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EMS103 CHAP 37-41

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 3hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following serious health problems is related to homelessness?

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Heart disease

c)

Liver disease

d)

Hypertension

2.

When caring for patients with autism spectrum disorders (ASD), it is a good idea to do all of the following except:

a)

ask short, closed-ended questions whenever possible.

b)

turn off as many pagers, radios, and noisy pieces of equipment as possible.

c)

provide simple, precise instructions about what you need the patient to do.

d)

gather repeat vital signs at five-minute intervals even if the patient seems very stable.

3.

At which of the following locations is an EMT likely to encounter a patient using an advanced medical device?

a)

Nursing home

b)

Private residence

c)

Specialty care facilities

d)

All of the above

4.

Where are automatic implanted cardiac defibrillators typically placed in patients who require one?

a)

In the upper left chest

b)

In the lower left chest

c)

In the lower right chest

d)

In the upper right chest

5.

Which of the following is a characteristic of child abusers of special need patients?

a)

Alcohol and drug abuse are uncommon.

b)

They may be inappropriately unconcerned about the child.

c)

They usually identify with the child's pain and suffering.

d)

They usually want the child's injuries treated.

6.

Which of the following refers to a condition that interferes significantly with a person's ability to engage in activities of daily living?

a)

Terminal

b)

Handicapped

c)

Disabled

d)

Disability

7.

Assessing blood pressure on a patient with an AV shunt, fistula, or graft could lead to which of the following?

a)

Uncontrollable hemorrhage in the extremity

b)

Damage to the AV shunt, fistula, or graft, requiring surgery

c)

Inaccurate blood pressure readings

d)

Nothing, because there is no need to avoid assessing blood pressure in a patient's arm with an AV fistula, shunt, or graft.

8.

Which of the following statements is true regarding abuse and neglect of adults and elders with special needs?

a)

Sexual abuse is never seen among elder patients with special needs.

b)

Caregivers rarely interfere with assessment, treatment, or transport of patients.

c)

Signs of hunger and malnourishment are common signs of neglect.

d)

The signs of abuse and neglect in adult and elder patients are easy to spot.

9.

Which of the following situations are frequently problematic for patients who have tracheostomy tubes?

a)

Air embolism

b)

Tracheal tears

c)

Tube malplacement

d)

Mucus buildup

10.

Obesity increases the risk for which of the following health problems?

a)

Type 2 diabetes

b)

Respiratory problems

c)

Liver disease

d)

All of the above

11.

A condition that interferes significantly with a person's ability to engage in activities of daily living is referred to as a:

a)

disability.

b)

developmental disability.

c)

special need.

d)

physical handicap.

12.

When preparing to move a patient who is using a specialty medical device from his house to the ambulance, which of the following questions would be appropriate to ask the family?

a)

How do you normally move the patient?

b)

What worked best for moving the patient the last time he was transported by ambulance?

c)

Can you carry the patient to the ambulance since you know the best way to move the patient?

d)

Both A and B are correct.

13.

Which of the following is the main advantage of peritoneal dialysis over hemodialysis?

a)

Peritoneal dialysis is less prone to infection.

b)

Peritoneal dialysis is much faster.

c)

Peritoneal dialysis is more effective.

d)

Peritoneal dialysis is likely to be done at the patient's home.

14.

Bariatrics is defined as the branch of medicine that deals with the cause, prevention, and treatment of which of the following diseases?

a)

Sleep apnea

b)

Diabetes

c)

Obesity

d)

Blindness

15.

You are transporting a patient who is experiencing frequent discharges of her automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). You are caring for the patient in the back of the ambulance en route to the hospital. To protect yourself from being shocked if the defibrillator discharges, you should:

a)

wear protective gloves that cannot conduct electricity.

b)

limit direct contact with the patient.

c)

make sure you do not touch the patient directly.

d)

not worry; the defibrillator does not pose a danger to others.

16.

Which of the following groups of people makes up the largest portion of the homeless population?

a)

Children

b)

Veterans

c)

Females

d)

Families

17.

Jarl is a male who is 5 foot 7 inches tall and weighs 250 pounds. What is Jarl's body mass index (rounded to the nearest tenth)?

a)

36.5

b)

35.2

c)

38.4

d)

39.1

18.

