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Worksheets

HHH ATA 26-30

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The Engine and APU fire protection is done by two sub- systems, they are:

a)

The Fire detection and the Fire extinguishing system.

b)

The Fire detection and the Firefighting system.

c)

The Fire detection and the Fire eliminating system.

2.

The Fire Detection Unit (FDU) monitors the:

a)

FDU 1 and FDU 2 monitor Engine loops no 1 and APU.

b)

FDU 1 for Engine No.1 and FDU 2 for Engine No.2.

c)

FDU 2 for Engine No1, Engine No 2 and APU.

3.

The Fire Detection Units (FDU) sends the FIRE and FAULT signals to the:

a)

Flight Warning Computer (FWC).

b)

Cabin Intercommunication Data System (CIDS).

c)

System Data Acquisition Concentrator (SDAC)

4.

In CEO and NEO aircraft the OVHD (20VU) guarded red FIRE P/B are used to:

a)

Isolate the related systems.

b)

The Engine or APU will shut down.

c)

Isolate the related system, shut down the related system and also arms the extinguishing system.

5.

Each engine has two fire bottles installed in the pylon and discharge of each bottle is controlled by:

a)

Related red guarded P/B SW.

b)

Related AGENT P/B SW.

c)

Related TEST P/B SW.

6.

On ground an APU fire will cause an:

a)

Automatic shutdown of the APU only.

b)

Automatic discharge of the fire bottle only.

c)

Automatic shut down and Auto discharge of the bottle.

7.

The Avionics Smoke Detection controlled and monitored by:

a)

Avionics Equipment Ventilation Controller (AEVC)

b)

Fire Detection Unit (FDU)

c)

Dedicated fire bottle.

8.

The smoke detector installed on Avionics Smoke Detection system is:

a)

Radioactive detector type.

b)

Laser detector type.

c)

Photo-electric type

9.

The Cargo compartment smoke detection system is monitored by the:

a)

Photo-electric type detectors.

b)

Smoke Detection Function (SDF) integrated in the Cabin Intercommunication Data System(CIDS).

c)

Fire Detection loops.

10.

In A318/A319/A320 the number of nozzles installed for fire agent discharge in cargo compartment are:

a)

Two nozzles in FWD and two in AFT compartment.

b)

One nozzle on each FWD and AFT compartment.

c)

One nozzle in FWD and Two nozzles in AFT compartment.

11.

In A321 the number of nozzles installed for fire agent discharge in cargo compartment are:

a)

Two nozzles in FWD and two in AFT compartment.

b)

One nozzle on each FWD and AFT compartment.

c)

Two nozzles in FWD and Three nozzles in AFT compartment.

12.

Each engine CFM 56 fire loop comprises of:

a)

AGB fire detector, core fire detector and pylon fire detector

b)

Fan fire detector and pylon fire detector

c)

Core fire detector only

13.

The engine fire warning signals are sent to:

a)

ECAM, Engine fire panel and start control panel

b)

Engine fire panel and ECAM

c)

ECAM and start control panel.

14.

Thermal discharge of the APU bottle can be detected on walk around inspection:

a)

By the FDU.

b)

By the ECAM indication.

c)

By visual inspection of the red disc indicator located near rear fuselage.

15.

The lavatory fire protection is provided by:

a)

The lavatory automatic extinguishing

b)

The lavatory smoke detection system.

c)

The lavatory smoke detection system and the waste bin automatic extinguishing

16.

In A321 and A321LR for ETOPS/EDTO certified flight the fire bottles:

a)

Installed with fire metering system on the First bottle only.

b)

Installed with fire metering system on the Second bottle only

c)

Installed with fire metering system on both 1 and 2 bottles

17.

Thermal discharge of the APU bottle can be detected on walk around inspection:


a)

A. By the FDU.

b)

B. By the ECAM indication.

c)

C. By visual inspection of the red disc indicator located near rear fuselage

18.

For ETOPS/EDTO flights certifications, the bottles are certified based on capacity as:

a)

ETOPS (standard) 60 minutes.

b)

ETOPS -90 minutes

c)

ETOPS- 60/ 120/180 minutes.

19.

In maintenance the ENGINE and APU FIRE tests must be performed at:

a)

Any time on ground.

b)

Only in transit.

c)

All times before starting Engine or APU.

20.

The APU Auto extinguishing test push button installed at:

a)

Overhead maintenance panel (50VU).

b)

External Power Panel (108VU).

c)

APU Master Switch panel(25VU)

21.

