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Worksheets

Bailey's plastic

Total questions: 151

Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the name of the area where the septum articulates with the nasal bones?

a)

Bridge

b)

Keystone

c)

Fixter

d)

Crest

e)

Base

2.

Where is the hyoid bone ideally located?

a)

Where is the hyoid bone ideally located?

b)

High and anterior in the neck

c)

At the level of third and fourth cervical vertebrae

d)

Low and posterior in the neck

3.

Which of the following is true regarding nasofrontal angle (NFA) ?

a)

Women tend to have a more acute NFA.The vertex should lie at a position in line with the superior limbus.

b)

Women tend to have a more acute NFA.

c)

Surgical raising of the position of the sellion superiorly will shorten the length of the

nose

d)

All of the above.

4.

A reconstructive surgeon plans on using a tissue expander for the scalp. What is the

ideal layer of placement of the tissue expander?

a)

Within the skin, between the epidermis and the dermis

b)

Between the skin and the subcutaneous tissue

c)

Between the subcutaneous tissue and the galea aponeurosis

d)

Between the galea aponeurosis and the pericranium

e)

Between the pericranium and the cranium

5.

What is an absolute contraindication to performing chemical peels?

a)

History of hypertrophic scarring or keloid formation

b)

Active smoker

c)

History of cutaneous radiation exposure

d)

Isotretinoin use within the past 6 months

6.

Which of the following is the best lighting option for office photography?

a)

Fluorescent office lights with on-camera fill flash

b)

Ambient light from office window

c)

On-camera ring flash

d)

Dual studio lights with soft box

7.

The correction of microtia/atresia should begin with:

a)

Skin graft to ear with removal of microtic vestige

b)

Correction of the atresia by an otolaryngologist

c)

Combined procedure in conjunction with the otologist

d)

Autogenous cartilage harvest with framework creation

e)

Wait until the child is 18 years of age to decide for himself or herself

8.

Which of the following anatomical features predisposes a rhinoplasty patient to

postoperative nasal airway obstruction?

a)

Long nasal bones

b)

Wide upper cartilaginous vault

c)

Convex contour of the lower lateral cartilages

d)

Cephalically positioned lateral crura

9.

Which of the following statements best describes the pogonion?

a)

It is used to calculate the lower face-throat and mentocervical angle.

b)

It is the anterior-most aspect of the chin.

c)

It should approximate the zero meridian in men.

d)

All of the above.

10.

Structural cartilage grafts are needed to:

a)

Prevent collapse and airway obstruction

b)

Resist cephalic alar retraction

c)

Provide projection to the tip

d)

All the above

11.

Following Sunderland level IV injury, spontaneous recovery is generally:

a)

Fair

b)

Not possible

c)

Modest

d)

Poor

12.

The principle of aesthetic subunits serve to:

a)

Improve scar camouflage

b)

Assist with excision of cutaneous malignancies

c)

Guide the placement of structural batten grafts

d)

Dictate the indication of Mobs surgery

13.

Which of the following three facial mimetic muscles make the exception and run deep

to the course of the facial nerve?

a)

Zygomaticus major, zygomaticus minor, and buccinator

b)

Buccinator, mentalis, and levator labii superioris

c)

Masseter, mentalis, and buccinator

d)

Levator anguli oris, mentalis, and buccinator

e)

Masseter, mentalis, and orbicularis ocul

14.

In selecting the proper implant for a patient's defect or deformity, which of the following

is the most important consideration?

a)

Size of the defect

b)

Patient skin type

c)

Resistance to deformation

d)

Ease of implantation

e)

Tissue biocompatibility

15.

The nasofacial angle is the angle formed by the intersection of:

a)

 line drawn from the nasion through the nasal tip-defining point and a second line

drawn from the nasion through the alar-facial junction

b)

A line drawn from the nasion through the subnasale and a second line drawn from the

nasion through the nasal tip-defining poin

c)

A line drawn from the nasion through the nasal tip-defining point and a second

line drawn from the glabella through the pogonion

d)

A line drawn from the glabella through the nasal tip and a second line drawn from the

glabella through the subnasale

16.

Transverse chin asymmetry is often associated with:

a)

Treacher Collins syndrome

b)

Pierre Robin sequence

c)

Van der Woude syndrome

d)

Oculoauricular vertebral (OAV) spectrum

17.

Which of the following statements explains how the antihelix can be created?

a)

Securing folded helical cartilage with Mustarde-type horizontal mattress sutures

b)

Scoring the helical cartilage anteriorly

c)

Removing thin strips of helical cartilage from a posterior approach

d)

All of the above

18.

A caudally positioned radix (low-radix disproportion) will have which of these effects?

a)

Making the nasofacial angle more acute and thereby making the nasal tip look relatively

overprojecte

b)

Making the nasofacial angle more obtuse and thereby making the nasal tip look

relatively underprojected

c)

Making the nasofacial angle more acute and thereby making the nasal tip look relatively

underprojected

d)

Making the nasofacial angle more obtuse and thereby making the nasal tip look

relatively overprojected

19.