Which of the following is the easiest way for an EMT to communicate with a patient with drastic hearing loss?

a)

Slow down your speech so that the patient can read your lips.

b)

Use a TDD/TYY telephone.

c)

Write your questions using paper and pen.

d)

Speak loudly and directly into the patient's ear.

19.

Which of the following is the best course of action for the EMT to take when caring for a patient with an AICD who goes into cardiac arrest?

a)

No action beyond transport is required because the patient already has an implanted defibrillator.

b)

CPR should be started, but the AED should not be used while on-scene or transporting the patient.

c)

The AED should be applied and used, but CPR should not be started while on-scene or transporting the patient.

d)

CPR and an AED should be used as indicated while on-scene and transporting the patient.

20.

When transporting a patient who is morbidly obese to the hospital, it is important to monitor which of the following vital signs?

a)

Pulse rate

b)

Blood pressure

c)

Blood glucose level

d)

Oxygen saturation

21.

Police escorts of ambulances driving at emergency status are typically discouraged because:

a)

A) police officers are not accustomed to driving an ambulance.

b)

B) drivers who pull over for the police officer often pull back in front of the ambulance.

c)

C) ambulances do not move as fast as police cruisers.

d)

D) there is no guarantee that the police officer knows where the call is located.

22.

Inexperienced ambulance drivers tend to (a)   while driving with the siren operating.

Choose from the below words

stop

pull to the left

speed up

pull to the right

23.

Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Emergency Medical Dispatcher?

a)

Providing emergency instructions to the caller

b)

Prioritizing calls that come in

c)

Coordinating with other public safety agencies

d)

Providing medical direction to the responding units

24.

After responding to the scene of a patient complaining of difficulty breathing, you and your partner determine that the patient's condition is not life threatening based on a thorough assessment. You should transport the patient to an appropriate medical facility with:

a)

the emergency lights off, but activating the siren when traffic builds.

b)

the emergency lights on, but without activating the siren.

c)

both lights and siren activated.

d)

neither lights nor siren activated.

25.

Which of the following is optional equipment?

a)

Infant oxygen masks

b)

Lubricating jelly

c)

Disinfectant solution

d)

Flashlights

26.

Which of the following operational reasons warrant the use of helicopter transport from the scene to a medical facility?

a)

The patient may go into shock shortly.

b)

The patient is in cardiac arrest.

c)

The distance to the medical facility is 15 minutes away.

d)

The patient is located in a remote area.

27.

Failure to formally transfer the patient to medical staff in the emergency department could place the EMT in danger of being held liable for:

a)

false imprisonment.

b)

patient endangerment.

c)

unlawful consent.

d)

abandonment.

28.

You are at the scene of a vehicle collision and have found that there is one patient who is in stable condition. At this point, the call can be categorized as:

a)

no longer a true emergency.

b)

a non-incident.

c)

triaged.

d)

an unfounded call.

29.

At which point should you complete your prehospital care report (PCR)?

a)

As soon as you are free from patient duties

b)

At the end of your shift

c)

As soon as you arrive at the hospital

d)

En route to the hospital

30.

The process of combining the patient and patient-carrying device into a unit ready for moving and transporting the patient is called:

a)

wrapping.

b)

packaging.

c)

loading.

d)

immobilizing.

31.

Operators of emergency vehicles must drive with the safety of others in mind. This is known as driving:

a)

with emergency privilege.

b)

as a public servant.

c)

defensively.

d)

with due regard.

32.

You have transported a patient to the emergency department and are in the process of cleaning the ambulance while your partner is completing all required paperwork. At what point is the final phase of an ambulance call complete?

a)

After all required paperwork is complete and the ambulance has been completely cleaned and restocked

b)

As soon as you get back to the station and notify your dispatch center you are in quarters

c)

As soon as you put the stretcher back in the ambulance with a clean sheet and you notify your dispatch center you are available

d)

As soon as your partner completes the patient care report and you are restocking the supplies used during the call

33.

Which of the following fluids is not checked by an EMT?

a)

Coolant

b)

Hydraulic

c)

Oil

d)

Transmission

34.

When heading back to quarters, on what should you place your emphasis?

a)

Refueling the ambulance for the next call

b)

Documenting the call

c)

Reorganizing the ambulance

d)

Returning safely

35.

Which phase of an ambulance call is characterized by receiving a report from the off-going shift and checking the functionality of equipment?

a)

Transferring the patient to the ambulance

b)

Preparing for the ambulance call

c)

Receiving and responding to a call

d)

Terminating the call

36.