Two Elevators and the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) achieve the pitch control as:

a)

Elevators for short-term activity and THS for long - term activity.

b)

Elevators for long-term activity and THS for short - term activity

c)

Elevators & THS for manual control activity

22.

The spoilers 1 to 5 numbered from:

a)

Wing tip to wing root.

b)

Wing root to wing tip.

c)

No.1 &2 in Left side, N0.3 in middle and No.4,5 in Right side

23.

The Flight control computers are:

a)

2 SFCC,2 ELAC,2 FAC and 3 SEC.

b)

2 SFCC,2 ELAC,2 FAC, and 2 SEC.

c)

1 SFCC,1 ELAC,1 FAC and 3 SEC.

24.

In normal configuration, the flight control servo actuators act as:

a)

Active servo control and the second one is in damping mode.

b)

Both are in Active mode.

c)

Both are in Damping mode.

25.

The main function of side sticks is to transmit electrical signals to the Electrical Flight Control System (EFCS) in:

a)

Lateral and longitudinal manual control orders.

b)

Only Lateral manual control orders.

c)

Only Vertical manual control orders

26.

Safety warning during handling of side stick assembly to be followed is;

a)

The assembly stays in vertical position, to prevent damper fluid leakage.

b)

No any special procedure required

c)

No standard procedure / practice required.

27.

In case of ELAC 1 and 2 failure or Green and Blue hydraulic low pressure then:

a)

All Aileron actuators revert to Active mode.

b)

All Aileron actuators revert to Damping mode.

c)

Right ailerons in active and left damping mode.

28.

Each spoiler is powered by one hydraulic actuator, if a fault is detected by the monitoring system or no electrical power:

a)

The surfaces are automatically retracted.

b)

The surfaces are manually retracted.

c)

The surfaces are free to move

29.

Any spoiler can be deactivated for maintenance on ground by:

a)

Depressurizing the hydraulic system by using the maintenance unlocking device.

b)

Depressurizing the related hydraulic system from reservoir.

c)

Depressurizing opposite side spoiler

30.

The Maximum Rudder deflection for the A320F CEO is:

a)

50 Degrees for A320/A321 CEO.

b)

25 Degrees for A320/A321 CEO

c)

35 Degrees for A320/A321 CEO

31.

The Maximum Rudder deflection for the A320F NEO is:

a)

50 Degrees for the A318/A319 & A320/A321 NEO.

b)

30 Degrees for the A318/A319& A320/A321 NEO

c)

35 Degrees for the A318/A319 &A320/A321 NEO

32.

The rudder is powered by three hydraulic actuators operating in:

a)

Parallel.

b)

Series

c)

Active/Stand-by mode

33.

To do the test of spoiler 1 on the ground is possible with:

a)

Flap control lever.

b)

Speed brake control lever.

c)

Rudder pedals

34.

The priority for operating the trim wheels are:

a)

Electrical trim has priority over mechanical trim through manual trim wheels.

b)

Mechanical trim has priority over electrical trim through manual trim wheels.

c)

No such priority

35.

In case of THS jamming mode:

a)

Both POBs are applied and the THS is immobilized and locked.

b)

Both the POB is released and the THS is free to move.

c)

The THS operates in normal mode.

36.

The output module of SFCC have three solenoid valves are identified as:

a)

Retract/Extend/Energize valves.

b)

Hold/Release/cut-off valves.

c)

Retract/Extend/Enable valves.

37.

In slat/flap system, the position demand and actual position coming from:

a)

Feedback Position Pick-off Unit (FPPU).

b)

Asymmetry Position Pick-off Unit APPU).

c)

Pressure-Off Brake (POB)

38.

The Wing Tip Break (WTB) application logic coming from PPU and FPPU signal for:

a)

Asymmetry/Runaway/Overspend/UN-commanded movement.

b)

Extension/Retraction.

c)

No failure on flap deployment

39.

If any failures detected by a Slat Flap Control Computer (SFCC) then:

a)

The failures compared with the second SFCC and the WTB (Wing Tip Break) applied.

b)

The failures compared with the second SFCC and the

c)

WTB (Wing Tip Break) released.

40.

The Number of gear boxes used in the slat transmission are:

a)

Six Gear boxes.

b)

Four Gear boxes.

c)

Two Gear boxes

41.

For Maintenance Dispatch Conditions Under MEL for ELACs are:

a)

Both ELACS are MEL items, but Inoperative ELAC 2 is a NO GO item.

b)

Both ELACS are MEL items, but Inoperative ELAC 1 is a NO GO item.

c)

No MEL restrictions

42.

