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**GCA_ALL Semester 1 Questions RP

Total questions: 224

Worksheet time: 4hrs 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

I am a small body of rock, ice and dust that orbits the sun in a highly elliptical path and am sometime called a “dirty snowball”. What am I?

a)

Comet

b)

Meteoroid

c)

Asteroid

d)

Meteor

e)

Meteorite

2.

I am a rocky body that produces a streak of light as I burn up in our atmosphere and am sometimes called a shooting star. What am I?

a)

Comet

b)

Meteoroid

c)

Asteroid

d)

Meteor

e)

Meteorite

3.

I am a rocky body that moves through space and is smaller than an asteroid but can sometimes be found in the asteroid belt. What am I?

a)

Comet

b)

Meteoroid

c)

Asteroid

d)

Meteor

e)

Meteorite

4.

I have a hydrogen cloud, coma, and a nucleus. I am invisible except when near the sun. What am I?

a)

Asteroid

b)

Star

c)

Meteor

d)

Comet

5.
I am a rock entering a planet's atmosphere.
a)
meteor
b)
meteorite
c)
asteroid
d)
comet
6.
When a meteor hits Earth, what is it called?
a)
meteorite
b)
meteroid
c)
meteor
7.
What is a meteor called when it's in space?
a)
meteroid
b)
meteor
c)
meteorite
8.

What direction does a comet's tail point?

a)

towards the Sun

b)

it moves in all directions

c)

away from the Sun

d)

no one knows

9.

What causes the tail of a comet to become visible?

a)

Earth

b)

Moon

c)

Sun

d)

Asteroid

10.
The asteroid belt can be found between which two planets?
a)
Earth and Mars
b)
Venus and Earth
c)
Saturn and Uranus
d)
Mars and Jupiter
11.
Huge chunks of rock and metal (some measuring miles wide) and are believed to be left-over pieces of planets and moons are called:
a)
Comets
b)
Meteors
c)
Asteroids
d)
Meteroids
12.
How does a meteor compare to a meteorite?
a)
A meteor is moving through the Earth's atmosphere and the meteorite actually lands on Earth
b)
A meteorite is moving through Earth's atmosphere and the meteor actually lands on Earth
c)
Meteors are made up of Carbon and meteorites are made of ice
d)
They are the same thing
13.

Almost Earth’s twin in size and mass, this planet has a very thick atmosphere and is the hottest planet in the solar system.

a)

Venus

b)

Mars

c)

Mercury

d)

Neptune

14.

This cold, blue planet was discovered by a mathematical prediction instead of a telescope and has supersonic winds.

a)

Neptune

b)

Jupiter

c)

Mars

d)

Venus

15.

This is the largest planet in the solar system and is famous for a century old storm called the the Great Red spot.

a)

Saturn

b)

Jupiter

c)

Uranus

d)

Venus

16.
The largest known volcano in the solar system, Olympus Mons, is located on this planet.
a)
Venus
b)
Mars
c)
Mercury
d)
Earth
17.
This is the only planet in the solar system with oceans of liquid water.
a)
Mercury
b)
Mars
c)
Venus
d)
Earth
18.
Scientists have been able to find no atmosphere around this planet because it has little gravity and is closest to the sun.
a)
Mars
b)
Venus
c)
Mercury
d)
Earth
19.

Most likely due to a massive collision, this planet rotates on its side.

a)

Saturn

b)

Venus

c)

Neptune

d)

Uranus

20.
Which of the following is NOT true of all the inner planets?
a)
They are made of solid rock.
b)
They are called gas giants.
c)
They do not have rings.
d)
They have impact craters.
21.
Which of the following separates the outer planets from the inner planets?
a)
Asteroid Belt
b)
Great Red Spot
c)
Kuiper Belt
22.
What is the correct order of the planets from the sun? 
a)
Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
b)
Mercury, Earth, Venus, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
c)
Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Saturn, Jupiter, Uranus, Neptune. 
d)
Mars, Venus, Earth, Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune. 
23.
What are characteristics of the Outer planets.
a)
They have longer distance from each other, made mostly of gas, have few or no moons, have a longer revolution than the Inner planets.
b)
They are less dense, Terrestrial, longer distance from each other, longer revolution around the sun.
c)
They have a shorter distance around the sun, less dense, mostly made of gas, smaller in size. 
d)
They have a longer revolution around the sun, less dense, made mostly of gas, distance between them is longer than Inner planets.
24.
What are 3 things that are common among all the planets in our Solar System?
a)
All are terrestrial, have gravity, are spherical in shape.
b)
All are gaseous, have gravity, are spherical in shape.
c)
All have gravity, are spherical in shape, orbit the Sun.
d)
All have gravity, all have rings, all orbit the Sun.
25.

