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Money and Banking Worksheet Questions 55-63

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the sources, which of the following is the primary definition of Money?

a)

Assets held by banks as reserves.

b)

Any asset regularly used in transactions.

c)

Government-issued currency.

d)

Savings held in bank accounts.

2.

The sources describe three key functions of money. Which of the following is NOT listed as a function of money?

a)

Medium of exchange.

b)

Unit of account.

c)

Generator of interest.

d)

Store of value.

3.

Without money acting as a medium of exchange, individuals would primarily rely on what to obtain goods and services?

a)

Financial markets.

b)

Government distribution.

c)

Barter, which requires a double coincidence of wants.

d)

Their own self-production.

4.

Money functions as a unit of account by:

a)

Allowing governments to control prices.

b)

Providing a way to store wealth for the future.

c)

Serving as a common unit to measure economic value, simplifying comparisons.

d)

Facilitating international trade.

5.

The sources compare money as a unit of account to an architect's measuring metre. What quality is highlighted as essential for a useful unit of account, analogous to a stable metre?

a)

It must be widely accepted.

b)

It must be backed by a physical commodity.

c)

It must be a stable unit, not significantly depreciating over time.

d)

It must be easy to transport.

6.

When you save money for future purchases, you are primarily using money in which of its key functions?

a)

Medium of exchange.

b)

Unit of account.

c)

Store of value.

d)

Generator of interest.

7.

According to the sources, why are assets like gold, fine art, or canned food considered less ideal stores of value compared to money?

a)

They are difficult to use as a medium of exchange.

b)

They do not serve as a unit of account.

c)

Their prices fluctuate, they can be difficult to store, and some can expire.

d)

They cannot be easily converted into other assets.

8.

According to the sources, how do banks primarily make money?

a)

By investing depositors' savings in the stock market.

b)

By charging fees for payment services.

c)

By collecting government subsidies.

d)

By charging a higher interest rate on loans than they pay on deposits, known as the 'bank interest rate margin'.

9.

One benefit banks provide is pooling savings from many people. Why is this helpful?

a)

It reduces the need for regulation.

b)

It makes it easier

10.

When banks lend to a diverse array of borrowers rather than lending all savings to one, they are performing which key function?

a)

Solving information problems

b)

Providing payment services

c)

Spreading the risk of lending

d)

Maturity transformation

11.

The function of banks that involves investigating borrowers' financial history and creditworthiness to identify who is likely to repay loans is called:

a)

Spreading risk

b)

Solving information problems

c)

Providing payment services

d)

Maturity transformation

12.

Maturity transformation is a core banking activity described as:

a)

Converting short-term assets into long-term liabilities.

b)

Using short-term deposits ('at call') to make long-term loans (like mortgages)

c)

Transforming risky loans into safe assets.

d)

Changing the terms of a loan after it has been issued.

13.

The risk that arises because banks use short-term deposits to make long-term loans, meaning savers can withdraw funds quickly while borrowers repay over a long period, is specifically termed:

a)

Credit risk

b)

Default risk

c)

Term risk

d)

Liquidity risk

14.

What is a Bank run according to the sources?

a)

A sudden increase in loan defaults by borrowers.

b)

A bank investing heavily in risky assets.

c)

When many of a bank’s depositors want to withdraw their savings simultaneously.

d)

A bank's failure to meet regulatory requirements.

15.

The sources suggest that a bank run can be a "self-fulfilling argument" because:

a)

Banks actively encourage withdrawals to reduce liabilities.

b)

Depositors always know exactly when a bank is failing.

c)

If you believe a bank run is likely, your best response is to withdraw, which contributes to the run.

d)

Banks do not keep any cash on hand to meet withdrawals.

16.

Which of the following policy measures is mentioned as a way the Australian government has made bank runs "much less likely" since 2008?

a)

Lowering interest rates.

b)

Encouraging mergers between large banks.

c)

Establishing a Financial Claims Scheme (FCS), a form of deposit insurance.

d)

Increasing government borrowing.

17.