For Maintenance Dispatch Conditions Under MEL for FACs, FCDCs, SFCCs are:

a)

FAC 1, FCDC 1, and SFCC 1 is a NO GO item.

b)

FAC 2, FCDC 2, and SFCC 2 is a NO GO item.

c)

FACs, FCDCs, and SFCCs are all GO-IF items

43.

The Wink Tip Brakes (WTP) operation is:

a)

Mechanically controlled and hydraulically activated.

b)

Electrically controlled and hydraulically activated.

c)

Pneumatically controlled and electrically operated.

44.

If one of the Flap control hydraulic motors is inoperative then:

a)

Flap movement is inhibited.

b)

Flap operates normally.

c)

Flap Extension or Retraction at half speed.

45.

In Daily Check, the Visual checks of FLT CTL surfaces are made:

a)

From Ground with Flaps/Slats in retracted position.

b)

From Ground with Flaps/Slats in extended position.

c)

From Ground with Flaps/Slats in half extended position.

46.

Refuel valves may be controlled:

a)

Electrically only

b)

Manually only

c)

Electrically or manually

47.

The maximum refuel pressure is?

a)

11 psi

b)

45 psi

c)

50 psi

48.

The END light in the refuel/defuel panel illuminate, means?

a)

Pre-selected fuel is equal to actual fuel.

b)

All fuel tanks are full, refuel process stopped automatically.

c)

Any high level sensor detected fuel.

49.

When performing the refuel, defuel, Ground transfer, the R/D electrical circuit is enable by?

a)

Power from the aircraft electrical net work only.

b)

Carrying out HI LVL test.

c)

Contact R/D panel door switch.

50.

The fuel is supplied to the engines from:

a)

Wing tanks only.

b)

Center tank only.

c)

Either Wing or Center tanks can supply

51.

The fuel transfer from the center tank to wing tanks is controlled by:

a)

Fuel pumps.

b)

Transfer valves.

c)

Crossfeed valve.

52.

When the transfer valve opened, they supply pressure to two jet pumps in the center tank, then:

a)

The fuel from center tank transferred to outer wing tanks.

b)

The fuel from center tank transferred to outer LH wing tanks.

c)

The fuel from center tank transferred to LH and RH wing tanks

53.

The two engine LP (Low Pressure) valves used for:

a)

To supply fuel to the engines.

b)

To cut off fuel to the engines.

c)

To supply or cut off fuel to the engines.

54.

The LP valve is closed when the related engine is.

a)

Running(operating).

b)

Shut down.

c)

Shutdown or when the engine fire push button is released

55.

The LP valve is closed when the related engine is.

a)

Running(operating).

b)

Shut down.

c)

Shutdown or when the engine fire push button is released.

56.

The crossfeed valve in the fuel system is:

a)

Normally closed for Normal operation.

b)

Normally opened in Flight.

c)

Normally closed in Ground.

57.

The APU LP (Low Pressure) valves used for:

a)

To supply fuel to the APU.

b)

To cut off fuel to the APU.

c)

To supply or cut off fuel to the APU.

58.

The A321 fuel tanks are integrated into the center fuselage area and wings, are called as:

a)

Simply left- and right-wing tanks.

b)

Right inner and outer tanks.

c)

Left inner and outer tanks.

59.

The Magnetic Level Indicators (MLI) are used to calculate the tank fuel quantities when:

a)

Normal refueling.

b)

A failure has an unwanted effect on the FQIC.

c)

Operating at an outstation.

60.

The Good practice by maintenance during refueling operation is:

a)

Make sure that the fuel tanks are filled to a minimum of 10% capacity.

b)

Always fill full tank.

c)

Minimum 10% required so that the water drain valves can operate satisfactorily.

61.

The APU fuel pump is Single phase electrical pump normally supplied by 115V essential bus bar(801XP) and if 801XPP not energized then:

a)

Supplied by IDGs.

b)

Supplied by Static Inverter bus (901XP)

c)

DC Main batteries.

62.

The APU fuel shut-off valve is:

a)

Single DC motor with an actuator.

b)

Two DC motors in the actuator are supplied from different 28V DC sources.

c)

Two DC motors in the actuator are supplied from single 28V DC source.

63.

The Fuel vent P/B SW in APU compartment used to:

a)

Purge the fuel system during ground maintenance.

b)

Purge the fuel system during APU start.

c)

Purge the fuel system during cross feed.

64.

The fuel feed concept for ACT installed aircraft is:

a)

Auto transfer from ACT to central tank.

b)

Auto transfer from ACT to center tank when fuel level decreases.

c)

Manual transfer only.

