.

Which of the reactions shown is a double replacement reaction?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

None

138.

In the parallel circuit shown, what happens if bulb A goes out?

a)

B and C go out

b)

B and C stay on

c)

B stays on and C goes out

d)

C stays on and B goes out

139.

In an ionic bond...

a)

metals bond with nonmetals

b)

nonmetals bond with metals

c)

nonmetals bond with nonmetals

d)

metals bond with metals

140.

Carbon dioxide (CO2) would be classified as...

a)

a covalent bond

b)

a metallic bond

c)

an ionic bond

d)

a bipolar compound

141.

The equation shown in the diagram is...

a)

a balanced alpha decay equation

b)

a balanced beta decay equation

c)

an unbalanced alpha decay equation

d)

an unbalanced beta decay equation

142.

The half-life of sodium-25 is 1 minute. How many grams of sodium-25 remain after 4 minutes if 10 grams is the initial amount?

a)

0.625

b)

1.25

c)

2.5

d)

5

143.

How many grams of Fe are needed in the following chemical reaction to obey the Law of Conservation of Mass?

a)

39.4

b)

10.8

c)

73.2

d)

66.2

144.

Which model is balanced according to the law of conservation of mass?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

none

145.

Which model shows a stable ionic compound for aluminum sulfide?

a)
b)
c)
d)
146.

A total of 750 J of work was done when a force of 125 N was exerted on a box to move it. How far was the box moved?

a)

850 m

b)

6.00 m

c)

906 m

d)

600 m

147.

A roller coaster car moves on a roller coaster track through positions W, X, Y, and Z.

At what position will the roller coaster car most likely have the greatest kinetic energy?

a)

Y

b)

X

c)

Z

d)

W

148.

A 1-kg block of ice is set into motion on a frictionless surface. It attains a speed of 5 m/s at point X.

What is the kinetic energy of the ice at point X?

a)

2.5 J

b)

12.5 J

c)

25 J

d)

5 J

149.

How much power is used to lift a box that weighs 50 newtons 10 meters in 10 seconds?

a)

50 watts

b)

5,000 watts

c)

5 watts

d)

500 watts

150.

What is the potential energy acquired by an object with a mass of 5.00 kilograms when it is raised 5.00 meters?

a)

245 J

b)

25.0 J

c)

49.0 J

d)

480 J

151.

A 3.00-kg object rests on the roof's edge of a 10.0-m high building. What is the object's potential energy?

a)

33.0 J

b)

294 J

c)

300 J

d)

22.8 J

152.

A student exerts a force of 500 N pushing a box 10 m across the floor in 4s. How much work does the student perform?

a)

1,250 J

b)

50 J

c)

2,000 J

d)

5,000 J

153.

A student uses two identical balls to perform an investigation. The student throws ball A with a horizontal velocity from a height of 10 meters. At the same time, another student drops  ball B from the same height without  any horizontal velocity. Neglecting air resistance, which best describes the results?

a)

Ball A will hit the ground first.

b)

Ball B will hit the ground first.

c)

Ball A will take twice as long to hit the ground.

d)

Both balls will hit the ground at the same time.

154.

This graph shows the motion of a person riding a bicycle.

Which time period shows the acceleration of the bicycle?

a)

0-4 s

b)

10-16 s

c)

4-8 s

d)

8-10 s

155.

After a spacecraft takes off, its distance traveled is measured and is represented in this graph.

What is the average speed of the spacecraft?

a)

5 kilometers per second

b)

1 kilometers per second

c)

12 kilometers per second

d)

3 kilometers per second

156.

This chart represents information about four different carts and the force applied to each cart.

Which cart will have the greatest amount of acceleration?

a)

X

b)

Y

c)

W

d)

Z

157.

An object rolls east at a steady speed of 12 m/s for 3.0 seconds. What distance did it travel?

a)

18 m

b)

24 m

c)

7 m

d)

36 m

158.

This graph represents the motion of an object.

What is the average speed of the object from time = 0 to time = 5 s?

a)

1.2 m/s

b)

5.0 m/s

c)

6.0 m/s

d)

0.8 m/s

159.