If a cutaneous reaction with erythema, vesicle formation, and exudates forms specifically

on all areas treated with the topical ointment being used for wound care, the

patient should initially:

a)

Stop the topical ointment

b)

Apply more ointment

c)

Apply ointment and steroid cream

d)

Apply vaseline and moisturizer

20.

Which of the following facial anatomic locations is most amenable to healing by

secondary intention?

a)

Temple

b)

medial canthus

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

21.

Which of the following single-lens reflex (SLR) lens choices is most appropriate for

a)

60-mm macro

b)

105-mm macro

c)

35-mm fixed

d)

24- to 120-mm zoom

22.

Which of the following is not a major tip-support mechanism?

a)

Length and strength of the lower lateral cartilages

b)

Attachment of medial crura to caudal septum

c)

Nasal spine

d)

Attachment of the cephalic margin of the lateral crura to the caudal margin of the

upper lateral cartilage

23.

A small or posteriorly positioned mandible is referred to as:

a)

�icrogenia

b)

Prognathia

c)

Retrognathia

d)

Class II malocclusion

24.

Which is true regarding the fat pads of the upper eyelid?

a)

The lateral fat pad is deeper than the medial fat pad.

b)

aggressive removal of the central fat pad always improves aesthetic outcomes.

c)

The fat pads are deep to the orbital septum.

d)

Reflection of the levator aponeurosis exposes the underlying fat pads.

25.

Which is true regarding the fat pads of the upper eyelid?

a)

The lateral fat pad is deeper than the medial fat pad.

b)

aggressive removal of the central fat pad always improves aesthetic outcomes.

c)

The fat pads are deep to the orbital septum.

d)

Reflection of the levator aponeurosis exposes the underlying fat pads.

26.

Which is true regarding the fat pads of the upper eyelid?

a)

The lateral fat pad is deeper than the medial fat pad.

b)

Aggressive removal of the central fat pad always improves aesthetic outcomes.

c)

The fat pads are deep to the orbital septum.

d)

Reflection of the levator aponeurosis exposes the underlying fat pads.

27.

Recovery of function after treatment with botulinum toxin involves:

a)

Development of new axonal collaterals

b)

Formation of temporary axonal collaterals followed by recovery of transmission

through the primary nerve terminal

c)

Recovery of neural transmission through the original nerve terminal

d)

Regeneration of acetylcholine within the presynaptic nerve terminal

28.

Which of the following statements about complications after otoplasty is false?

a)

Telephone-ear deformity can result from failure to correct a prominent, laterally dis-

placed helical root and lobule.

b)

Infection is the most common complication.

c)

Skin necrosis is a rare complication.

d)

Worsening pain after postoperative day 3 suggests infection.

29.

Dermabrasion techniques resurface the skin until punctate bleeding is appreciated.

This corresponds to what depth of skin?

a)

Directly subdermal

b)

Reticular dermi

c)

Papillary dermis

d)

Subcutaneous tissue

30.

How is microgenia best managed?

a)

Osteotomy and bony advancement

b)

Suprahyoid myotomy

c)

Orthognathic surgery to correct malocclusion

d)

 Alloplastic augmentation

31.

Which of the following structures separates the medial and central fat pads of the

lower eyelid?

a)

Lateral rectus muscle

b)

Nasolacrimal canal

c)

inferior oblique muscle

d)

Inferior rectus muscle

e)

Infraorbital nerve

32.

Where is the cartilage growth center in the nasal septum?

a)

Perichondrium of anterior bony septum

b)

Maxillary crest

c)

Keystone area

d)

Nasal tip

33.

What is the amount of skin that should be preserved between the brow and the upper

eyelid margin after upper eyelid blepharoplasty?

a)

1 5 mm

b)

20 mm

c)

25 mm

d)

30 mm

34.

Which of the following techniques has been shown to reduce an implant's preplacement

bacterial load?

a)

Immersion in antibiotic solution

b)

Irrigation with povidone-iodine (Betadine)

c)

Suction infiltration of an antimicrobial solution

d)

Preoperative intravenous antibiotic

35.

The best technique for camouflaging a thin 5-cm straight scar that runs perpendicular

to the relaxed skin-tension lines along the cheek is:

a)

Geometric broken-line closure

b)

Serial Z-plasty

c)

Fusiform excision

d)

Dermabrasion

36.

 Patients who carry the diagnosis of depression can be described by which of the

following?

a)

May safely undergo cosmetic surgery

b)

Demonstrate improvement in the postoperative Beck Depression Inventory score following cosmetic surgery

c)

May initially experience intensification of their depressive symptoms following cosmetic

surgery

d)

All of the above

37.

Which of the following is characteristic of hemangiomas?

a)

Absence at birth

b)

Increase in size with patient growth

c)

Normal rate of endothelial cell growth

d)

Lack of endothelial hyperplasia

38.

What is most helpful in preventing postinflammatory hyperpigmentation following

resurfacing?

a)

Pretreatment with topical tretinoin

b)

Pretreatment with hydroquinone

c)

Pretreatment and posttreatment with sunscreen and sun avoidance

d)

All of the above

39.

Lasers characteristically produce light which is:

a)

Monochromatic

b)

Pulsed

c)

Collimated

d)

Both A and B

e)

Both A and C

40.