Which of the following should be checked with the vehicle engine turned off?

a)

Dash-mounted gauges

b)

Battery

c)

Windshield wiper operation

d)

Warning lights

37.

Which of the following is a purpose for carrying an aluminum foil roll on an ambulance?

a)

To keep a newborn warm

b)

To control major arterial bleeding

c)

To care for amputated parts

d)

None of the above

38.

When deciding whether or not to drive to the hospital with lights and siren activated for any patient, the driver should consider:

a)

potential risks of making the patient's condition worse.

b)

the patient's preference for lights and siren.

c)

how many calls are waiting for an available ambulance.

d)

the patient's past medical history.

39.

Regarding ambulance warning devices, which of the following statements is not true?

a)

Four-way flashers should not be used as emergency lights.

b)

The large lights on the outermost corners of the ambulance box should blink alternately.

c)

It is a good idea for the light package of the ambulance to combine several types of lights.

d)

In most states it is illegal to drive at night with only one headlight.

40.

Studies have shown that drivers of other vehicles do not usually see or hear ambulances or other emergency vehicles until they are within ________ feet of it.

a)

C) 100

b)

A) 500

c)

B) 250

d)

D) 50

41.

What constitutes a multiple-casualty incident (MCI)?

a)

Any event that requires additional ambulances to adequately transport the patients from the scene

b)

An event that places a great demand on EMS equipment and personnel resources

c)

An event that unfolds over a long period of time and requires federal, state, and local response

d)

An incident with 3 to 15 patients that the service handles without calling for additional resources

42.

Which of the following is a feature of a good disaster plan?

a)

It is based on the availability of resources in a particular area.

b)

It is specific to the geographical location.

c)

It has been practiced in mock disasters.

d)

All of the above

43.

You are beginning triage at the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which a commuter train has derailed. Which of the following should you do first?

a)

Check the airway status of all patients who do not appear to be moving.

b)

Identify all Priority 1 patients.

c)

Do a quick pulse check on all patients at the scene.

d)

Announce that everyone who can get up and walk needs to go to the parking lot of a nearby building.

44.

Eduardo is an EMT for a major metropolitan fire department. He is assigned to a station within an industrial complex. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, Eduardo functions on a team where he plugs a leaking drum. Eduardo's level of hazardous materials training is at the _______ level.

a)

Hazardous Materials Specialist

b)

Hazardous Materials Technician

c)

First Responder Awareness

d)

First Responder Operations

45.

Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-casualty incident who is not breathing initially, but begins breathing when the airway is open, is deemed a _______ patient.

a)

Priority 0

b)

Priority 1

c)

Priority 2

d)

Priority 3

46.

Where is the decontamination corridor located where patients, personnel, and equipment are decontaminated?

a)

Cool zone

b)

Hot zone

c)

Warm zone

d)

Cold zone

47.

When grossly decontaminating a patient who is not wearing personal protective equipment in a hazardous materials incident, which of the following techniques should be used?

a)

Using a high pressure water jet system

b)

Scrubbing with a long-handled brush

c)

Sponging with a dilute solution of water and white vinegar

d)

Taking a low-pressure decontamination shower

48.

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #4 is a 13-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 8, pulse 124, and nonresponsive with blood from the ears and nose.

a)

Priority 2, yellow tag

b)

Priority 1, red tag

c)

Priority 4, black tag

d)

Priority 3, green tag

49.

Which of the following is the most common type of multiple-casualty incident that EMS providers will respond to?

a)

Outbreaks of influenza

b)

Structure fires

c)

Automobile collisions

d)

Hazardous materials incidents

50.

An area near a hazardous materials incident that is upwind from the incident and on the same level is a good location for a:

a)

safe zone.

b)

treatment zone.

c)

danger zone.

d)

hot zone.

51.

You are in charge of your department's personnel at the scene of a mass-casualty incident. As the incident progresses, you request additional resources, and a neighboring department assists you. As part of this department's response, a battalion chief responds to oversee operations. At the command post, you and the battalion chief work together to manage the incident. This cooperative management effort is known as:

a)

unified command.

b)

redundant command.

c)

dual command.

d)

incident command.

52.

What source will provide first aid information about hazardous materials for employees at a work site?

a)

Shipping manifest

b)

Placard

c)

Safety Data Sheets

d)

Bill of lading

53.