65.

Each refuel valve has a manual plunger to operate the valve:

a)

If an Electrical failure occurs.

b)

To purge before refueling.

c)

During De-fueling operation.

66.

In the Refueling panel (800VU), the ACTUAL total quantity indicates the:

a)

Amount of fuel on right wing tank.

b)

Amount of fuel on left wing tank.

c)

Amount of fuel on board.

67.

The fuel transfer from ACTs to centre tank sequence as follows:

a)

First Fwd. ACT then ACT# 2 and then ACT# 1

b)

ACT#1, then ACT#2, then ACT fwd.

c)

ACT#2, ACT Fwd., then ACT #1

68.

The firefighting equipment required during Fueling operations is:

a)

Any type of fire extinguisher.

b)

Adequate capacity fire extinguisher as per AMM.

c)

No fire extinguisher required during fuel operations.

69.

The Fueling computers are:

a)

FLSCU #1 & FLSCU #2 (Fuel Level Sensing Control Unit)

b)

Single channel FQIC (Fuel Quantity Indication Computer)

c)

FLSCU#1 and FLSCU #2 and 2-channel FQIC.

70.

The wing tank pumps are controlled manually but the centre tank can be controlled:

a)

Automatically if the Fuel CTRL Panel the MODE SEL P/B pushed in (AUTO)

b)

Manually if the MODE SEL P/B released out (White MAN mode)

c)

The mode selector can be either Auto or Manual.

71.

During first engine start the PTU is:

a)

Automatically running.

b)

Tested.

c)

Inhibited.

72.

A Blue system pipeline is identified by:

a)

A blue band and number 1.

b)

A blue band and number 2.

c)

A blue band and number 3.

73.

During which operation is the leak measurement valve closed automatically


a)

A. PTU operation.

b)

B. Cargo door operation.

c)

C. Hand pump operation.

74.

What are the manual depressurization valves provided for?

a)

Individual reservoir depressurization

b)

Depressurization of related hydraulic circuit

c)

Hydraulic system depressurization

75.

The 3 Independent hydraulic systems identified as:

a)

No.1/No.2/No.3 system

b)

Left/Right/Center system

c)

Green/Blue/Yellow system

76.

The Hydraulic electric pump can be used as an auxiliary power source for maintenance purposes on Ground are:

a)

Green (G) and Yellow (Y) systems.

b)

Green (G) and Blue (B) systems.

c)

Yellow (Y) and Blue (B) systems

77.

If no power available in the Aircraft the Cargo door can be operated using:

a)

Yellow (Y) system hand pump.

b)

Green (G) system hand pump.

c)

Blue (B) system hand pump.

78.

The Engine Driven Pump (EDP) installed in:

a)

Green ENG No.1 and Yellow ENG No.2.

b)

Blue ENG No.2 and Green ENG No.1

c)

Yellow ENG No.1 and Blue ENG No.2

79.

The RAT extension/retraction by:

a)

Hydraulic only.

b)

Extension by spring force and Retraction by Blue hydraulic

c)

Spring force only.

80.

The location of the PTU in the:

a)

Yellow hydraulic bay.

b)

Main Landing Gear Bay

c)

Nose Landing Gear Bay.

81.

EDPs 1 & 2 are located on:

a)

Pylon area.

b)

The accessory gear box of ENG 1(EDP 1/G-System) and ENG 2(EDP 2/Y-System)

c)

The accessory gear box of ENG 1(EDP 1/Y-System) and ENG 2(EDP 2/G-System).

82.

The hydraulic servicing panels are located at:

a)

Aft of the MLG bay G & B on the LH side &Y on the RH side.

b)

Aft of the MLG bay G & Y on the LH side B on the RH side

c)

Aft of the NLG bay G & B on the LH side Y on the RH side

83.

The Hydraulic fluid type forbidden (NOT TO BE USED) for A320N aircraft family is:

a)

Skydrol LD 4

b)

Hyjet 5.

c)

Skydrol 500B-4

84.

The Direct reading gauges on hydraulic reservoir are used when:

a)

No electrical power supply available.

b)

To cross check with ECAM-HYD page.

c)

During Transit

85.

The check valves isolate the main hydraulic systems from the reservoir filling system when:

a)

It is used for G/B/Y system servicing.

b)

It is not in use.

c)

Electrical power not available.

86.

The safety precaution to be followed when manual depressurization of reservoirs:

a)

Only safety Glass

b)

Wear Ear defender.

c)

The Air may be hot and contain Hydraulic fluids, use appropriate safety wear.