Which scientific instrument did Galileo use to discover the moons of Jupiter?

a)

telescope

b)

spyglass

c)

microscope

d)

magnifying glass

26.

Who came up with this model?

a)

Copernicus

b)

Kepler

c)

Galileo

d)

Ptolemy

27.

Which astronomer is responsible for the elliptical model of the solar system?

a)

Copernicus

b)

Newton

c)

Aristotle

d)

Kepler

28.

Who improved the telescope and studied Jupiter's moons?

a)

Galileo

b)

Ptolemy

c)

Brahe

d)

Newton

29.

Who came up with the idea of gravity?

a)

Kepler

b)

Newton

c)

Aristotle

d)

Galileo

30.

Which astronomer first suggested that the sun is at the center of the solar system?

a)

Aristotle

b)

Ptolemy

c)

Brahe

d)

Copernicus

31.

How many moons did Galileo discover orbiting Jupiter?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

32.
This astronomer was convinced this image was accurate.
a)
Ptolemy
b)

Newton

c)
Copernicus
d)
Galileo
33.

Why do the planets in our solar system orbit the sun?

a)

because the sun is the brightest

b)

because the sun was there first

c)

because the sun has the most mass

d)

because nothing can orbit planets

34.

Who wrote the law of universal gravitation?

a)

Newton

b)

Galileo

c)

Kepler

d)

Edison

35.
The farther apart two objects are, the _______ the gravitational force.
a)
weaker
b)
stronger
c)
less stable
d)
more stable
36.
What would happen to the planets in the solar system if the sun’s gravitational force were to suddenly disappear?
a)
They will stop moving and become static.
b)
They will stop spinning.
c)
They will fly away in straight lines.
d)
They will start moving toward the Sun
37.

The force of attraction between objects that is due to their masses is -

a)

acceleration

b)

gravity

c)

inertia

d)

revolution

38.

What keeps the planets in orbit around the sun?

a)

gravity and inertia together

b)

gravity

c)

inertia

d)

neither gravity or inertia

39.

the tendency of an object to resist a change in its motion

a)

acceleration

b)

inertia

c)

mass

d)

frame of reference

40.

What two things determine the gravity of an object?

a)

mass & weight

b)

mass & distance

c)

density & mass

d)

volume & distance

41.
A measure of how much matter an object has is--
a)
weight
b)
gravity
c)
mass
d)
volume
42.

What would happen to the force of gravity when mass decreases?

a)

the force of gravity would increase

b)

the force of gravity would decrease

c)

the force of gravity would remain the same

d)

your mass does not influence gravity

43.

Which model of the universe has the Earth at the center?

a)

Heliocentric

b)

Geocentric

c)

Elliptical

d)

Big Bang

44.

Which model of the solar system is accepted today as accurate?

a)

Geocentric

b)

Heliocentric

45.

Most scientists believe the Big Bang Theory explains which of the following questions?

a)

How our planets and moons formed

b)

How our universe began

c)

How the sun turns hydrogen into helium

d)

How fast light travels through space

46.

Most distant galaxies show a red shift. This is considered evidence that the universe is ___.

a)

getting cooler

b)

expanding

c)

condensing into a small point

d)

swirling around

47.
What type of galaxy is this?
a)
Spiral
b)
Elliptical
c)
Irregular
d)
Irrational
48.
What type of galaxy is this?
a)
Spiral
b)
Elliptical
c)
Irregular 
d)
Irrational
49.
The name of our galaxy is the
a)
Andromeda
b)
Milky Way
c)
Magellan
d)
Whirlpool
50.

The classification of a galaxy is based on its observable characteristics. Which of these characteristics is used to classify galaxies?

a)

shape

b)

temperature

c)

types of forces

d)

chemical elements

51.

What holds a galaxy together?

a)

pressure

b)

glue

c)

gravity

d)

planets

52.
Place these objects in order from smallest to largest.
a)
Planets, solar system, universe, galaxy
b)
Solar system, planets, galaxy, universe
c)
Planets, solar system, galaxy, universe
d)
Galaxy, solar system, planets, universe
53.
The Milky Way Galaxy is a 
a)
spiral
b)
lenticular
c)
elliptical 
d)
irregular
54.

What does the Heliocentric system look like?

a)
b)
c)
d)
55.