You are on the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which the grandstand at a race track has collapsed. As the triage officer, you have encountered a 14-year-old male whose leg has been amputated above the knee. He is responsive to verbal stimuli, and he has an open airway, shallow rapid breathing, and a weak, rapid carotid pulse. This patient would be classified as a Priority ______ for treatment and transport.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

54.

When transporting patients from the scene of a mass-casualty incident, who should be responsible for contacting the receiving hospital?

a)

Transportation supervisor

b)

Triage officer

c)

Incident commander

d)

Transporting EMT

55.

Which of the following actions may need to be taken by the EMT when treating and transporting a patient who was exposed to, and contaminated by, a hazardous material?

a)

Wearing heavy cloth gloves

b)

Placing towels on the floor of the ambulance to soak up contaminated runoff water

c)

Disposing of patient care equipment such as blood pressure cuffs and backboards

d)

Wearing a gown, mask, and goggles to prevent secondary contamination

56.

In which of the following zones is the EMT expected to be staged at the scene of a hazardous materials incident?

a)

Ground zero

b)

Cold zone

c)

Hot zone

d)

Warm zone

57.

Soraya is an EMT who volunteers for a local fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, she helps prevent the incident from becoming larger and ensures bystanders remain safe. Soraya's level of hazardous materials training is at the ______ level.

a)

Hazardous Materials Specialist

b)

First Responder Awareness

c)

First Responder Operations

d)

Hazardous Materials Technician

58.

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #1 is a 16-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 28, pulse 132, and altered mental status with cool clammy skin.

a)

Priority 4, black tag

b)

Priority 3, green tag

c)

Priority 2, yellow tag

d)

Priority 1, red tag

59.

Which of the following is not a desirable characteristic of the rehabilitation area of a hazardous materials incident?

a)

It allows for rapid reentry to the emergency operation.

b)

It is protected from weather elements.

c)

It is located in the warm zone.

d)

It is large enough to accommodate multiple rescue crews.

60.

As it pertains to hazardous materials, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration requires employers to:

a)

have knowledge of all hazardous materials on the premises.

b)

train employees to handle any type of hazardous materials incident.

c)

ensure there is at least one person on-site trained at the technician level.

d)

document the appropriate level of training for each employee.

61.

Which of the following is not an example of a specialty rescue team?

a)

Advanced cardiac life support

b)

Water rescue

c)

Confined-space rescue

d)

High-angle rescue

62.

Which of the following measures can the EMT take to create a safer extrication scene?

a)

Setting up road flares every 10 feet for a safe distance to divert traffic away from the collision

b)

Setting up road flares around hazards such as spilled fuel

c)

Dropping road flares from the ambulance as you are approaching the scene

d)

Both B and C

63.

Upon arrival at the scene of a motor vehicle collision, you find a vehicle that is on fire. The fire is confined to the engine compartment and the hood is tightly closed. Of the following, which is the best course of action?

a)

Discharge a dry chemical fire extinguisher onto the patient's clothing to protect him from the fire.

b)

Let the fire burn and concentrate on extricating the patient.

c)

Wet the interior of the vehicle to keep the fire from spreading.

d)

Use a long-handled pry-bar to open the hood and put out the fire with a fire extinguisher.

64.

You are at the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a single vehicle has collided with a tree. You note that the driver's side airbag has deployed. Which of the following is recommended by airbag experts?

a)

Cut away the fabric portion of the airbag to get it out of the way.

b)

Use a portable fan to ventilate the car to remove the powder from the airbag.

c)

Sharply strike the front bumper to make sure the second airbag has deployed.

d)

Lift the airbag and inspect the steering wheel for damage.

65.

One of the greatest hazards associated with EMS highway operations is:

a)

power lines.

b)

explosion.

c)

traffic flow.

d)

sharp objects.

66.

You are assessing a patient in the front seat of a vehicle that was involved in a head-on collision. As you examine the interior of the vehicle, you notice the airbags have not deployed. What action should you take in order to render the scene safe to work?

a)

Disconnect the battery and continue assessing the patient.

b)

Use a long spine board to shield yourself from the undeployed airbag.

c)

Disconnect the battery and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle.

d)

Turn the ignition to the "off" position and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle.

67.