Identify the dermal vascular apparatus regulated by the sympathetic nervous system:

a)

Precapillary sphincter

b)

Precapillary sphincter

c)

Reticular vascular arcade

d)

Papillary venous shunts

41.

Which term best describes the stress-strain relationship for skin?

a)

Linear

b)

Parabolic

c)

Infinite

d)

Nonlinear

42.

At what age does the ear reach nearly its full adult size?

a)

3 years old

b)

 5 years old

c)

 7 years old

d)

1 0 years old

43.

Cartilage grafts are most likely needed for cutaneous defects involving:

a)

A. Lower/lateral half of the nose, i.e., ala and sidewal

b)

Nasal tip

c)

Dorsal subunit

d)

Not needed for skin-only defects as long as cartilage has not been sacrificed

44.

In the facelift patient which of the following might increase the risk of hematoma formation

postoperatively?

a)

Coughing

b)

Uncontrolled blood pressure

c)

Uncontrolled pain

d)

Nausea and vomiting

e)

Excessive movement of the head

45.

The dominant cause of failure following free-tissue transfer for facial reanimation is:

a)

Microvascular failure

b)

Inadequate neural penetration

c)

nadequate suture inset to atrophied modiolus

d)

Incorrect vector of pull

46.

Which of the following is true regarding the Juri flap for hair restoration?

a)

The Juri flap is better utilized for crown coverage than for frontal hairline restoration.

b)

The Juri flap can be harvested in one stage if the Doppler ultrasonography reveals a

strong arterial supply.

c)

The Juri flap is pedicled off the occipital artery and the superficial temporal artery

(STA)

d)

The Juri flap can provide excellent density to the frontal hairline, although the hairs

will be oriented posteriorly, resulting in an unnatural appearance.

47.

A patient presenting for surgical evaluation demonstrates excessive concern with a

very subtle asymmetry of the nostrils. This is so troubling to her that she wears a mask

in public and is not able to maintain employment. This patient may be suffering from

a)

Borderline personality disorder

b)

Body dysmorphic disorder (BDD)

c)

Narcissistic personality disorder

d)

Histrionic personality disorder

48.

Which of the following statements regarding tarsorrhaphy for the paralyzed eye is

most accurate?

a)

It protects better than eyelid weight and lower lid tightening.

b)

It yields the most aesthetically pleasing result.

c)

It is technically more difficult to execute than other eyelid reanimation tehniques.

d)

The revision rate is comparable to that of the eyelid spring procedure.

49.

Stimulated emission of radiation occurs when:

a)

Photons in a system strike atoms in the laser medium and raise an electron to a higher

energy level

b)

An atom in the excited state reemits a photon and the electron returns to the lower

energy level

c)

An atom in the higher energy state is struck by an additional photon with the emission

of two photons

d)

Photons in a system strike atoms in the laser medium and lower an electron to a decreased

energy level

50.

Which of the following incisions is necessary for a delivery approach to the nasal tip?

a)

An intercartilaginous incision coupled with a transcolumellar incision

b)

A marginal incision coupled with an intercartilaginous incision connecting to a full

transfixion incision

c)

A retrograde incision coupled with a marginal incision connecting to a hemitransfixion

incision

d)

A rim incision coupled with an intercartilaginous incision connecting to a full Killian

incision

51.

Which nerve is most commonly injured during face-lifting?

a)

Marginal mandibular branch of facial nerve

b)

Frontal branch of facial nerve

c)

Great auricular nerve

d)

Lesser occipital nerve

e)

Greater occipital nerve

52.

According to the tripod model of nasal-tip dynamics, which of the following is false

a)

Shortening the lateral crura increases tip rotation.

b)

Shortening the medial crura decreases tip projection.

c)

Increasing the length of the medial crura increases tip rotation.

d)

Lengthening the medial crura and shortening the lateral crura decrease tip rotation

53.

Solitary neurofibromas can develop and are not associated with any specific syndrome.

However, a patient with multiple neurofibromas or a plexiform neurofibroma should

be referred for workup of what syndrome?

a)

 von Recklinghausen

b)

Peutz-Jeghers

c)

Klippel-Trenaunay

d)

Osler-Rendu-Weber

e)

Cowden

54.

The extracellular matrix is critical in binding cells to implants. Which of the following

is the most important element for this step in the extracellular matrix?

a)

Triglycerides

b)

Glycosaminoglycans

c)

Amino acids

d)

Polylactide

e)

Polygalactide

55.

What is an advantage of using a phenol-based solution over trichloroacetic acid (TCA)

for peels?

a)

Lack of cardiac toxicity

b)

Absence of need for sedation

c)

Ease of assessing adequate depth of penetration

d)

improved healing times

56.

When utilized as a soft-tissue augmentation implant, human acellular dermis serves in

what capacity to fill a defect?

a)

Scaffold for new tissue ingrowth

b)

Stimulation for dermal thickening

c)

 Underlying bone formation

d)

Permanent bulk in the defect

e)

Neuromodulation

57.

A 33-year-old woman visits her surgeon in consultation for rhinoplasty. Examination

reveals short nasal bones. What is she at particular risk of experiencing as a result of

undergoing rhinoplasty?

a)

Nasal airway obstruction

b)

Tip bossae

c)

Saddle nose deformit

d)

Open roof deformity

58.