Imaginary line about which an object rotates is a(n) -

a)

diameter.

b)

radius.

c)

pole.

d)

axis.

56.

What causes day and night?

a)

the axis

b)

Earth's revolution

c)

Earth's rotation

d)

Sun' rotation

57.

As the Earth travels around the sun one complete time, it makes one -

a)

revolution

b)

rotation

c)

day

d)

month

58.

In this diagram, the motion of the Earth can best be described as -

a)

acceleration

b)

gravity

c)

revolution

d)

rotation

59.

In this diagram, the motion of the Earth can best be described as -

a)

Gravity

b)

Inertia

c)

Revolution

d)

Rotation

60.
Day and night on Earth is caused by
a)
The tilt of Earth's axis
b)
Earth's revolution around the sun
c)
Eclipses
d)
Earth's rotation on it's axis
61.
Earth's rotation takes about 
a)
365 days
b)
6 months
c)
24 hours
d)
1 month
62.
One complete revolution of Earth around the sun takes about
a)
180 days
b)
300 days
c)
365 days
d)
385 days
63.

The path that an object takes as it moves around the Sun.

a)
rotation
b)
orbit
c)
loop
d)
trajectory
64.

What is the shape of the orbit the planets have around the Sun?

a)
Hexagonal
b)
Elliptical
c)
Square
d)
Circular
65.

For a solar eclipse to occur, the alignment must be ?

a)
The Moon must be behind the Earth and the Sun.
b)
The Sun must be between the Earth and the Moon.
c)
The Moon must be between the Earth and the Sun.
d)
The Earth must be between the Moon and the Sun.
66.

During what phase of the moon can a lunar eclipse occur?

a)
Full moon
b)
Waning gibbous
c)
Waxing crescent
d)
New moon
67.

You are less likely to see a total solar eclipse than a total lunar eclipse because

a)

only people on the daytime side of Earth can see a solar eclipse.

b)

the moon's shadow covers all of Earth during a solar eclipse.

c)

the moon's umbra only covers a small area on Earth's surface.

d)

new moon phases occur less often than full moon phases.

68.

A total solar eclipse is visible from

a)

only the dark side of Earth.

b)

only within the moon's penumbra.

c)

only within the moon's umbra.

d)

all over Earth

69.

During a total lunar eclipse, an observer on Earth would see

a)

a new moon.

b)

no change in the moon's brightness.

c)

the moon turning a red color.

d)

a first quarter moon.

70.

What is the correct alignment during a total lunar eclipse?

a)

Sun, moon, Earth

b)

Sun, Earth, moon

c)

Earth, Sun, moon

d)

moon, Sun, Earth

71.

The part of the shadow surrounding the darkest part of the shadow and producing a partial eclipse is the

a)
penumbra
b)

axis

c)
umbra
d)
eclipse zone
72.

Which type of eclipse is shown in the diagram?

a)

lunar eclipse

b)

solar eclipse

73.

Which type of eclipse is shown in the diagram?

a)
Solar Eclipse
b)
Lunar Eclipse
74.

A ___________ is the blocking of the Sun's light that occurs during a new moon when the moon's shadow falls on earth.

a)
solar eclipse
b)
lunar eclipse
c)

umbra

d)

penumbra

75.

A ___________ is the blocking of sunlight to the moon; occurs when the moon passes through earth's shadow.

a)
solar eclipse
b)
lunar eclipse
c)

umbra

d)

penumbra

76.
How many high tides does a place have each day?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
5
d)
2
77.
What type of tides would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?
a)
neap tide
b)
spring tide
c)
new moon tide
d)
full moon tide
78.
Wha type of tide would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?
a)
full moon tide
b)
new moon tide
c)
neap tide
d)
spring tide
79.

What type of tide when the sun, earth, and moon are at a 90 degree angle?

a)

moon tide

b)

spring tide

c)

neap tide

d)

tsunami tide

80.

Where are the two high tides located in the diagram?

a)

A and C

b)

B and D

c)

A and B

d)

C and D

81.

High tides are higher than normal and low tides are lower than normal during what type of tide?

a)

neap tides

b)

spring tides

c)

tsunami tides

d)

moon tides

82.