When attempting to extinguish a fire inside the passenger compartment, it is important to:

a)

use the extinguishing agent sparingly to avoid creating a cloud of powder.

b)

aim the nozzle of the extinguisher away from the patient to avoid hitting the patient.

c)

apply the extinguishing agent liberally to speed up the extinguishing process.

d)

resist the urge to extinguish the fire and focus on extricating any patients.

68.

On arrival at a vehicle collision, you observe a small fire in the engine compartment. A bystander is attempting to smother the fire with a jacket as you approach with an A-B-C extinguisher from your ambulance. Which of the following is the best method of extinguishing the fire?

a)

Sweep the nozzle of the extinguisher left and right using short bursts until you are out of extinguishing agent.

b)

Aim the nozzle to the side of the fire and, with a sweeping motion, push the fire at its base.

c)

Aim at the base of the fire and use short bursts until the fire is out.

d)

Close the hood to contain the fire within the engine compartment.

69.

Which of the following phases of extrication follows the other three phases?

a)

Stabilizing the vehicle

b)

Immobilizing and extricating the patient

c)

Recognizing and managing hazards

d)

Gaining access to the patient

70.

Which of the following methods should the EMT use first to attempt to access a patient in a vehicle while awaiting arrival of a rescue crew?

a)

Use a heavy tool to break the window closest to the patient.

b)

Try all of the vehicle's doors to see if they will open.

c)

Use a pry-bar to release the Nader pin in the door latch.

d)

Use a spring-loaded punch to break the rear window.

71.

Which of the following provides the best protection for the EMT's hands during a vehicle rescue operation?

a)

Double-thickness latex gloves

b)

Elbow-length chemical-proof gloves

c)

Leather gloves

d)

Fabric work gloves with non-slip palms

72.

Which of the following is the first concern when you are caring for a patient who has been in a vehicle collision?

a)

Preserving evidence, such as alcohol beverage bottles and vehicle positioning

b)

Helping law enforcement get the driver's name and insurance information

c)

Treating life-threatening injuries

d)

Your own safety

73.

Which of the following is a reason that the vehicle doors are removed to extricate the patient rather than pulling the patient through an open window?

a)

To avoid criticism from bystanders

b)

To allow a patient with life-threatening injuries to be removed quickly

c)

To make the interior of the vehicle less accessible

d)

To avoid being cut by glass

74.

Which of the following is the best protection for an EMT's upper body during an extrication operation?

a)

Thick fireproof blanket draped around the shoulders

b)

Nylon jacket with asbestos lining

c)

Thick wool coat

d)

Firefighting turnout coat

75.

You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision involving a small pickup truck that struck the rear of a moving tractor-trailer. The driver of the tractor-trailer is walking around and complains of neck pain. The driver of the pickup truck is conscious but cannot exit the vehicle because the door is stuck and the steering wheel is displaced onto his lap. The passenger of the pickup truck is sitting upright in the passenger seat, is unconscious, but has radial pulses. Access to the passenger is not obstructed. A fourth patient, who was sitting in the pickup truck bed, is found about 10 feet away and responds to commands appropriately. Assuming your ambulance is the only emergency vehicle on the scene currently, which of the following patients should be packaged for transport first by the next arriving ambulance?

a)

Tractor trailer driver

b)

Pickup truck driver

c)

Passenger ejected from the pickup truck bed

d)

Passenger in the pickup truck's front seat

76.

You are on the scene of a vehicle collision involving a downed power line. You are walking in an area you feel is a safe distance from the line and begin to feel a tingling sensation in your feet. Which of the following would be a proper method of ensuring your safety while exiting the area?

a)

Turn 90 degrees to the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area.

b)

Turn 180 degrees to the direction you are walking and quickly run to a safe location.

c)

Turn 180 degrees to the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area.

d)

Turn 90 degrees to the direction you are walking and hop to a safe place on one foot.

77.

Under which of the following conditions are safety vests with reflective trim effective in increasing the visibility of the EMT?

a)

At night

b)

On cloudy days

c)

On sunny days

d)

All of the above

78.

You are at the scene of a vehicle collision on an interstate highway. There are two cars involved and both are out of the lanes against the median wall. As an EMS provider, what is your primary safety concern?

a)

Watching for distracted drivers who are driving past the scene

b)

Ensuring the patient is properly packaged for transport

c)

Evaluating the risk of fire caused by ruptured fuel lines

d)

Searching for sharp edges of broken glass and torn metal

79.