In performing a dorsal-hump reduction, the surgeon must take into account which of

the following variations in skin thickness along the dorsum of the nose?

a)

In the upper third of the nose, the skin is thickest at the nasion and thinnest at the

rhinion.

b)

n the upper third of the nose, the skin is thickest at the rhinion and thinnest at the nasion

c)

In the upper third of the nose, the skin has the same thickness between the nasion and

the rhinion, then becomes progressively thicker toward the tip.

d)

The skin is the thinnest at the tip.

59.

Which of the following statements is true about rapid intraoperative tissue expansion?

a)

 It relies on biological creep.

b)

A gain of 3 em of flap length can be achieved.

c)

The expander is usually inflated and deflated once

d)

There are minor physiologic and metabolic changes that occur at various levels of the skin.

e)

It is more popular than conventional long-term tissue expansion.

60.

he risk of bossae formation is increased in patients with:

a)

Tip bifidity, thin skin, and strong lower lateral cartilages

b)

tip bifidity, thick skin, and strong lower lateral cartilages

c)

Tip bifidity, thin skin, and weak lower lateral cartilages

d)

Tip bifidity, thick skin, and weak lower lateral cartilages

61.

The most common smile pattern among humans is:

a)

Full denture smile

b)

Zygomaticus major smile

c)

Canine smile

d)

Risorius smile

62.

the best donor site to obtain high-volume skin paddle in a patient with a low body

mass index (BMI) is:

a)

Rectus

b)

Latissumus dorsi

c)

Anterolateral thigh

d)

 Lateral arm

63.

Appropriate selection of a laser is most highly dependent upon:

a)

Specific wavelength absorption of a given tissue

b)

Coagulation temperature of a given tissue

c)

Water content of a given tissue

d)

 Power density of the laser

64.

Which of the following cells in the skin is the most sensitive to cold injury when using

liquid nitrogen for cryotherapy?

a)

Keratinocyte

b)

Melanocyte

c)

Nerve

d)

Merkel cell

e)

Fibroblast

65.

Chin augmentation with an alloplast implant commonly corrects

a)

Transverse chin asymmetry

b)

Horizontal chin deficiency

c)

Vertical chin excess

d)

A deep labiomental sulcus

66.

A 23-year-old man with moderate alopecia of the frontal scalp and crown is seen in

consultation for surgical hair restoration. Which of the following statements is best

regarding the treatment of this patient?

a)

urgical hair restoration should be directed first to the crown region of the scalp

since transplanting in this area will give the patient the best coverage with appropriate

styling.

b)

Medical therapy is contraindicated in this patient because of his age.

c)

Surgical hair restoration should be directed first to the frontal region of the scalp

since transplanting in this area will give the patient the best coverage with appropriate

styling.

d)

One must be cautious in transplanting in this patient because of the risk and uncertainty

of future hair loss.

67.

The "double-convexity" deformity is an indication for what procedure during

blepharoplasty?

a)

Central fat-pad removal

b)

Skin excision

c)

 Canthoplasty

d)

Lower eyelid resurfacing

e)

Fat transposition

68.

Which of the following is true about complex revision rhinoplasty?

a)

A failed rhinoplasty is likely to illicit anger and frustration in nearly all patients,

including well-adjusted individuals

b)

Revision rhinoplasty patients often display a surprising familiarity with rhinoplasty

jargon and surgical techniques.

c)

evision surgery within 1 year of previous surgery is contraindicated.

d)

Revision of the ultrathick skinned nose is generally much easier than revision of the

ultrathin skinned nose.

e)

A and B only.

69.

Prior to definitive use, skin testing is recommended for which of the following fillers?

a)

Hyaluronic acids

b)

Poly-L-lactic acid (Sculptra)

c)

Polymethyl methacrylate (Artefill)

d)

Silicone

70.

What is the most common complication from face-lifting?

a)

Satyr ear or Pixie ear deformity

b)

Hematoma

c)

Temporal hair-tuft alopecia

d)

Facial nerve injury

e)

Pulmonary embolus

71.

The triad of adenoma sebaceum, mental retardation, and epilepsy is characteristic of

which autosomal-dominant syndrome?

a)

Tuberous sclerosis

b)

Neurofibromatosis

c)

Sturge-Weber

d)

Osler-Rendu-Webe

e)

Carney

72.

Following an upper eyelid blepharoplasty, a patient has persistent scleral show when

she closes her eyes. What is this finding called?

a)

Blepharoptosis

b)

Dermatochalasis

c)

Lagophthalmos

d)

Proptosis

73.

Myoplasty is not possible with which of the following methods of forehead lifting?

a)

Direct brow lifting

b)

Coronal forehead lifting

c)

Indirect brow lifting

d)

Endoscopic forehead lifting

74.

Patient-specific implants utilize which of the following technologies?

a)

Human leucocyte antigen tissue compatibility tests

b)

Messenger RNA encoding

c)

Positron emission tomography scan

d)

Positron emission tomography scan

e)

 MR scan

75.

The donor site that supplies the best quality bone for osseointegrated implants is:

a)

Fibula

b)

Iliac crest

c)

Circumflex scapular artery scapul

d)

Thoracodorsal artery scapular tip (TDAST)

76.

