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Final Trimester 2 Phantastic Physics Units 4-7 24-25

Total questions: 153

Worksheet time: 3hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the three NON-CONTACT forces were mentioned in this unit?

a)

Gravity, friction, air resistance

b)

Forces, motion, human body systems

c)

Friction, electrostatic, muscular system

d)

Gravity, electrostatic, and magnetism

2.
What states that "every object in the universe attracts every other object"?
a)
Law of Universal Gravitation
b)
Newton's First Law of Motion
c)
My mother
d)
Inertia & gravity
3.
Force of gravity is directly proportional to
a)
Mass
b)
Weight
c)
Distance
d)
Time
4.
If I double the distance between two objects, what happens to their gravitational Force?
a)
4x bigger
b)
4x smaller
c)
2x bigger
d)
2x smaller
5.
If I double the mass of one object, but don't change anything else... WHat happens to the gravitational force between two objects?
a)
Doubles
b)
Quadruples
c)
Cut in Half
d)
4x Smaller
6.
Gravity attracts all objects towards one another.
a)
False
b)
True
c)
It depends
7.

If the mass of either m1 or m2 is increased then the force of gravitation between them will...

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

stay the same

8.
What states that "every object in the universe attracts every other object"?
a)
Law of Universal Gravitation
b)
Newton's First Law of Motion
c)
My mother
d)
Inertia & gravity
9.
Which of the following is Newton's Law on Gravitation?
a)
F=Gm1m2/r
b)
F = Gm1m2/r2
c)
F = Gm1m2/2r
d)
F = m1m2/2r
10.

Which of the following would be a proper setup for this problem: A 60 kg person is standing on earth's surface (radius = 6.4x106 m). The mass of earth is 6x1024 kg.

a)

(6.67x10−11)(60)(6x1024)(6.4x106)2\frac{\left(6.67x10^{-11}\right)\left(60\right)\left(6x10^{24}\right)}{\left(6.4x10^6\right)^2}

b)

(6.67x10−11)(60)(6.4x106)(6x1024)2\frac{\left(6.67x10^{-11}\right)\left(60\right)\left(6.4x10^6\right)}{\left(6x10^{24}\right)^2}

c)

(6.67x10−11)(60)(6x1024)(6.4x106)\frac{\left(6.67x10^{-11}\right)\left(60\right)\left(6x10^{24}\right)}{\left(6.4x10^6\right)^{ }}

d)

(60)(6x1024)(6.4x106)2\frac{\left(60\right)\left(6x10^{24}\right)}{\left(6.4x10^6\right)^2}

11.

The value of Universal Gravitational constant is

a)

6.673X10-11 Nm-2kg2

b)

6.673X10-11 Nm2kg2

c)

6.673X10-11 Nm2 kg-2

d)

6.673 x10-11 N m-2 kg-2

12.

Calculate the force of gravity (F) between two objects whose masses are m1 = 100 kg and m2 = 1000 kg if they are separared by a distance of d = 500 m.

a)

2.67 * 10-11 N

b)

0.4 N

c)

6.67 * 10-11 N

d)

1.3 * 10-8 N

13.
Inertia is always tangent to the centripetal force.
a)
True
b)
False
14.
Which of the following units is used for tangential velocity?
a)
m/s2
b)
N
c)
J
d)
m/s
15.
Which represents the acceleration of the ball?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
16.
When an object is in circular motion it is constantly changing its velocity.
a)
True
b)
False
17.
What are the factors which combine to to keep celestial bodies in orbit? 
a)
Air Resistance and Gravity 
b)
Gravity and Inertia 
c)
Inertia and orbital speed
d)
Orbital speed and gravity 
18.

If a satellite is closer to Earth, it must travel ______ than a satellite further from Earth.

a)

The same speed

b)

Slower

c)

Faster

19.
Calculate the velocity of an object moved around a circle with a radius of 1.65 m and an acceleration of 3.5 m/s2.
a)
2.4 m/s
b)
3.6 m/s
c)
3.9 m/s
d)
4.2 m/s
20.

Calculate the centripetal force required to make a 5 kg ball move 4 m/s in a circle with a radius of 2 m.

a)

10 N

b)

20 N

c)

30 N

d)

40 N

21.