Why does the moon's gravitational pull have more of an effect on tides than the sun's gravitational pull?

a)
they are the same
b)
the moon is larger than the sun
c)
tides are not caused by the moon
d)
the moon is closer to the Earth than the sun
83.
Tides are caused mainly by what?
a)
Moon’s gravitational pull
b)
Sun’s gravitational pull
c)
Earth’s gravitational pull
84.
The bulge of water on the side of the Earth closest to the moon produces ___________.
a)
high tide
b)
low tide
c)
neap tide
d)
spring tide
85.
How many times per month does a spring tide occur?
a)
Once
b)
twice
c)
three times
d)
it changes every month
86.

Spring tides occur during what moon phases?

a)

1st and 3rd quarter

b)

new moon and 1st quarter

c)

new moon and full moon

d)

waxing gibbous and waning crescent

87.

Neap tides occur during what moon phases?

a)

1st and 3rd quarter

b)

new moon and 1st quarter

c)

new moon and full moon

d)

waxing gibbous and waning crescent

88.

The moon moves around the Earth in what direction?

a)

clockwise

b)

counterclockwise

c)

right

d)

left

89.

When the lit part of the moon is getting bigger, we call that ...

a)

Waxing

b)

Waning

90.

When the lit part of the moon is getting smaller, we call that ...

a)

Waxing

b)

Waning

91.

What moon phase is at location C?

a)

3rd quarter

b)

Full moon

c)

New moon

d)

waxing gibbous

92.

What moon phase is at location G?

a)

3rd quarter

b)

Full moon

c)

New moon

d)

waxing gibbous

93.

What moon phase is at location E?

a)

3rd quarter

b)

Full moon

c)

New moon

d)

1st quarter

94.

What moon phase is at location A?

a)

3rd quarter

b)

Full moon

c)

New moon

d)

1st quarter

95.

What moon phase is at location A?

a)

3rd quarter

b)

Full moon

c)

New moon

d)

1st quarter

96.

What moon phase is at location G?

a)

3rd quarter

b)

Full moon

c)

New moon

d)

1st quarter

97.

What moon phase is at location C?

a)

3rd quarter

b)

Full moon

c)

New moon

d)

1st quarter

98.

What moon phase is at location B?

a)

waning gibbous

b)

waxing gibbous

c)

waxing crescent

d)

waning crescent

99.

What moon phase is at location D?

a)

waxing crescent

b)

waning crescent

c)

waxing gibbous

d)

waning gibbous

100.

In which direction does the Moon REVOLVE around the Earth?

a)

clockwise

b)

counter clockwise

c)

some times it changes direction

d)

it doesn't revolve

101.
When the moon is in between the earth and the sun it is a...
a)
New Moon
b)
Full Moon
c)
First Quarter
d)
Third Quarter
102.

During this moon phase, we see half of the moon. What phase is this?

a)

Quarter moon

b)

Crescent moon

c)
New Moon
d)
Full Moon
103.

Why does the moon appear to change shape?

a)

The Moon changes its actual shape throughout the course of the month.

b)

As the Moon changes position, different amount of the moon is visible from Earth.

c)

The season of the year determines the phase of the Moon.

d)

The closer the Moon is to Earth, the more light the Moon reflects.

104.
What does the term WAXING mean?
a)

increasing light, growing in size

b)
Becoming shiny
c)

Losing light, shrinking in size

d)
Moving away
105.
Does this picture represent a waxing or waning moon?
a)
waxing, because the light is increasing
b)
waning, because the light is decreasing
c)
waxing, because the light is decreasing
d)
waning, because the light is increasing
106.

About how long is a lunar cycle?

a)

two weeks

b)

a month

c)

6 weeks

d)

6 months

107.
Which moon phase is visible at position 4?
a)
new moon
b)
first quarter
c)
full moon
d)
third quarter
108.
Name the moon phase
a)
waning crescent
b)
waxing crescent
c)
waning gibbous
d)
waxing gibbous
109.

Name the phase of the moon for letter A

a)

Full moon

b)

First quarter

c)

New moon

d)

Third quarter

110.

What moon phase is at location C?

a)

new moon

b)

1st quarter

c)

full moon

d)

3rd quarter

111.

Name the phase of the moon for letter D.

a)

Waning Gibbous

b)

Waxing Gibbous

c)

Waning Crescent

d)

Waxing Crescent

112.

Which of the following best describes the tilt of the earth when it is summer in the southern hemisphere?

a)

The northern hemisphere is tilted toward the sun

b)

The northern hemisphere is tilted away from the sun

c)

The northern hemisphere is tilted neither toward or away from the sun

d)

Why are you talking about the northern hemisphere when you asked about the southern hemisphere?