The best candidate for a coronal forehead lift or one of its modifications from the

following is:

a)

A younger woman with a long forehead/high hairlineAn older woman with a short forehead/low hairline

b)

A younger man with a short forehead and a family his

c)

An older woman with a short forehead/low hairline

d)

An older man with a long forehead and no history of androgenic alopecia

77.

The most prominent anterior point on the chin is known as:

a)

Labrale superioris

b)

Menton

c)

Pogonion

d)

Rhinion

78.

The dominant reason for proceeding with nerve grafting soon after injury is:

a)

Biological regenerative potential

b)

Practical/technical aspects of surgery

c)

Functional outcome

d)

All of the above

79.

With conventional long-term tissue expansion, biological creep occurs at all levels of

the skin. Which of the following is a physiologic phenomenon seen in conventional

long-term tissue expansion?

a)

A decrease in mitotic activity in the epidermis

b)

Thickening of all layers of the dermis by 50%

c)

increase in metabolic activity of fibroblasts

d)

Increase in the number of hair follicles and distortion of the pattern of hair growthAtrophy of capillaries, venules, and arterioles

80.

A Z-plasty designed with 60 o angle limbs will increase the length of the scar

a)

10%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

81.

 The ideal limb length for geometric broken-line closure is:

a)

1 mm

b)

5 mm

c)

7 mm

d)

10 mm

82.

Proportionate facial features are described by which of these statements?

a)

Fall within normal measured values

b)

Required to achieve an aesthetically pleasing result

c)

 More likely to harmonize with one another, producing an aesthetically pleasing result

d)

Both A and C are correct

83.

When taking a photograph in manual mode, increased photographic exposure can be

obtained by all of the following maneuvers except:

a)

Changing aperture from f/8 to f/ 1 6

b)

Changing shutter speed from 1/125 to 1/60 of a second

c)

Changing ISO setting from ISO 1 00 to ISO 200

d)

Increasing the ambient light

84.

Deprojecting the nasal tip with a full transfixion incision is not effective with which of

the following anatomical variants?

a)

Long, strong medial crura

b)

Small nasal spine

c)

Bulbous tip cartilages

d)

Thin skin

85.

Which of the following is the approximate temperature of the bone during drilling

to prepare for an osseointegrated implant that has been shown to cause osteoblast

death?

a)

20 ° C

b)

3 0 ° C

c)

50 c

d)

70 ° C

e)

80 c

86.

Scars that extend beyond the natural borders of the wound edges are most accurately

categorized as

a)

Atrophic scars

b)

Hypertrophic scars

c)

Keloids

d)

Fibroids

87.

Lack of platysma decussation can predispose a patient to:

a)

Cobra deformity

b)

Turkey-gobbler deformity

c)

Obtuse cervicomental angle

d)

Platysma! banding

88.

Which donor site requires preoperative assessment of vascular supply

a)

Gastroomental and jejunum

b)

Rectus

c)

Radial forearm and fibula

d)

Anterolateral thigh

89.

Which of the following will increase photographic depth of field?

a)

Which of the following will increase photographic depth of field?

b)

Moving farther from the subject

c)

Changing shutter speed from 1/60 to 1 / 1 25 of a second

d)

Changing aperture from f/ 1 6 to f/8

90.

Which of the following modifications creates the illusion of decreased nasal-tip

rotation?

a)

A dorsal augmentation graft

b)

An increase in nasolabial angle

c)

A reduction of a hanging columella

d)

A lateral crural overlay

91.

Which of the following statements is true about chin augmentation with an implant?

a)

Implants commonly cause anterior bony resorption of the mandible.

b)

Implants are preferably placed through an intraoral approach.

c)

The reported incidence of mentalis muscle dyskinesis is 25%.

d)

A small button-style implant aesthetically causes less complications than wider

implants.

92.

Which of the following factors provide strong justification for declining revision

rhinoplasty?

a)

A well-defined and exacting cosmetic goal on behalf of the patient

b)

The demonstration of anger or frustration by the patient during the initial consultation

c)

Patient familiarity with fundamental rhinoplasty terminology and common treatment

strategies

d)

urgical skills of the surgeon that are insufficient to achieve the approximate

cosmetic goa

e)

All of the above

93.

Studies examining length of time required for adhesion between cranium and overlying

periosteum or periosteum with overlying galea have demonstrated that iomechanical

strength of the dissected flap matches controls at which time period?

a)

1 to 2 weeks

b)

2 to 4 weeks

c)

4 to 6 weeks

d)

6 to 8 weeks

94.

What are the anatomic elements of the internal nasal valve?

a)

The caudal margin of the upper lateral cartilage (ULC), the anterior head of the inferior

turbinate, and the adjacent septum.

b)

The cephalic margin of the ULC, the anterior head of the inferior turbinate, and the

adjacent septum.

c)

The cephalic margin of the ULC, the medial crus of the lower lateral cartilages, and

the posterior septum

d)

The caudal margin of the ULC, the anterior head of the inferior turbinate, and the

alar rim.

95.