A field that will apply a force to an object with mass is called a

a)

gravitational field

b)

Newton's field

c)

angular rotation field

d)

force field

22.
The definition of gravitational field strength is:
a)
The region of space surrounding a body where other bodies will feel an attractive force due to it.
b)
The region of space surrounding a body where other bodies will feel an repulsive force due to it.
c)
The region of space surrounding a charge where other charges will feel an attractive force due to it.
d)
The region of space surrounding a charge where other charges will feel an repulsive force due to it.
23.
The closer together the gravitational field lines.....
a)
the weaker the gravitational field strength
b)
the stronger the gravitational field strength
c)
the more repulsive the gravitational field strength
24.
Gravitational field strength is measured in:
a)
N
b)
J/kg
c)
m/s
d)
N/kg
25.

What is the gravitational field strength on Earth?

a)

11 N/kg

b)

10 N/kg

c)

9 N/kg

d)

8.9 N/kg

26.
If an object is placed exactly halfway between Earth and the Moon, it would fall toward the
a)
Earth.
b)
Moon.
c)
neither of these
27.

If the gravitational field strength on Planet X is 11 N/kg and on Planet Y it is 7 N/kg, where would you weigh the least if you were to visit?

a)

Planet X

b)

You would weigh the same on both planets.

c)

Without knowing the mass, you cannot determine the answer.

d)

Planet Y

28.

A mass m is released just above the surface of a planet with mass M and radius R . Which expression gives its initial gravitational acceleration?

a)

Gmr2\frac{Gm}{r^2}

b)

GmMr\frac{GmM}{r^{ }}

c)

GmMr2\frac{GmM}{r^2}

d)

GMr2\frac{GM}{r^2}

29.

What is the gravitational field strength of an object with mass 1200 kg at a distance of 2.0 m?

a)

4.0 x 10^-5 N

b)

6.0 x 10^-11 N

c)

2.0 x 10^-8 N

d)

1.0 x 10^-3 N

30.

What's the acceleration of gravity of a planet with a mass of 1 x 1022 kg and a radius of 5x105 meters?

a)

.267 m/s2

b)

2.67 m/s2

c)

26.7 m/s2

d)

267 m/s2

31.
Kepler's first law states that the orbits of the planets are oval in shape or 
a)
ellipses
b)
perfect circles
32.
Kepler's 2nd Law deals with 
a)
the shape of the planets' orbits
b)
the speed/area the planet travels 
c)
the length of time it takes the planet to orbit the sun
33.
During which month is the earth moving the slowest? 
a)
July 
b)
March
c)
January
d)
September
34.

A object is 4AU from the sun, what is its orbital period T?

a)

8 years

b)

2 years

c)

4 years

d)

16 years

35.

What is needed to calculate work?

a)

time and distance

b)

speed and distance

c)

force and distance

d)

acceleration and velocity

36.

Is this an example of work?

a)

Yes

b)

No

37.

What is the unit of measurement for work?

a)

meters

b)

newtons

c)

m/s

d)

Joules

38.

500 J of work is done by a person who uses a force of 50N to move a box, how far does it go?

a)

10 m

b)

0.1 m

c)

25,000 m

d)

10 J

39.

Energy is

a)

stored work

b)

is destroyed when used

c)

can not be changed into another form of energy

d)

measured in newtons

40.

If the mystery machine moves 100 meters how much work is done?

a)

130,000,000 J

b)

70,000 J

c)

100,000 J

d)

30,000 J

41.

Which formula is used to calculate Gravitational Potential Energy (GPE)?

a)

GPE = ½ kx²

b)

GPE = mgh

c)

GPE = mv²

d)

GPE = ½ mv²

42.

What is the formula for Elastic Potential Energy (EPE)?

a)

EPE = mgh

b)

EPE = ½ kx²

c)

EPE = mv²

d)

EPE = ½ mv²

43.

The greater the mass, the (more / less) potential energy it has at a given height.

a)

more

b)

less

c)

same

d)

zero

44.

The higher the position of the object, the (more / less) potential energy it has.

a)

more

b)

less

c)

same

d)

zero

45.

The more distance a spring is stretched, the (more / less) elastic potential energy it has.

a)

more

b)

less

c)

same

d)

zero

46.

The stiffer a spring is, the (more / less) elastic potential energy it has when it is stretched.

a)

more

b)

less

c)

same

d)

zero

47.

A car with mass 500 kg is driving along at a speed of 30 m/s. What is its Kinetic Energy?

a)

225,000 J

b)

150,000 J

c)

300,000 J

d)

100,000 J

48.

If a football player throws a ball that has a Kinetic Energy of 1225 J and the ball has a mass of 2 kg, what is the ball's velocity?

a)

35 m/s

b)

30 m/s

c)

25 m/s

d)

40 m/s

49.