87.

The yellow brake system has an additional accumulator for:

a)

Emergency Breaking and Parking Brake.

b)

Normal Breaking only

c)

Alternate breaking only.

88.

To Specific leak limits during maintenance refer:

a)

AMM table.

b)

TSM table.

c)

CMM table.

89.

The Hydraulic reservoirs are normally pressurized:

a)

600 psi with Nitrogen.

b)

50 psi with Air.

c)

Not pressurized.

90.

The High Pressure (HP) manifold provides hydraulic pressure to the:

a)

Flight control surfaces of LH wing.

b)

Flight control surfaces of RH wing

c)

Flight control surfaces of LH/RH wing and Tail section via three outputs.

91.

The leak test is performed using the:

a)

Multimeter.

b)

Soap bubble test kit.

c)

Dedicated portable Ultrasonic Flow-meter it is a Ground Service Equipment (GSE).

92.

The priority valve makes sure that all available Hydraulic pressure is sent to the:

a)

PTU circuit.

b)

Reservoir

c)

Primary flight controls if pressure in the system reduced.

93.

The Green Reservoir is located inside the:

a)

Aft Cargo compartment.

b)

Green Hydraulic Servicing Panel.

c)

Main Landing Gear Bay

94.

To prevent a possible RAT extension During Maintenance:

a)

RAT safety tool must be installed.

b)

Remove the Hydraulic lines to the RAT.

c)

Pull and safety the C/B.

95.

The wing anti-ice bleed supply to both wings is controlled by:

a)

A single P/BSW on the overhead ANTI ICE panel.

b)

Two LH wing, RH wing P/BSW in overhead BLEED panel.

c)

Two LH wing, RH wing P/BSW in overhead ELECT panel.

96.

The engine anti-ice is manually selected by the crew and is available in:

a)

Flight only.

b)

Ground only.

c)

Flight or Ground with the engine running.

97.

In order to provide reliable information for the air data systems, the air data probes are heated:

a)

Automatically when at least one engine is running.

b)

Automatically when the engines are running.

c)

Manually before the engine starts.

98.

The wing anti-ice valves are installed at:

a)

One in each wing leading edge outboard of the pylons.

b)

FWD cargo compartment.

c)

Main wheel well area.

99.

In CEO aircraft, the engine anti-ice valve is installed on the:

a)

Lower lefthand side of the engine.

b)

Lower right-hand side of the engine.

c)

Top side of the engine at 12 o’clock position.

100.

In NEO aircraft, the engine anti-ice valve is installed on the:

a)

Lower left-hand side of the engine core area.

b)

Lower right-hand side of the engine core area.

c)

Top side of the engine at 12 o’clock position.

101.

The wing anti-ice valve, in case of electrical failure or lack of pneumatic supply pressure, then the valve:

a)

Closes.

b)

Open fully.

c)

Open partially.

102.

For maintenance ground test function of Wing anti-ice valves limited to:

a)

30 minutes.

b)

30 seconds.

c)

One hour

103.

To Prevent Ice formation on the probes, the probes Electrically heated are:

a)

Angle – Of - Attack (AOA) and Static probes.

b)

Total Air Temperature (TAT) and Pitot probes.

c)

Static, Pitot, TAT, and AOA probes.

104.

In maintenance pulling the PHC C/B or Engine Interface Unit (EIU) power supply C/Bs will result in:

a)

Unwanted heating on Pitot and Static ports.

b)

Unwanted heating of TAT and Static ports.

c)

Unwanted heating on ALL the probes and Static ports always follow AMM instruction.

105.

If electronic ice detection system installed, they send the information to:

a)

Directly to FWCs.

b)

SDACs

c)

MCDUs

106.

In CEO engines the level of Anti ice is detection are:

a)

Two Levels, “ICE DETECTED” and “SEVERE ICE DETECTED”

b)

Single Level “ICE DETECTED” in F/O Side

c)

Single Level “SEVERE ICE DETECTED” in CAPT Side

107.

On ground if you pull PHC or WHC or EIU or LGCIU power C/Bs then:

a)

All the associated systems go to full heating (Fail safe mode)

b)

No problems nothing will happens.

c)

Causes unwanted heating can cause damage/injury always follow AMM.

108.

The two-drain mast system status send to the:

a)

CIDS and for indication in the FAP.

b)

CIDS, FAP, Control Unit (CU) front face for HTR and CU lights.

c)

CIDS, FAP, CU and CFDIU for storage of fault data.