113.
Which  of the following best describes the tilt of the earth during the spring and fall equinoxes?
a)
The earth is tilted away from the sun (Northern hemisphere)
b)
The earth is tilted neither toward or away from the sun (tilt is side to side)
c)
The earth is tilted toward the sun (Northern hemisphere)
d)
The earth is not tilted during spring and fall
114.
What does the earth's tilt cause?
a)
The seasons
b)
Day and Night
c)
Tsunamis
d)
Earthquakes
115.
What is the shape of the earth's orbit around the sun?
a)
Circular
b)
Elliptical (slightly oval)
c)
Square to rectangular
d)
Variable and changes with the seasons (no particular shape)
116.
What effect does the tilt of the earth have?
a)
It changes the angle that the sun strikes the earth in different land areas
b)
It causes the earth to be farther away from the sun at different times of the year
c)
When the earth is tilted away from the sun we have night
d)
When the earth is tilted away from the sun we have day
117.
What season is it in the Southern Hemisphere when it is fall in the Northern Hemisphere?
a)
winter
b)
spring
c)
summer
d)
fall
118.
Why does the area around the equator stay the same temperature all year?
a)
The equator rotates slower than the poles.
b)
The equator remains the same distance from the sun.
c)
The equator always receives direct sunlight.
d)
The equator has 18 hour days.
119.

What causes day and night?

a)

Earth's rotation on its axis

b)

Earth's revolution around the Sun

c)

Earth's distance from the Sun

d)

Moon's revolution around Earth

120.

What would seasons be like if Earth's axis were straight up and down?

a)

Seasons would be the same as they are now

b)

Seasons would be more extreme.

c)

There would be no seasons.

d)

none of the above

121.
Where on Earth can you experience entire days of darkness?
a)
The equator
b)
The poles
c)
The Tropic of Cancer
d)
The Tropic of Capricorn
122.

What season is the Northern Hemisphere having at location A?

a)

summer

b)

winter

c)

fall

d)

spring

123.

What season is the Northern Hemisphere having at location C?

a)

summer

b)

winter

c)

fall

d)

spring

124.

In winter, how is the Earth's axis pointed?

a)

towards the sun

b)

up

c)

down

d)

away from the sun

125.

In summer, how is Earth's axis pointed?

a)

towards the sun

b)

up

c)

down

d)

away from the sun

126.
Which season is taking place in the Northern Hemisphere in Position 1?
a)
Winter
b)
Spring
c)
Summer
d)
Fall
127.
Which season is taking place in the Northern Hemisphere in Position 3?
a)
Winter
b)
Spring
c)
Summer
d)
Fall
128.
If its ____ in the Northern hemisphere, then its summer in the Southern hemisphere. 
a)
spring
b)
summer
c)
fall
d)
winter
129.
What are the reasons for the season?
a)
Earth's tilt & rotation
b)
Earth's tilt & revolution
c)
Earth's rotation & size
d)
Earth's tilt & resolution
130.
The term equinox means....
a)
equal amount of day light and equal amount of night
b)
Equal amount of winter and summer
c)
Equal amounts of hot dogs for everyone
d)
The longest day of the year
131.
What happens when the area in which you live tilts away from the sun?
a)
It is summer.
b)
It is spring.
c)
It is winter.
d)
It is fall.
132.
The Earth's axis is tilted _____ degrees.
a)
23.5
b)
25.3
c)
30.2
d)
24
133.
Why does the area around the equator stay the same temperature all year?
a)
The equator rotates slower than the poles.
b)
The equator remains the same distance from the sun.
c)
The equator always receives direct sunlight.
d)
The equator has 18 hour days.
134.

What is the longest day of the year in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

summer solstice

b)

winter solstice

c)

fall equinox

d)

spring equinox

135.

What would happen to seasons if Earth's tilt was greater than 23.5?

a)

They would be the same as they are now

b)

Extreme seasons

c)

no seasons

136.
Which layer of Earth is located above the outer core?
a)
crust
b)
inner core
c)
mantle
d)
lithosphere
137.

Which of these two layers is a solid?

a)

inner core

b)

Outer core

138.
What is the top layer of the Earth's surface called? 
a)
Mantle
b)
Innercore
c)
Outercore
d)
Crust
139.
A dense ball of solid iron and nickel.
a)
crust
b)
inner core
c)
mantle 
d)
outer core
140.
Which best describes the asthenosphere?
a)
molten metal
b)
dense, solid metal ball
c)
solid that flows
d)
dry land and ocean floor
141.
Which layer of Earth is located above the outer core?
a)
crust
b)
inner core
c)
mantle
d)
lithosphere
142.
Which layer of the earth is rock made mostly of iron?
a)
Lithosphere
b)
Core
c)
Asthenosphere
d)
Mantle
143.