Which would increase an object’s kinetic energy more: doubling its mass or doubling its velocity?

a)

Doubling its velocity.

b)

Doubling its mass.

c)

Both have the same effect.

d)

Neither affects kinetic energy.

50.

What happens to the kinetic energy (KE) of the car as heat is generated at the brakes/rotors?

a)

The kinetic energy increases.

b)

The kinetic energy remains the same.

c)

The kinetic energy decreases.

d)

The kinetic energy is converted into potential energy.

51.

What is potential energy?

a)

moving energy

b)

stored energy

c)

renewable energy

d)

non renewable energy

52.

What is kinetic energy?

a)

moving energy

b)

potential energy

c)

stored energy

d)

renewable energy

53.
The law of conservation of energy means ________________________
a)
Energy CAN be created and destroyed or transformed
b)
Energy can be used up or transformed
c)
Energy CANNOT be created or destroyed, only transformed
d)
Energy cannot be transformed
54.
When does that ball have the greatest potential energy?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
55.
When a pendulum swings, at which point is potential energy at its greatest? (assume there is no friction)
a)
1 and 5
b)
2 and 4
c)
3 
d)
4 and 5
56.
Explain what happens to the potential energy of a rock as it falls off the side of a cliff.
a)
The kinetic energy decreases as the potential energy increases.
b)
The kinetic energy decreases as the potential energy decreases.
c)
The potential energy decreases as the kinetic energy increases.
d)
The potential energy decreases as the kinetic energy decreases. 
57.
At which point is potential energy greatest?
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
58.

What is the Kinetic Energy at point C?

a)

500,000 J

b)

400,000 J

c)

300,000 J

d)

50,000 J

59.

What is the Kinetic Energy at point B?

a)

500,000 J

b)

400,000 J

c)

300,000 J

d)

50,000 J

60.

What is the GPE at point E?

a)

500,000 J

b)

250,000 J

c)

300,000 J

d)

100,000 J

61.

If a 0.5 kg ball is thrown up with 250 J of kinetic energy, how high will it go?

(HINT: At the ball's highest point it has stopped.)

KE = 1/2mv2 , PE = mgh

g = 9.8 m/s2

a)

51 m

b)

25.5 m

c)

12.76 m

d)

31.6 m

62.

A cliff diver with a mass of 125 kg jumps off a 50m high cliff, how fast will he be traveling just before he hits the water? (His height at this point is 0m)

(HINT: Find PE first. then KE = 1/2mv2

g = 9.8 m/s2

a)

61,250 m/s

b)

980 m/s

c)

31.3 m/s

d)

247.5 m/s

63.

What is the KE at point B?

a)

14 J

b)

12 J

c)

6 J

d)

8 J

64.

how high up was an object that is 8 kg, if right before it hit the ground it had a velocity of 18 m/s?

a)

16.2 m

b)

28 m

c)

1296 m

d)

impossible to determine

65.

 

Two rocks with different size and mass are dropped from the same height. Which of the rock will reach the ground first?

a)

greater rock

b)

smaller rock

c)

both reach the ground at the same time

66.

A pumpkin is dropped from a 35 m building. What is its initial velocity, u?

a)

9.8 m/s^2  

b)

35 m

c)

0 m/s

d)

9.8 m/s

67.

A ball is thrown straight up from the ground. When is the ball’s velocity zero?

a)

on the way up

b)

at the heighest point

c)

half way down

d)

just before hitting the ground

68.

A 3.0 kg mass is thrown vertically upward with an

initial speed of 10 m/s. What is the maximum height

this object will reach?

a)

0.3m

b)

3.3m

c)

5m

d)

30m

69.
If a freely falling object were somehow equipped with a speedometer, its speed reading would increase each second by 
a)
about 5 m/s.
b)
about 10 m/s.
c)
about 15 m/s.
d)
a rate that depends on its initial speed.
70.

A 45 kg child is sliding the incline from 1.2 m height. Ignoring the friction, what would be his speed at the bottom of the slide?

a)

0 m/s

b)

4.8 m/s

c)

3.4 m/s

d)

2.6 m/s

71.

2 marbles sit at the top of 2 different ramps. Which marble has the most Potential Energy at the top of the ramp?

a)

The marble on the left

b)

The marble on the right

c)

The both have the same potential energy

d)

Neither. They both have 0 potential energy because they are both stopped.

72.