An unresponsive patient is found sitting in the front seat of a vehicle with his legs pinned under the dash. Once his legs have been freed, which of the following methods should be used for removal of the patient?

a)

Rapid take-down

b)

Quick extraction

c)

Rapid extrication technique

d)

Scoop stretcher

80.

Which of the following steps of extrication comes before the other three steps?

a)

Recognizing and managing hazards

b)

Preparing for the rescue

c)

Sizing up the situation

d)

Gaining access to the patient

81.

Which of the following animals is the direct source of exposure to the bacterium that causes the plague in humans?

a)

Rats

b)

Fleas

c)

Squirrels

d)

Bees

82.

Which of the following is a consideration when responding to a terrorist incident?

a)

Presence of booby traps such as secondary explosive devices

b)

Presence of mass casualties

c)

Crime scene considerations

d)

All of the above

83.

Which of the following is not generally recognized as a form of terrorist incident?

a)

Biologic weapons

b)

Harassment

c)

Explosion

d)

Industrial sabotage

84.

A type of harm that you may be exposed to as an EMT responding to a terrorist incident that is characterized by posttraumatic stress and survivor guilt is typically called:

a)

radiologic harm.

b)

psychological harm.

c)

etiologic harm.

d)

thermal harm.

85.

You are on the scene of a blast from an incendiary device. You notice that several patients are walking around with minor injuries, but they do not respond when you ask the "walking wounded" to follow you to a specific location for treatment. What should you do?

a)

Speak louder.

b)

Start checking vital signs and tagging each patient.

c)

Ignore them and start treating other patients.

d)

Use signs to give directions.

86.

Biologic warfare is most effective when the agent can gain access through which of the following routes?

a)

Blood

b)

Gastrointestinal tract

c)

Skin

d)

Respiratory tract

87.

Which of the following may be a clue that an incident is the result of terrorist violence?

a)

Occurrence on the anniversary of a significant or symbolic historical event

b)

Function of the target

c)

Number of people present

d)

All of the above

88.

Terrorist incidents typically involve all of the following agents except:

a)

nuclear agents.

b)

explosives.

c)

allergens.

d)

biologic agents.

89.

Dangerous organisms that grow inside of living cells and reproduce are known as:

a)

viruses.

b)

toxins.

c)

biologics.

d)

bacteria.

90.

Anthrax can infect an individual through which of the following routes of exposure?

a)

Ingestion

b)

Inhalation

c)

Skin

d)

All of the above

91.

Which body system is most likely to be affected by exposure to radiologic material?

a)

Urinary system

b)

Respiratory system

c)

Integumentary system

d)

Central nervous system

92.

A terrorist incident may have features in common with which of the following types of incidents?

a)

Hazardous materials

b)

Infectious disease

c)

Mass casualty

d)

All of the above

93.

The type of radiation that requires lead shielding for your protection is:

a)

delta

b)

beta

c)

alpha

d)

gamma

94.

Which of the following is not traditionally a responsibility of an EMT on the scene of a hazardous materials incident caused by terrorism?

a)

A) Identification of any indicators of a particular agent

b)

B) Establishing perimeter control

c)

C) Activation of the notification process

d)

D) Scene size-up

95.

Which of the following chemical agents prohibits the use of oxygen in the cells?

a)

Blister agents

b)

Nerve agents

c)

Cyanide

d)

All of the above

96.

The formula dose multiplied by time represents which of the following?

a)

A) Exposure

b)

B) Lethal dose

c)

C) Critical level

d)

D) Concentration

97.

Which two types of terrorism does the Federal Bureau of Investigation define as occurring in the United States?

a)

A) Violence and intimidation

b)

B) Chemical and biologic

c)

C) Psychological and economic

d)

D) Domestic and international

98.

Someone who has more hair than average on his body is at a higher risk than someone with less hair to be exposed to a toxin by which of the following routes?

a)

Inhalation

b)

Injection

c)

Absorption

d)

Ingestion

99.

An oxygen level of _______ is required for normal breathing.

a)

D) 19.5 percent

b)

A) 10 percent

c)

B) 30 percent

d)

C) 16.5 percent

100.

Which of the following features increases the appeal of an infectious agent for use in terrorist attacks?

a)

High infectivity

b)

Low virulence

c)

Instability

d)

Low potency