A car starts from rest and accelerates uniformly at 1.7 m/s/s. How long will it take the car to reach a speed of 34 m/s?

a)

2 s

b)

58 s

c)

20 s

d)

200 s

160.

Which diagram best shows forces acting on an object that is sitting at rest on a table?

a)
b)
c)
d)
161.

A car's velocity changes from 0 m/s to 40 m/s in 5 seconds. What is the average acceleration of the car?

a)

5 m/s/s

b)

35 m/s/s

c)

200 m/s/s

d)

8 m/s/s

162.

A student is a passenger in the front seat of a moving car. Which object is the best frame reference for the student to determine how fast the car is moving relative to the ground?

a)

a signpost on the side of the road

b)

the driver sitting next to the student

c)

a truck traveling in the lane next to the car

d)

a person sitting in the back seat of the car

163.

This diagram shows an object being pushed along a frictionless surface. The object accelerates at 2 m/s/s.

What force was applied to the object?

a)

6 N

b)

5 N

c)

1.5 N

d)

1 N

164.

Which statement is true about an object in freefall? Assume negligible air resistance.

a)

The acceleration of the object increases as it falls.

b)

The object has a constant acceleration.

c)

The object has a constant velocity.

d)

The velocity decreases as the acceleration decreases as it falls.

165.

A 200-kg load is suspended from a cable on a crane. The load is moved upward at a constant velocity 20 m to the top of the building. What would be true of the force on the cable as it moved upward?

a)

The force on the cable depended upon the energy of the crane.

b)

The force on the cable remained the same.

c)

The force on the cable decreased.

d)

The force on the cable increased.

166.

A student in a boat decided to go for a swim. He dove off the back of the boat, as shown in the diagram. The boat moved in the direction shown by the arrow.

Which statement best explains why the boat moved in the direction shown?

a)

A body in motion tends to remain in motion.

b)

The acceleration of a body is directly proportional to the force applied.

c)

Friction on the bottom of the boat was reduced because of the lake water.

d)

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

167.

Which graph represents a car with a positive acceleration?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

168.

A chair exerts a force of 20 N on a floor. What is the force that the floor exerts on the chair?

a)

20 N

b)

40 N

c)

21 N

d)

10 N

169.

Two equal forces act at the same time on the same stationary object but in opposite directions. Which statement describes the object's motion?

a)

It accelerates.

b)

It remains stationary.

c)

It moves at a constant speed.

d)

It decelerates.

170.

Carts A and B have the same mass. Both students have a mass of 80 kg.

If the student in cart A pulls the rope, what will result?

a)

Both carts will move toward each other

b)

Cart A will move toward a stationary Cart B.

c)

Cart B will move toward a stationary Cart A.

d)

Cart B will move faster than Cart A.

171.

A 100-N force causes an object to accelerate at 2m/s/s. What is the mass of the object?

a)

0.02 kg

b)

102 kg

c)

50 kg

d)

200 kg

172.

What was Niels Bohr's prediction about the location of the electrons in an atom?

a)

Electrons orbit the nucleus in well-defined energy levels or orbitals.

b)

Electron are scattered randomly in a positive background matrix.

c)

Electrons can be found at various levels within an energy cloud surrounding the nucleus.

d)

Electrons pair with protons and sta in the nucleus of the atoms.

173.

Which best describes the current model of an atom?

a)

a solid sphere unique for everything that exists

b)

a central nucleus containing protons with electrons orbiting in specific paths

c)

a solid sphere with electrons and protons embedded

d)

a central nucleus containing protons and neutrons with electrons orbiting in levels of high probability.

174.

An atom with which atomic diagram has chemical properties most similar to calcium?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

175.

Which distinguishes an atom of one element from an atom of a different element?

a)

the number of protons

b)

the number of electrons

c)

the number of neutrons and protons

d)

the number of neutrons

176.

How many protons are in an atom of bromine?

a)

45

b)

35

c)

115

d)

80

177.

A element with an atomic number of 51 and an atomic mass of 121 has how many neutrons in each atom?

a)

51

b)

172

c)

70

d)

121

178.

Which diagram represents an electrically neutral atom?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

179.

What is the mass number in atomic mass units of an atom with 14 protons, 14 electrons, and 16 neutrons?

a)

16 amu

b)

14 amu

c)

44 amu

d)

30 amu

180.