What types of charges attract?

a)

Positive and Positive

b)

Positive and Neutral

c)

Negative and Neutral

d)

Positive and Negative

73.
What is The Law of Conservation of Charge?
a)
The strength of the force is determined by the size of the charge.
b)
Electric charge can neither be created nor destroyed
c)
There is an opposite and equal force to all charges
d)
Electric charge is transferred and transformed
74.

When an object gains a charge, it is due to the movement of what subatomic particles?

a)

protons

b)

electrons

c)

neutrons

d)

protons and electrons

75.
An atom loses an electron.  What type of charge does it have now?
a)
positive
b)
negative
76.
What variable is a Coulomb the unit for?
a)
Charge
b)
Force
c)
Distance
d)
Mass
77.

What is the net charge of an atom that has...

13 protons

14 neutrons

11 electrons

a)

+13

b)

-14

c)

-11

d)

+2

e)

-2

78.

How many elementary charges (e- or p+) are in 1 Coulomb of charge?

a)

6.242 x 108 elementary charges

b)

6.242 x 1018 elementary charges

c)

6.242 x 10-19 elementary charges

d)

6.242 x 1017 elementary charges

79.
When you charge a balloon by rubbing it on your hair this is an example of what method of charging?
a)
Friction
b)
Conduction
c)
Grounding
d)
Induction
80.
If a negatively charged rod touches a conductor, the conductor will be charged by what method? 
a)
Friction
b)
Conduction
c)
Induction
d)
Convection
81.
Removing a static charge by providing a path to the ground is called __.
a)
electric transfer
b)
grounding
c)
switching
d)
seperation
82.
What do you call the process of charging a conductor by bringing it near another charged object?
a)
induction
b)
polarization
c)
neutralization
d)
conduction
83.
If each of the charges doubles, what happens to the electric force?
a)
Quadruples
b)
Doubles
c)
Stays the same
d)
Reduced by half
84.
If the distance between two electric charges is reduced by half, what happens to the electrostatic force?
a)
Quadruples
b)
Doubles
c)
Triples
d)
Reduces by half
85.

Calculate the force exerted between two charged objects separated by a distance of 0.6 m. One object has a charge of -5 C and the other has a charge of +2.0 C.

a)

-1.5x10-11 N

b)

2.5x10-11 N

c)

-2.5x1011 N

d)

-7.5x10-10 N

86.
What equation is this:
FE= (k*q1*q2) / r2 
a)
Coulombs law
b)
Ohms law
c)
Newtons law
87.

What is the approximate electrostatic force between two protons separated by a distance of 1.0 x 10-6 meter? qp+ = 1.6x10-19 C

a)

9.0 x 1021 N and attractive

b)

9.0 x 1021 N and repulsive

c)

2.3 x 10-16 N and attractive

d)

2.3 x 10-16 N and repulsive

88.
Consider the electric field lines shown in the diagram below. From the diagram, it is apparent that object A is ____ and object B is ____.
a)
+,+
b)
+,-
c)
-,+
d)
-,-
89.

Which diagram correctly shows the electric field around a negative charge?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

they are both positive

90.

What is the magnitude of the electric field intensity at a point where a proton experiences an electrostatic force of magnitude 2.30 x 10-25 newton? Charge of a proton is 1.6x10-19 C

a)
1.44 x 10-6 N/C
b)
3.68 x 106 N/C
c)
1.44 x 1044 N/C
d)
3.68 x 10-44 N/C
91.

The diagram above shows a point, P, located midway between two oppositely charged parallel plates.

If an electron is introduced at point P, the electron will

a)

accelerate toward the negatively charged plate

b)

travel at constant speed toward the negatively charged plate

c)

travel at constant speed toward the positively charged plate

d)

accelerate toward the positively charged plate

92.
A point charge Q is far from all other charges. At a distance of 2 m from Q, the electric field is 20 N/C. What is the force a charge of 5 Coulombs feels?
a)
4 N
b)
100 N
c)
40 N
d)
10 N
93.

What is the flow of charges through a circuit known as?

a)

Voltage

b)

Resistance

c)

Current

d)

Power

94.

Which material is a better conductor than copper but more expensive?

a)

Aluminum

b)

Silver

c)

Gold

d)

Iron

95.

What is electric current a measure of?

a)

The number of protons in a wire

b)

The number of electrons flowing through a wire each second

c)

The speed of electrons in a wire

d)

The voltage across a wire

96.

In direct current (DC) systems, how does the charge flow?

a)

In one direction, like a river's flow

b)

In multiple directions, like a wave

c)

In a circular motion

d)

Randomly, without a set path

97.