Which of the following statements are true regarding body dysmorphic disorder

(BDD) ?

a)

BDD sufferers are at significantly increased risk for suicide.

b)

Many BDD patients are delusional and lack awareness regarding their preoccupation

with trivial cosmetic imperfections.

c)

Cosmetic surgery is generally contraindicated in patients with BDD.

d)

A and C.

e)

All of the above.

96.

What is the plane of dissection for the preseptal transconjunctival approach in

blepharoplasty?

a)

Between the conjunctiva and the lower eyelid retractors

b)

Between the lower eyelid retractors and the orbital fat

c)

Between the skin and the orbicularis oculi muscle

d)

Between the orbicularis oculi muscle and the orbital septum

e)

Directly through the conjunctiva and the lower eyelid retractors near the conjunctival

fornix

97.

What is the minimal amount of cartilage width that should remain for adequate

support of the L-strut?

a)

1 5 mm

b)

20 mm

c)

l O mm

d)

 30 mm

e)

 25 mm

98.

Examples of pivotal flaps include:

a)

Rotation, transposition, and interpolation flaps

b)

Rotation, advancement, and island flaps

c)

Bilobe, V-Y, and interpolation flaps

d)

Advancement, hinge, and rhomboid flaps

99.

Full-thickness grafts survive initially by diffusion of nutrition from fluid in the recipient

site, a process known as:

a)

Plasma imbibition

b)

Vascular inosculation

c)

Neovascularization

d)

None of the above

100.

Which of the following is the most appropriate method of stabilizing the nasal base in

a patient with a retracted columella?

a)

Caudal septal extension graft

b)

Columellar strut

c)

Set back medial crura on caudal septum (tongue-in-groove technique)

d)

Extended columellar strut fixed to nasal spine

101.

An overprojected (shallow) radix on nasal appearance will:

a)

Exaggerate nasal dorsal height, creating the illusion of a "pseudohump"

b)

Make the nose look visually longer

c)

Make the nasal tip look more rotated

d)

Make the nasal tip look more projected

102.

How are contour irregularities that are seen 1 week following cervical liposuction and

anterior platysmaplasty best managed?

a)

Reexploration

b)

Steroid injections

c)

Massage

d)

Reassurance

103.

What complication from face-lifting is thought to be significantly more frequent in

men than in women?

a)

Hematoma

b)

Nerve injury

c)

Skin necrosis

d)

Hypoesthesia

e)

Pixie ear deformity

104.

True or False: The greater the pivot of the flap, the shorter the effective length of the

flap?

a)

True

b)

 False

105.

You are asked to evaluate a newborn with bilateral microtia and atresia. What is your

most important recommendation?

a)

High-resolution CT scan

b)

Auditory brainstem response testing

c)

Placement of bone conduction hearing aid

d)

Plan to perform surgical correction at 1 0 wee

106.

Which of the following best characterizes a prominent ear?

a)

A. Absent antihelical fold

b)

Absent antihelical fold and large conchal bowl

c)

. Absent antihelical fold and defect of upper one-thirds of the helix

d)

Absent antihelical fold and purse-string appearance at helix

107.

Blepharochalasis refers to:

a)

Excess skin of the lower eyelid

b)

Drooping of the lower eyelid

c)

A rare recurrent inflammatory disorder of the eyelids

d)

Orbital fat pseudoherniation

e)

Scleral show

108.

During endoscopic browlift surgery, the temporal branch of the facial nerve can be

safely preserved

a)

With endoscopic-assisted dissection lateral to the orbital rim and zygomatic arch

b)

By dissecting along the undersurface of the temporoparietal fascia

c)

By identifying the "sentinel vein" and staying deep in a plane deep to the temporoparietal

fascia

d)

By dissecting medially within a radius of 3 em from the lateral orbital rim

109.

Which of the following statements best describes the Tyndall effect?

a)

it can be treated with a-adrenergic ophthalmic drops to stimulate Mueller's muscle.

b)

It is seen with overly superficial injection of polymethyl methacrylate.

c)

It may require treatment with hyaluronidase.

d)

It results from intra-arterial injection of a dermal filler.

110.

Which of the following statements regarding the overresected nose is not correct?

a)

Noncompliant skin does not affect successful revision of the overresected nasal tip.

b)

Reducing dorsal septal height exacerbates the sequela of the overresected tip.

c)

The inverted-V deformity can arise without overresection of the dorsum.

d)

 Preserving 6 mm of lateral crural width does not always prevent crural collapse

e)

All of the above.

111.

Which type of lighting best replicated natural sunlight to see deviations in nose shape?

a)

Anterior flash

b)

Overhead flash

c)

Side flash

d)

Inferior flash

e)

Posterior flash

112.

What type of total pharyngeal reconstruction provides the best speech and swallowing

results?

a)

Gastroomental

b)

Anterolateral thigh

c)

Jejunum

d)

Latissumus dorsi from a patient with a high body mass index

113.

In general, composite grafts should be limited in size to:

a)

2 cm

b)

5 mm

c)

1 em or less from each wound edge

d)

The entire aesthetic unit should be replaced

114.