The purpose of Deposit insurance is to:

a)

Protect banks from credit risk.

b)

Guarantee a specific return on savings.

c)

Guarantee that depositors will get their money back if a bank fails.

d)

Increase the profitability of banks.

18.

The Lender of Last Resort facility, provided by the central bank, aims to stop bank runs by:

a)

Nationalizing failing banks.

b)

Providing banks with potentially unlimited cash (secured by assets) to cover sudden deposit withdrawals.

c)

Bailing out shadow banking institutions.

d)

Forcing depositors to keep their money in the bank.

19.

According to the sources, who specifically is eligible to receive funds from the Central Bank's Lender of Last Resort facility?

a)

Any private company facing a liquidity crisis.

b)

Only banks that take deposits.

c)

Shadow banking entities.

d)

Individual depositors who cannot withdraw their money.

20.

What are Shadow banks as defined in the sources?

a)

Large, multinational banks with complex structures.

b)

Financial firms that act like banks but are not regulated in the same way as traditional banks.

c)

Banks that operate entirely online without physical branches.

d)

Government-owned investment funds.

21.

A key difference between traditional banks and shadow banks, according to the sources, is that shadow banks:

a)

Are primarily focused on making home loans.

b)

Do not have deposit insurance or access to the Lender of Last Resort facilities.

c)

Take deposits from individual savers.

d)

Are subject to stricter capital requirements.

22.

According to the sources, one answer to what caused the 2007-08 financial crisis is that many firms making risky mortgages were shadow banks. What was a consequence of this?

a)

They were able to access unlimited cash from the central bank.

b)

Their risky activities were easily contained within the shadow banking sector.

c)

They were heavily regulated, but the regulations failed.

d)

They were not covered by deposit insurance, and their failures cascaded through interconnected financial markets.

23.

What is a Bond defined as in the sources?

a)

Partial ownership in a firm.

b)

A claim on a portion of a company's future profits.

c)

An IOU, a promise to pay back a loan with an annual fixed coupon amount.

d)

A regulated deposit account.

24.

In the context of a bond, what does the term Coupon refer to?

a)

The face value of the bond to be repaid at maturity.

b)

The date when the bond matures.

c)

The annual interest payment made to the bondholder.

d)

The price at which the bond is issued.

25.

One function of the bond market is to channel funds from savers to borrowers. What alternative does this provide for companies?

a)

Accessing government grants.

b)

An alternative to bank borrowing, allowing companies to borrow large sums.

c)

Raising money by selling shares of ownership.

d)

Relying solely on retained earnings.

26.

The bond market also serves to fund government debt. According to the sources, who is the biggest player in the U.S. bond market?

a)

Large corporations like Nike.

b)

Individual savers.

c)

The U.S. federal government.

d)

Investment banks.

27.

The sources state that the bond market creates liquidity. What does this mean in the context of bonds?

a)

Bonds are automatically converted to cash upon request.

b)

The value of bonds is always stable.

c)

Bondholders can usually resell their bonds before maturity because there are many buyers.

d)

Issuers of bonds are guaranteed to receive the full principal amount.

28.

Which type of risk associated with bonds involves the possibility that the issuer will not be able to repay the principal or coupon payments?

a)

Term risk.

b)

Liquidity risk.

c)

Default risk.

d)

Interest rate risk.

29.

Credit rating agencies like Standard and Poor's assign ratings (like AAA) to companies and governments. What do these ratings primarily help investors assess?

a)

Term risk.

b)

Default risk.

c)

Liquidity risk.

d)

Market price fluctuations.

30.

Term risk in bonds arises because:

a)

The issuer might default on payments.

b)

The bond might be difficult to sell before maturity.

c)

There is uncertainty about future interest rates, which affects the opportunity cost and market value of the bond.

d)

The principal amount is fixed.

31.

According to the sources, what is the relationship between the market price of an existing bond with a fixed coupon and the prevailing market interest rates (or effective yield)?

a)

They are directly proportional.

b)

There is an inverse relationship: if market interest rates rise, the bond's market price tends to fall.

c)

They are unrelated.

d)

They move together only for short-term bonds.

32.