Which factor affects the resistance of a wire by allowing more charges to pass through at any given time?

a)

Lower Conductivity

b)

Greater Thickness

c)

Longer Length

d)

Higher Temperature

98.

Water flows through a pipe. Select the correct analogies.

a)

Current is like how much water flows through

b)

Voltage is like the water pressure; it's what makes the water flow through

c)

Resistance is like how big the pipes are; it's how easy or hard it is for water to flow through.

d)

None of the above.

99.

Which of the following best describes the direction of electron flow in the circuit?

a)

From low potential to high potential

b)

From high potential to low potential

c)

In both directions simultaneously

d)

From the bulb to the battery only

100.

In reality, current actually flows from which terminal to which terminal of a battery?

a)

Negative to positive

b)

Positive to negative

c)

Neutral to positive

d)

Both directions equally

101.

What color arrows in the diagram represent the actual direction of electron flow?

a)

Green

b)

Blue

c)

Red

d)

Yellow

102.

What is the most dangerous factor for injury or death?

a)

Voltage (volts)

b)

Current (amps)

c)

Resistance (ohms)

d)

All are of equal importance

103.

What would happen if both the tank was large and the flow was fast in the analogy to electricity?

a)

High voltage and high current

b)

Low voltage and low current

c)

High voltage and low current

d)

Low voltage and high current

104.

Provides the push that allows charges to flow through a circuit.

a)

Current

b)

Resistance

c)

Voltage

105.

Measures how difficult it is for charges to flow through a circuit.

a)

Current

b)

Resistance

c)

Voltage

106.

Match the following terms with their unit

a)

Current

1.

Amps

or Ampere

b)

Voltage

2.

Volts

c)

Resistance

3.

Ohms

107.

What are the two main factors that affect the current flowing through a circuit?

a)

Resistance and voltage

b)

Temperature and pressure

c)

Length and width of the wire

d)

Color and shape of the circuit

108.

What happens to the current if the voltage in a circuit increases?

a)

The current decreases.

b)

The current stays the same.

c)

The current increases.

d)

The current becomes zero.

109.

Which equation correctly represents Ohm’s Law?

a)

I = V + R

b)

I = V × R

c)

I = V / R

d)

I = R / V

110.

If the current in a circuit is 3A and the resistance is 4Ω, what is the voltage?

a)

12V

b)

7V

c)

1.33V

d)

0.75V

111.

If the voltage is 24V and the current is 6A, what is the resistance?

a)

4Ω

b)

18Ω

c)

144Ω

d)

0.25Ω

112.

What is the primary function of symbols in schematic diagrams?

a)

To represent each element in the circuit.

b)

To decorate the diagram.

c)

To show the size of components.

d)

To indicate the color of wires.

113.

If a circuit does not have a voltage source, what will happen?

a)

No current will flow

b)

The resistance will increase

c)

The switch will not work

d)

The wire will break

114.

What is a key advantage of LEDs over traditional light bulbs?

a)

They are more energy efficient

b)

They are more expensive

c)

They are larger in size

d)

They require more maintenance

115.
a)

Battery

b)

Lines

c)

Resistor

d)

bulb

116.
a)

resistor

b)

Ammeter

c)

Voltmeter

d)

Switch

117.
a)

zig zag

b)

Resistor

c)

Ammeter

118.

Which one is the circuit diagram of this picture?

a)
b)
c)
d)
119.

Which schematic circuit matches this circuit picture?

a)
b)
c)
120.

Select the symbol for LIGHT BULB

a)
b)
c)
d)
121.
In a series circuit which of the following is the same  throughout the circuit
a)
Resistance
b)
Voltage
c)
Current
d)
None of the above
122.
A circuit with 3 resistors, 10 Ohms, 30 Ohms and 20 Ohms are in series. What is the total resistance
a)
30 Ohms
b)
50 Ohms
c)
60 Ohms
d)
100 Ohms
123.
A circuit with 3 resistors, 10 Ohms, 30 Ohms and 20 Ohms are in series. What is the total resistance
a)
30 Ohms
b)
50 Ohms
c)
60 Ohms
d)
100 Ohms
124.
3 resistors are connected to a 9 V battery n a series circuit, the first resistor uses 6 V, the second uses 2 V. How much voltage does the third resistor use?
a)
1 V
b)
2 V
c)
3 V
d)
9 V
125.
The total resistance in this circuit is 
a)
100 ohms
b)
450 ohms
c)
400 ohms
d)
30 ohms
126.
The total current through this circuit is
a)
0.02 amps
b)
0.09 amps
c)
50 amps
d)
9 amps
127.