What part of the earth is a layer of rock that comprises 70% of Earth’s mass?

a)

mesosphere

b)

mantle

c)

asthenosphere

d)

lithosphere

144.
What is the rigid layer of the Earth's surface made up of the  crust and upper mantle called?
a)
asthenosphere
b)
lithosphere
c)
mesosphere
d)
continental crust
145.
Is the outer core a liquid or solid?
a)
liquid
b)
solid
146.
Temperature _____________________ as you go deeper into the earth.
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
goes up and down depending on the layer
d)
stays the same
147.
Pressure ______________________ as you go deeper into the Earth
a)
increases
b)
decreases 
c)
goes up or down depending on the layer
d)
stays the same
148.
Which layer of Earth is characterized by rock that is plastic, or soft enough to flow?
a)
asthenosphere
b)
crust
c)
lithosphere
d)
inner core
149.
What is the inner most layer of Earth?
a)
core
b)
outer core
c)
inner core
d)
asthenosphere
150.
Which layer of the earth is completely Liquid?
a)
Crust
b)
Mantle
c)
Outer Core
d)
Inner Core
151.
What layer has a solid inner part and a liquid outer part?
a)
Crust
b)
Mantle
c)
Core
d)
none
152.
Which layer is the thickest?
a)
Crust
b)
Mantle
c)
Core
d)
All of them are the same size
153.
What describes the outer core?
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
viscous
d)
gas
154.
This layer of Earth is solid Iron and Nickel
a)
Outer Core
b)
Mantle
c)
Inner Core
d)
Crust
155.

What is the name of layer A?

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

156.

What is the name of layer B?

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

157.

What is the name of layer D?

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

158.

What is the name of layer C?

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

159.

Where is heat and pressure the greatest in the Earth?

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

160.

How have scientists been able to infer the internal structure of Earth without being able to directly observe inside the Earth?

a)

Scientists analyze how earthquake waves move through Earth's interior.

b)

Scientists use satellite radar and sonar technologies to map Earth's internal layers.

c)

Scientists make educated guesses about Earth's internal structure based on previous hypothesis.

d)

Scientists study different types of rocks from many different locations on Earth's surface.

161.

What are the oldest fossils and why?

a)

B, C- because they are closest to the top

b)

A, B- because they are closest to the bottom

c)

They are all the same age- because they are all found on layer 2

d)

A, B- because they are found closest to the top

162.
Which layer formed first?
a)
Rock Layer W
b)
Rock Layer X
c)
Rock Layer Y
d)
Rock Layer Z
163.

According to the law of superposition, which layer is the youngest?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

There is not enough information.

164.

In which kind of rock do we usually find a fossil?

a)

sedimentary rock

b)

metamorphic rock

c)

igneous rock

d)

none of the above

165.

If scientists found this fossil, what could they infer?

a)

what fish are like today

b)

that this fish lacked oxygen

c)

that water once covered the area where this fossil was found

d)

none of the above

166.

Fossils of fish are found under land where cows now live. What does this tell you?

a)

the fish were dropped their by flying birds

b)

this land was once under the ocean

c)

fish used to live on land

d)

none of the above

167.

Organisms D and C clearly lived in an aquatic (water) environment. Organism A does not look like it lived in the water. What is the most likely explanation for this?

a)

The fossil in layer A died on land and was carried to the water

b)

The fossils in layer C and D did not live in the same location as the fossil in layer A

c)

The environment changed over a long period of time. It used to be under water, but is not anymore

168.

Which layer contains the oldest fossil?

a)

Layer 1

b)

Layer 2

c)

Layer 3

d)

Layer 4

169.

Which of the following would be an example of absolute age?

a)

Fossil A is older than Fossil B

b)

Fossil A and Fossil B are the same age

c)

Fossil A is 10 million years old

170.

Which of the following is an example of relative age

a)

Fossil A is older than Fossil B

b)

Fossil A is about 10 million years old

c)

Fossil B is 2 million years old

171.
According to the law of superposition, the oldest fossils are found 
a)
At the top of the rock layers
b)
Near the bottom of the rock layers
c)
In the middle of the rock layers
d)
Somewhat near the surface
172.

If you found an index fossil in a layer of rock in Montana and a similar fossil in a layer of rock in Texas, you would know that:

a)

the fossils and rock layers are the same age

b)

the fossils from Montana are older

c)

the fossils from England are older

d)

none of the above

173.