What is the atomic number of carbon-14?

a)

7

b)

12

c)

6

d)

14

181.

Atomic masses are usually expressed as averages due to the existence of what phenomenon?

a)

isotopes

b)

radioactive decay

c)

man-made elements

d)

electrons

182.

How do the atoms of carbon-12 and carbon-14 differ?

a)

atomic number

b)

number of neutrons

c)

number of electrons

d)

number of protons

183.

Chlorine has two naturally occurring isotopes, chlorine-35 and chlorine-37. The atomic mass of naturally occurring chlorine is 35.45. Which statement is correct?

a)

Chlorine-37 is more abundant.

b)

Chlorine-35 is more abundant.

c)

Chlorine-35 and chlorine-37 are equally abundant.

d)

Chlorine-36 is more abundant.

184.

This diagram shows a marble with a mass of 3.8 g that was placed into 10mL of water. What is the density of the marble?

a)

0.95 g/cm3

b)

1.05 g/cm3

c)

1.27 g/cm3

d)

0.79 g/cm3

185.

Several common metal are listed in the chart.


Assuming equal masses of each, a cube of which metal would have the greatest volume?

a)

silver

b)

iron

c)

aluminum

d)

lead

186.

This diagram represents four different liquids that have been poured into a container and have separated.


Which liquid has the greatest density?

a)

Liquid 1

b)

Liquid 2

c)

Liquid 3

d)

Liquid 4

187.

This chart represents the melting points and boiling points for four substances.


Which substance is a solid at -200°C?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Chlorine

188.

Question 17

10 pts

A solid substance is heated at a uniform rate. This graph shows how the temperature of the substance changes as heat is added.


According to the energy diagram shown, the substance will boil at what temperature?

a)

140°C

b)

90°C

c)

-60°C

d)

-10°C

189.

How are potassium atoms and calcium atoms similar?

a)

Same oxidation number

b)

same number of protons

c)

same number of valence electrons

d)

same number of energy levels

190.

An element on the far left side of the periodic table will have what property?

a)

a tendency to lose electrons when reacting

b)

a tendency to gain electrons when reacting

c)

a tendency to share electrons when reacting

d)

a tendency to avoid reactions

191.

Which elements would most likely react with Group 2 (2A) metals?

a)

halogens

b)

transition metals

c)

alkali metals

d)

noble gases

192.

Which elements are in the same period?

a)

lead and sodium

b)

silver and tin

c)

tin and lead

d)

oxygen and helium

193.

Which compound is formed when aluminum bonds with fluorine?

a)

AlF

b)

Al3F

c)

AlF2

d)

AlF3

194.

Which pair of elements will most readily form a compound?

a)

Li and Be

b)

Li and F

c)

Li and Ne

d)

Li and B

195.

Which compound is most likely formed using covalent bonds?

a)

KBr

b)

K2O

c)

CaBr2

d)

SiO2

196.

A teacher demonstrates a decomposition reaction. Which would be a correct demonstration?

a)

burning methane in the presence of oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water

b)

reacting iron with oxygen to produce iron(III)oxide

c)

running an electrical current through water to produce hydrogen and water

d)

burning magnesium in the presence of oxygen to produce magnesium oxide

197.

Which equation represents a double replacement reaction?

a)

C

b)

A

c)

B

d)

D

198.

A chemical reaction is represented by this equation.


What is a product of this chemical reaction?

a)

O2

b)

Fe2O3

c)

F

d)

FeO

199.

Which is a correctly balanced chemical equation?

a)

B

b)

D

c)

C

d)

A

200.

The reaction of CaO and water is exothermic. A student mixes the two chemicals in a test tube and touches the side to of the test tube. Which statement describes the student's observation?

a)

The test tube becomes cold as heat is released.

b)

The test tube becomes cold as heat is absorbed.

c)

The test tube becomes hot as heat is released.

d)

The test tube becomes hot as heat is absorbed.

201.

Solutions of lead(II) nitrate and potassium dichromate are mixed. The solution turns cloudy and yellow. Solid yellow particles fall to the bottom of the beaker. Which statement best describes this reaction?

a)

A precipitate formed.

b)

The reaction is exothermic.

c)

A gas formed.

d)

The reaction is endothermic.