Solve for the voltage drop at resistor 1

a)

38 volts

b)

60 Kvolts

c)

50 volts

d)

25 volts

128.

If one bulb goes out in a series circuit, the remaining bulbs...

a)

also go out

b)

get brighter

c)

get dimmer

d)

explode, leaving shards of glass everywhere

129.

If three identical bulbs are connected in parallel, how does the brightness of each bulb compare to a single bulb connected to the battery?

a)

Each bulb is dimmer

b)

Each bulb is brighter

c)

Each bulb has the same brightness

d)

Only one bulb lights up

130.

If the battery voltage is 6V, what is the voltage across each bulb in the parallel circuit?

a)

2V

b)

3V

c)

6V

d)

12V

131.

If three bulbs are connected in parallel and one is removed, what happens to the total current from the battery?

a)

It increases

b)

It decreases

c)

It stays the same

d)

It becomes zero

132.

If a fourth bulb is added in parallel to the circuit, what happens to the total resistance?

a)

It increases

b)

It decreases

c)

It stays the same

d)

It becomes infinite

133.

In a parallel circuit, if one bulb fails, what happens to the other bulbs?

a)

They stay on

b)

They all go out

c)

They flicker

d)

They get brighter

134.

What does the diagram show about current in a power strip?

a)

Current splits into six branches.

b)

Current flows in a single path.

c)

Current reverses direction.

d)

Current stops flowing.

135.

A parallel circuit provides multiple paths for electron flow.

a)

True

b)

False

136.

Based on the information provided in the schematic:

Voltage drop at R1 =

a)

3 V

b)

8 V

c)

18 V

d)

24 V

137.

Based on the information provided in the schematic:

Current through R1 =

a)

2 V

b)

2 A

c)

2 Ω

d)

2 W

138.

The equivalent resistance (total resistance) for the circuit shown is ___.

a)

0.333 ohms

b)

3 ohms

c)

31 ohms

d)

10 ohms

e)

6 ohms

139.

Use your knowledge of parallel circuits and Ohm's Law to solve for the missing components of the circuits.

a)

6 V

b)

4 A

c)

16 V

d)

8 A

e)

12 A

f)

24 V

1
2
1)
2)
140.

How many path exists for current in a combination circuit?

a)

None.

b)

One.

c)

Up to two.

d)

Two or more.

141.

What is the effective resistance of a circuit with a 10 Ω resistor in series with two 20 Ω resistors in parallel?

a)

10 Ω

b)

20 Ω

c)

30 Ω

d)

40 Ω

142.

A combination circuit is made of series and parallel resistances.

a)

True

b)

False

143.

What is the value of RT ?

a)

54 Ω

b)

4 Ω

c)

6.083 Ω

d)

18 Ω

144.

What is the value of IT ?

a)

1 A

b)

2 A

c)

3 A

d)

4 A

145.

What is the voltage drop over the 2 ohm resistor?

a)

6 V

b)

3 V

c)

2 V

d)

1 V

146.
The power of an appliance is...
a)
the amount of voltage going through it 
b)
the amount of energy transferred per second
c)
the amount of charge that passes through per second
147.
Electrical power can be calculated using
a)
Resistance x Voltage
b)
Voltage x Current 
c)
Voltage ÷ Current
148.
The voltage supplied to a circuit is 17 V and the current running through is 10 A. What is the power generated?
a)
170 W
b)
170 A
c)
1.7 V
d)
1.7 W
149.
a pair of 15-watt computer speakers are connected to a 12-volt power supply. what is the electric current running through the speakers? 
a)
1.25 A
b)
0.8 A
c)
12.5 A
d)
180 A
150.
If an oven has a power of 2000 W and the voltage is 230 V what fuse is required?
a)
3A
b)
5A
c)
13A
151.

A kettle of power 2000 W is switched on for 25 mins. What is its energy consumed in kWh?

a)

50000 kWh

b)

50kWh

c)

500 kWh

d)

.5kWh

e)

.83 kWh

152.

How much time did you play video games if the PS4 uses 210 W of power and you used a total of 14.5 kWh of energy?

a)

6.63 hrs

b)

0.15 hrs

c)

69 hrs

d)

50 hrs

153.

A 200 W drill transfers 3 kWh of electrical energy. How long was in used for?

a)

5 hr

b)

15 hr

c)

20 hr

d)

10 hr

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