What can the fossil record tell us?

a)

groups of organisms changed over long periods of time

b)

Information about the past climate of our Earth

c)

information about the past environments and changes of the Earth's surface

d)

all of these are correct

174.

Fossils that are abundant, widespread, and only around for a short period of time are ____.

a)

relative fossils

b)

timeline fossils

c)

index fossils

d)

glossary fossils

175.

When we know the exact age of a fossil it is the _____ age.

a)

random

b)

approximate

c)

relative

d)

absolute

176.

What type of fossil is shown here?

a)

trace

b)

mold

c)

cast

d)

petrified

177.

Q. What type of fossil is an imprint in a rock?

a)

Cast

b)

Mold

c)

Trace

d)

Petrified

178.

This type of fossil forms when a mold is filled with sand or mud that hardens into the shape of the organism.

a)

Mold

b)

Cast

c)

Trace

d)

Petrified

179.

This type of scientist finds, preserves, and interprets fossils remains.

a)

Archeologist

b)

geologist

c)

anthropologist

d)

paleontologist

180.

What type of fossil is shown here?

a)

trace

b)

mold

c)

cast

d)

body

181.
Pangaea was an ancient supercontinent made up of...
a)
America, Greenland, and Europe.
b)
Antarctica, India, and America.
c)
all of Earth’s continents.
d)
South Africa, India, Australia, and South America.
182.
The mechanism that moves continents is based on heat energy moving by
a)
Radiation in the core
b)
Conduction in the lithosphere
c)
Convection in the Asthenosphere
d)
None of these options is true
183.
Which of these phenomenon is not directly cased by plate tectonics 
a)
Volcanic eruptions
b)
Earthquakes
c)
Tsunamis
d)
Landslides
184.

Look at this image. Which explanation best summarizes the hypothesis shown in the figure?

a)

The present continents will gradually move to form a single landmass called Pangaea.

b)

The continents were once a large landmass name Pangaea, which broke apart and gradually drifted to the present-day locations of the continents.

c)

The continents were once a large landmass, but the north and south magnetic poles pulled the continents apart toward the poles

d)

The continents were once a large landmass, but the ocean levels rose, and these oceans separate today's continents.

185.

Look at this image, which shows changes at mid-ocean ridges. The highlighted section shows how one location of the sea floor moves over time. Which process is demonstrated in this image?

a)

Continental drift

b)

earthquakes

c)

plate collisions

d)

sea-floor spreading

186.

___________ is the process by which one tectonic plate is pulled beneath another plate.

a)

subduction

b)

ridge push

c)

mid-ocean ridge

d)

convection

187.
Located around the rim of the Pacific Ocean,  the Ring of Fire is known for
a)
Its great sushi
b)
Frequent droughts
c)
Johnny Cash songs
d)
Volcanoes and earthquakes
188.
Letter A is pointing to the _______________________.
a)
Continental shelf
b)
Mid-ocean ridge
c)
Continental slope
d)
Trench
189.
What is the Mid-Ocean Ridge?
a)
a tall single mountain
b)
a force of water pulling down
c)
a volcanic island
d)
a under water mountain
190.
What is letter C pointing to? 
a)
abyssal plain
b)
seamount
c)
mid-ocean ridge
d)
continental shelf
191.
Letter D is pointing to the...
a)
continental slope
b)
continental shelf
c)
trench
d)
mid-ocean ridge
192.
Which letter is pointing to a trench?
a)
A
b)
D
c)
G
d)
B
193.

What evidence was NOT used by Wegener as proof of continental drift?

a)

land features

b)

erosion

c)

climate

d)

fossils

194.

Any trace of an ancient organism that has been preserved in rock is called a

a)

landform

b)

continent

c)

fossil

d)

landmass

195.

According to Wegener's theory of continental drift,

a)

Earth's surface is made up of seven major landmasses

b)

the continents do not drift

c)

Earth is slowly cooling and shrinking

d)

the continents were once joined together in a single landmass and have slowly moved.

196.

What is Pangea?

a)

the name of a German scientist

b)

the name of a supercontinent that existed millions of years ago

c)

another name for continental drift

d)

the name of an ancient fossil

197.

What is the process that continually adds new crust to the ocean floor along both sides of the mid-ocean ridge?

a)

subduction

b)

continental drift

c)

convergent

d)

sea floor spreading

198.