202.

Which solute exhibits the least response to temperature change?

a)

NH3

b)

NH4Cl

c)

HCl

d)

KCl

203.

In a experiment, a researcher collected the following information about a solution made from a certain food.

pH = 3

taste = sour

reactivity = reacts with metals

Based on the information, what best describes this solution?

a)

salt

b)

acid

c)

base

d)

neutral

204.

This is a pH chart of common materials.


What substance is the most basic?

a)

Cheese

b)

Baking Soda

c)

Bleach

d)

Soda

205.

Which action would most effectively slow down the dissolving of a sugar cube in water?

a)

stirring the water

b)

heating the water

c)

crushing the sugar

d)

cooling the water

206.

Which substance in water will conduct electricity?

a)

corn starch

b)

vegetable oil

c)

salt

d)

sugar

207.

The loss of an alpha particle has what effect on the atomic number and mass number of an atom?

a)

Atomic number and mass number both decrease.

b)

Atomic number decreases; mass number increases

c)

Atomic number and mass number both increase.

d)

Atomic number increases; mass number decreases

208.

Which best contrasts nuclear fission and nuclear fusion?

a)

fission: splitting of small nuclei

fusion: joining of large nuclei

b)

fission: needs extremely low temperatures

fusion: needs slightly higher temperatures than fission

c)

fission: splitting of large nuclei

fusion: joining of small nuclei

d)

fission: joining of small nuclei

fusion: joining of large nuclei

209.

Where is nuclear fusion found?

a)

nuclear power plants

b)

atomic bombs

c)

the sun and stars

d)

hydrogen bomb

210.

If data is considered precise, then all of the data points are __________.

a)

close to the true or accepted value

b)

all very small numbers

c)

all very large numbers

d)

all close to each other

211.

15 L = ________ mL

a)

0.0015 mL

b)

0.15 mL

c)

1500 mL

d)

15000 mL

212.
A testable explanation to a problem that has not yet been tested. 
a)
data
b)
theory
c)
hypothesis
d)
fact
213.
This variable in an experiment is the one being changed by the scientist. 
a)
dependent variable
b)
independent variable
c)
data
d)
control group
214.
Dependent variable means
a)
the scientist controls what to test
b)
educated guess
c)
ask a question
d)
what is being measured
215.
If you increase the amount of spinach you eat, then you will increase the iron in your blood. 
What's the dependent variable?
a)
increase the amount of iron in your blood
b)
spinach you eat
216.

Which happens first?

a)

make a hypothesis

b)

make a plan

c)

ask a question/make an observation

d)

draw conclusions

217.

Does the type of gasoline put in a car affect how fast the car can drive. What is the independent variable?

a)

Type of gasoline

b)

which car the gas is put into

c)

how fast the car can drive

d)

how much gas is put into the car

218.
Research question: does the distance a person kicks a soccer ball effect how well they will do on their math test.  What is the dependent variable?
a)
How far they kick the soccer ball
b)
who the person is
c)
how well they do on the math test
d)
Type of soccer ball.
219.
What would the INDEPENDENT variable be in an experiment testing which types of paper airplane goes furthest?
a)
the paper used
b)
the type of paper airplane
c)
the distance of each plane's flight
d)
how hard the plane is thrown
220.
At higher temperatures
a)
particles in an object have less energy
b)
particles in an object move faster
c)
a gas contracts
221.
A gas
a)
has a definite shape but no definite volume
b)
has a definite volume but no definite shape
c)
has fast-moving particles
222.

Freezing

a)

Solid to gas

b)

Liquid to solid

c)

Gas to solid

223.
Which state of matter has a definite shape?
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
gas
224.

What is happening when my ice cream changes from a solid to a liquid?

a)

freezing

b)

melting

c)

burning

225.

Particles of a liquid

a)

are tightly packed together and stay in a fixed position.

b)

are free to move around one another but still touch.

226.
The temperature of a substance increases as___.
a)
the substance expands
b)
the average kinetic energy of its particles increases
c)
the substance's volume increases
d)
the substance's mass increases
227.