A 27-year-old pregnant woman presents to an urgent care clinic with a 3-week history

of a rapidly growing red friable papule that easily bleeds on the lateral commissure of

the mouth. As the consulting physician you astutely clinically diagnose:

a)

Fibrous papule

b)

Basal cell carcinoma

c)

Angioma

d)

Pyogenic granuloma

e)

Sebaceous hyperplasia

115.

A patient is left with a 10-cm2 defect of the scalp after resection of a basal cell carcinoma.

A reconstructive surgeon plans on using a tissue expander to reconstruct the

defect. What is the ideal surface area of the expander base that should be used?

a)

5 cm2

b)

10 cm2

c)

20 cm2

d)

3 0 cm2

e)

40 cm2

116.

Which of the following is not a consequence of cephalically positioned lateral crura?

a)

Lateral wall collapse

b)

 Parenthesis deformity

c)

Increased middle vault width

d)

Ptotic nasal tip

117.

Which of the following muscles is a brow depressor?

a)

The corrugator procerus

b)

The depressor supercilii

c)

The depressor oculi

d)

The oculi supercilii

118.

The injectable filler most likely to be seen on cr scan is:

a)

Hyaluronic acid (Juvederm)

b)

Calcium hydroxylapatite (CaHA) (Radiesse)

c)

Poly-L-lactic acid (Sculptra)

d)

Silicone

119.

Which of the following is false for the medical treatment of alopecia?

a)

Finasteride is a type II Sa-reductase inhibitor used for the treatment of androgenetic

alopecia.

b)

. A side effect of oral minoxidil for the treatment of hypertension is hypertrichosis.

c)

Finasteride has beneficial effects for the treatment of androgenetic alopecia in men

and women.

d)

The combination of finasteride and minoxidil is frequently used for the treatment of

androgenetic alopecia in men.

120.

Which of these structures is part of the external nasal valve?

a)

Lateral crura

b)

Glabella

c)

Dorsum

d)

Middle turbinate

121.

Ear molding techniques can be described by which of these statements?

a)

Most successful in neonates less than 1 week old

b)

Most successful at correcting prominent ears

c)

Should not be performed in infants older than 3 months

d)

Most successful at correcting severely constricted ears

122.

The reflection of the orbital septum at the superior orbital rim is called?

a)

Whitnall ligament

b)

The levator palpebrae superioris

c)

The tarsal plate

d)

Arcus marginalis

123.

Which of the following is true regarding follicular unit extraction (FUE) techniques for

the management of alopecia?

a)

The entire follicular unit is visualized prior to extracting the graft in order to minimize

transection

b)

Sharp and dull 1 -mm punches are utilized to extract the follicular units.

c)

The back of the scalp is the only donor area that can be utilized using FUE.

d)

The linear scar that results from FUE tends to be less noticeable than the resultant scars

from using the strip method for harvesting donor hair.

124.

 The inverted-V deformity is created by:

a)

Overnarrowing of the nasal tip from transdomal suture placement

b)

 Excessive resection of lateral crura during tip reduction

c)

Ischemic necrosis of the septum due to untreated septal hematoma

d)

Disrupting the connection between the upper lateral cartilages (ULCs) and the septum

during dorsal-hump reduction

125.

What is the effect of increased concentrations of croton oil to an 88% phenol solution

a)

More profound epidermolysis

b)

Decreased dermal effect

c)

Increased healing times

d)

Decreased healing times

126.

Which of the following is incorrect regarding before and after photographs?

a)

The same camera-to-subject distance should be maintained.

b)

The patient should be placed in the Frankfort horizontal plane.

c)

n the oblique view, the patient's head should be turned 45 o while the torso faces the

camera.

d)

Hair should be pulled back behind ears and jewelry should be removed.

127.

In the event of skin necrosis over the neoauricle, which choice is the best for a 5-mm

loss of skin?

a)

Apply ointment daily until closed

b)

Silver nitrate application bid

c)

Wet-to-dry dressings

d)

Temporoparietal fascia flap harvest

e)

Split thickness skin graft to exposed cartilage

128.

Which of the following is false in terms of complications from surgical hair restoration?

a)

infections following surgical hair restoration are common and easily treated with oral

antibiotics.

b)

If not properly planned, scalp reductions can result in an unnatural hair direction.

c)

Wide donor scars are more common when harvesting a large segment of tissue in the

back of the scalp.

d)

Cysts can occur at the recipient site when grafts are placed under the dermis.

129.

Bony genioplasty does not correct:

a)

Vertical microgenia

b)

Mentalis muscle dyskinesis

c)

Transverse chin asymmetries

d)

Horizontal macrogenia

130.

During a rhinoplasty, the surgeon initiates a lateral osteotomy too inferiorly (low) on

the pyriform aperture. Which outcome might be expected?

a)

Medialization of the head of the inferior turbinate

b)

Loss of tip support

c)

Postoperative epistaxis

d)

External nasal valve stenosis

131.

What is the first step in treating a retroorbital hematoma following blepharoplasty?

a)

Administration of 2 L oxygen

b)

Administration of intravenous mannitol

c)

Opening of all incisions and exploration

d)

 Lateral canthotomy and cantholysis

132.

The osseous donor site that has the most soft-tissue options and has the longest

pedicle is:

a)

Fibula

b)

Iliac crest

c)

Circumflex scapular artery scapula

d)

Thoracodorsal artery scapular tip (TDAST)

133.