What type of landform is at C?

a)

mid-ocean ridge

b)

continental crust

c)

deep ocean trench

d)

sea floor spread

199.

In sea floor spreading, molten material rises from the mantle and erupts

a)

along the edge of the continents

b)

along the mid-ocean ridges

c)

in deep ocean trenches

d)

at the North and South pole

200.

Identify the landform labeled A

a)

mid-ocean ridge

b)

deep ocean trench

c)

sea floor spread

201.

What is the process by which the ocean floor sinks beneath a deep ocean trench and back into the mantle?

a)

continental drift

b)

mid-ocean ridge

c)

faults

d)

subduction

202.

What is Wegener's idea that continents are slowly moving over Earth's surface called?

a)

divergence

b)

faults

c)

plates

d)

continental drift

203.

Most geologists think that the movement of Earth's plates is caused by

a)

conduction

b)

earthquakes

c)

convection currents in the mantle

d)

Earth's magnetic field

204.

The geological theory that states that pieces of Earth's plates are in constant, slow motion, driven by convection currents is the theory of

a)

subduction

b)

plate tectonics

c)

deep ocean trenches

d)

sea floor spreading

205.

What type of boundary is this?

a)
Transform boundary
b)
Divergent boundary
c)
Convergent boundary
206.

What type of boundary is this?

a)
Transform boundary
b)
Divergent boundary
c)
Convergent boundary
207.

What type of boundary is this?

a)
Transform boundary
b)
Divergent boundary
c)
Convergent boundary
208.

What is the process that continually adds new crust to the ocean floor along both sides of the mid-ocean ridge?

a)
Continental drift
b)
Subduction
c)
Seafloor spreading
d)
Plate tectonics
209.

In sea floor spreading, molten material rises from the mantle and erupts. What happens?

a)
Magma cools into sedimentary rock.
b)
Oceanic crust is destroyed.
c)
Continental crust is formed.
d)
New oceanic crust is formed.
210.

What is the process by which the ocean floor sinks beneath a deep ocean trench and back into the mantle?

a)
Subduction
b)
Continental drift
c)

mid-ocean ridge

d)
Erosion
211.

The large plates move across the surface of the Earth by what process?

a)

radiation

b)

condensation

c)

convection

d)

conduction

212.

Here is a picture of sea-floor spreading. How are the ocean crusts moving?

a)

no movement

b)

sliding

c)

converging

d)

diverging

213.

When an oceanic crust meets a continental crust, what occurs?

a)

Both crusts are subducted down into the mantle.

b)

The two crusts converge forming folded mountains such as the Himalayas.

c)

The oceanic crust moves over the continental crust resulting in volcanoes.

d)

The oceanic crust moves under the continental crust resulting in volcanoes.

214.

What evidence did Wegener use in his theory?

a)

mountain ranges and coal deposits line up across continents

b)

Continents and fossils fitting together/matching-up like puzzle pieces

c)

glacier scars and evidence from temperature

d)

all of the above

215.

What is a plate boundary where both plates move away from each other?

a)

transform

b)

divergent

c)

convergent

216.

What is a plate boundary where two plates move toward each other?

a)

transform

b)

divergent

c)

convergent

217.

What is a plate boundary where two plates slip past each other moving in opposite directions?

a)

transform

b)

divergent

c)

convergent

218.

What are breaks in Earth's crust where rocks have slipped past each other?

a)
Ridges
b)
Plates
c)
Craters
d)
Faults
219.

Most geologists think that the movement of Earth's plates is caused by

a)

earthquakes

b)

conduction

c)

convection currents in the mantle

d)

Earth's magnetic field

220.

What 2 things are made at DIVERGENT Boundary?

a)

Mid-ocean ridge and tsunami

b)

Mid-ocean ridge and Rift Valley

c)

Trench and mid-ocean ridge

d)

Mountain and mid-ocean ridge

221.

Mountains are created when....

a)

two continental plates collide

b)

two oceanic plate pull apart

c)

two continental plates pull apart

d)

an oceanic plate subducts under a continental plate

222.

What kind of plate boundary is shown here?

a)
Divergent boundary
b)
Subduction zone
c)
Convergent boundary
d)
Transform boundary
223.

What kind of plate boundary is shown here?

a)
Divergent boundary
b)
Subduction zone
c)
Convergent boundary
d)
Transform boundary
224.

The San Andreas Fault in California is known as an active earthquake area. What type of boundary is it?

a)
Divergent boundary
b)
Subduction zone
c)
Convergent boundary
d)
Transform boundary