Liquid to Gas

a)

Condensation

b)

Evaporation

c)

Sublimation

228.

Freshly brewed black coffee

a)

Heterogeneous

b)

Homogeneous

229.

Lucky Charms

a)

Heterogeneous

b)

Homogeneous

230.

Air

a)

Heterogeneous

b)

Homogeneous

231.

M&Ms

a)

Heterogeneous

b)

Homogeneous

232.
What is a homogeneous mixture?
a)
a mixture that is the same throughout.
b)
a mixture that is made up of one type of atom.
c)
a mixture that is made up of one type of compound
d)
a mixture that cannot be separated through physical changes
233.

What charge does an atom have when it GAINS electrons?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Neutral

234.
How many neutrons would Fe-56 have?
a)
56
b)
26
c)
30
d)
33
235.
How many protons does P-30 have?
a)
30
b)
16
c)
12
d)
15
236.
If an atom of nickel has a charge of +3, how many electrons does the atom have?
a)
28
b)
25
c)
26
d)
31
237.

Energy cannot be created or destroyed.

a)

True

b)

False

238.

What type of energy transformation occurs when a piece of wood burns?

a)

Electrical energy is released as radiant energy

b)

Stored chemical energy is released as thermal energy

c)

Mechanical energy is stored as chemical energy

d)

No transformation occurs

239.
At what position does the pendulum have the greatest gravitational potential energy?
a)
Position D
b)
Position C
c)
Position B
240.
At what position does the pendulum have the greatest kinetic energy?
a)
Position D
b)
Position C
c)
Position B
241.

What do all waves transfer?

a)

Matter

b)

Heat

c)

Electricity

d)

Energy

242.

What is the number of complete waves passing a fixed point in a given amount of time?

a)

Amplitude

b)

Intensity

c)

Wavelength

d)

Frequency

243.

Which type of waves have the longest wavelength?

a)

Visible light

b)

Radio waves

c)

X-rays

d)

Gamma-Rays

244.

Shorter wave lengths can carry more energy. Which of these probably carries the MOST energy:

a)

Infrared light

b)

Visible light

c)

X-rays

d)

UV light

245.

What does #2 represent?

a)

Period

b)

Frequency

c)

Wavelength

d)

Amplitude

246.
According to the graph how fast does the person travel in the first 5 seconds?
a)
2 m/s
b)
10 m/s
c)
12.5 m/s
d)
1 m/s
247.
Bill runs 400 meters to Andy's house, turns around, and runs 400 meters back home.  What is Bill's distance?
a)
0 meters
b)
400 meters
c)
800 meters
d)
1600 meters
248.
Vector quantities need both a magnitude and a _____.
a)
distance
b)
displacement
c)
direction
d)
velocity
249.
A person walks 50 meters directly north, stops, and then travels 32 meters directly south.  What is their displacement?
a)
82 meters
b)
18 meters
c)
28 meters
250.

What is the net force?

a)

3 N

b)

3 N, right

c)

17 N, right

d)

3 N, left

251.

A ____________ is a push or a pull on an object.

a)

friction

b)

force

c)

magnet

d)

gravity

252.
If these teams are pulling with the same amount of force what will happen?
a)
The boy in blue will win.
b)
They will not move at all.
c)
The boy in red will win.
d)
Both will fall down.
253.

Forces that have a net force of zero Newtons

a)

Balanced force

b)

Unbalanced force

254.

When we throw anything in air it always falls down because of _____

a)

Friction

b)

Gravity

c)

Solid

d)

motion

255.

Which force acts backwards and prevent us form slipping on a wet floor?

a)

Gravitational force

b)

Magnetic force

c)

Frictional force

d)

Electrostatic force

256.

When you put a book on a table, the table pushes on the book. This is an example of --

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

257.

A person is pushed forward into their seatbelt when a car stops. This is an example of --

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

258.

A larger car takes more force to move. This is an example of --

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

259.

A brick sits on a table until you push on it. This is an example of --

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

260.

The amount of matter in an object

a)

gravity

b)

mass

c)

net force

d)

inertia

261.

Ability of an object to resist change of motion

a)

gravity

b)

force

c)

net force

d)

inertia