What is the correct management of a patient with a class II neck and normal chin

projection?

a)

Rhytidectomy

b)

Rhytidectomy and cervical liposuction

c)

Rhytidectomy, cervical liposuction, and anterior platysmaplasty

d)

Rhytidectomy, cervical liposuction, and chin augmentation

134.

Advantages of the endoscopic forehead lift include:

a)

Avoidance of forehead shortening

b)

Significantly less long-term motor nerve injury

c)

Significantly less long-term sensory nerve injury

d)

Faster recovery of sensory neuropathy

135.

Pedicle division of the interpolated forehead flap:

a)

Is usually performed after 3 weeks

b)

Is usually performed after 7 to 1 0 days

c)

Is rarely necessary

d)

Should not be performed in smokers

136.

The blood supply to the forehead flap is from

a)

Both the collateral flow of the angular artery and the supratrochlear artery

b)

The supraorbital artery

c)

Both the supraorbital and supratrochlear arteries

d)

 The anterior branch of the superficial temporal artery

137.

Which flap involves transfer of a flap pedicle across intervening cutaneous tissue?

a)

Advancement

b)

Interpolation

c)

Rotation

d)

Rhomboid

138.

What is the correct management of a patient with a class II neck and normal chin

projection?

a)

Rhytidectomy

b)

Rhytidectomy and cervical liposuction

c)

Rhytidectomy, cervical liposuction, and anterior platysmaplasty

d)

Rhytidectomy, cervical liposuction, and chin augmentation

139.

Advantages of the endoscopic forehead lift include:

a)

Avoidance of forehead shortening

b)

Significantly less long-term motor nerve injury

c)

Significantly less long-term sensory nerve injury

d)

Faster recovery of sensory neuropathy

140.

Pedicle division of the interpolated forehead flap

a)

Is usually performed after 3 weeks

b)

Is usually performed after 7 to 1 0 days

c)

Is rarely necessary

d)

Should not be performed in smokers

141.

The blood supply to the forehead flap is from:

a)

Both the collateral flow of the angular artery and the supratrochlear artery

b)

The supraorbital artery

c)

Both the supraorbital and supratrochlear arteries

d)

The anterior branch of the superficial temporal artery

142.

Which flap involves transfer of a flap pedicle across intervening cutaneous tissue?

a)

Advancement

b)

Interpolation

c)

Rotation

d)

Rhomboid

143.

What is the effect of decreasing the spot size of a laser beam?

a)

Energy density decreases

b)

Power density decreases

c)

Power increases

d)

Power density increases

144.

What is the cause of involutional or senile ptosis?

a)

Dehiscence of the orbicularis oculi from the tarsal plate

b)

Separation of the levator aponeurosis from the tarsal plate

c)

Dehiscence of the orbital septum from the levator aponeurosis

d)

Homer syndrome

145.

Hetter disproved which of Brown's postulates on Baker's classic formula with phenol

peeling?

a)

Increased concentrations of phenol prevent deeper peels by causing an immediate

keratocoagulation that prevents its further penetration.

b)

Adding a saponin-like septisol increases the depth of penetration of phenol.

c)

Croton oil acts as a buffer for the solution

d)

All of the above.

146.

Which of the following statements regarding preoperative surgical evaluation is true?

a)

Surgical (tissue) intolerance cannot be determined with certainty in any patient.

b)

Computer "imaging" (morphing) software programs can greatly facilitate communication

between patient and surgeon.

c)

Nasal palpation is an essential component of the preoperative assessment.

d)

Photographic analysis is not a satisfactory substitute for a thorough physical examination

of the nose.

e)

A, B, and C

147.

A 14-year-old man presents with a 2-cm sharply circumscribed, yellow-orange, verrucous,

linear plaque on the vertex scalp that has been present since birth but recently

changing. The most common malignancy that may develop is called:

a)

Melanoma

b)

Basal cell carcinoma

c)

Sebaceous carcinoma

d)

Trichoblastoma

148.

The cartilage used for ear reconstruction is best harvested from:

a)

The contralateral ear

b)

The mother's ear cartilage

c)

Irradiated cartilage

d)

Costal cartilage

e)

 The father's ear cartilage

149.

Skin biomechanics play a key role in the understanding of how tissue expansion works.

What is the biomechanical property that describes the tendency of a solid material to

slowly move or deform permanently under the influence of stresses?

a)

Extensibility

b)

Creep

c)

Viscoelasticity

d)

Tension

e)

Stress relaxation

150.

A patient returns to her surgeon's office 15 years after undergoing rhinoplasty and is

diagnosed with an inverted-V deformity. What is the likely surgical etiology?

a)

Disrupted connection between the caudal margin of the nasal bones and the cephalic

margin of the upper lateral cartilages (ULCs)

b)

Inadequate lateral osteotomies

c)

Failure to place a radix graft

d)

Inappropriate fixation of her bilateral spreader grafts too inferiorly

151.

Who is credited for the first description of subdividing the face for analysis into

horizontal thirds and vertical fifths?

a)

Leonardo da Vinci

b)

Powell and Humphreys

c)

Galen

d)

Galileo