The risk that a bondholder might not be able to quickly find a buyer for their bond when they need cash is called:

a)

Default risk

b)

Term risk

c)

Liquidity risk (for bonds)

d)

Credit risk

33.

Why are U.S. government bonds (Treasuries) generally considered the safest investment according to the sources?

a)

They pay the highest interest rates.

b)

They are backed by gold reserves.

c)

The U.S. government can theoretically always repay by printing money or taxing citizens.

d)

Their price never falls.

34.

Holding U.S. Treasuries generally comes with low default and liquidity risk. What is the typical consequence of this low risk according to the sources?

a)

High potential for capital gains.

b)

Very low interest rates (low reward).

c)

Exemption from taxes.

d)

Protection from term risk.

35.

What does buying a Stock (or share, or equity) in a firm represent?

a)

Lending money to the company.

b)

A promise of fixed annual payments.

c)

Partial ownership in the firm.

d)

A guarantee of future employment.

36.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a way a stock owner can benefit from owning stock?

a)

Receiving Dividends.

b)

The value of their shares rising (Capital gain).

c)

Receiving a fixed annual coupon payment.

d)

Having a say in how the company is run.

37.

When a company that is not already listed on a stock exchange first sells stock directly to the public to raise money, this is called a(n):

a)

Secondary Offering.

b)

Initial Public Offering (IPO).

c)

Bond Issuance.

d)

Share Buyback.

38.

According to the sources, what is the main role of the stock market (where existing stocks are bought and sold between investors)?

a)

To provide companies with funds for investment.

b)

To determine the company's dividend policy.

c)

To create liquidity that encourages people to invest (take risk) in companies.

d)

To regulate company management.

39.

When valuing stocks, the price of a stock reflects the same forces as in other markets, primarily driven by:

a)

Government regulation.

b)

Historical profit levels.

c)

Supply and demand.

d)

The real interest rate.

40.

Which of the following is listed as an approach used to explain the value of financial assets like stocks?

a)

Technical analysis.

b)

Relative valuation.

c)

Algorithmic trading.

d)

Macroeconomic forecasting.

41.

Under the Fundamental analysis approach to valuing a stock, the fundamental value of a stock is defined as:

a)

Its price on the day it was first issued.

b)

Its total assets minus its total liabilities.

c)

The present value of the expected future profits a company will earn.

d)

The highest price the stock has ever traded at.

42.

What is the main challenge or caveat when trying to profit by buying stocks whose price is below your estimate of their fundamental value, according to the sources?

a)

It requires insider information, which is illegal.

b)

Stock prices never move towards their fundamental value.

c)

Your estimate of the fundamental value must be more accurate than the market's collective judgment.

d)

This strategy only works in a recession.

43.

Relative valuation assesses the value of an asset by:

a)

Calculating the net present value of its expected future cash flows.

b)

Predicting its future price movement based on historical trends.

c)

Comparing it to similar assets using financial ratios.

d)

Analyzing the overall economic outlook.

44.

The Price-to-earnings ratio (P/E ratio) is a financial ratio used in relative valuation that measures:

a)

A firm's stock price relative to its net assets per share.

b)

A firm’s stock price relative to last year’s profits per share.

c)

A firm's total market capitalization relative to its debt.

d)

The dividend paid per share relative to the stock price.

45.

The Efficient Market Hypothesis (EMH) states that at any given time, stock prices reflect:

a)

Only historical price data.

b)

The subjective opinions of expert analysts.

c)

All publicly available information.

d)

Only information known to large institutional investors.

46.

According to the EMH, forward-looking traders eliminate predictable stock price changes, leading to prices that follow a(n):

a)

Steady upward trend.

b)

Cyclical pattern.

c)

Unpredictable path (random walk).

d)

Pattern dictated by quarterly earnings reports.

47.

The sources suggest that the stock market in aggregate (like the ASX 200) can serve as a predictor because:

a)

It is heavily influenced by government forecasts.

b)

Individual stock prices are randomly determined.

c)

Overall stock prices embed collective information and reflect average expectations about both individual companies and the economy.

d)

It only reacts to past economic data.

48.

What defines a Speculative bubble?

a)

A period of stable, consistent growth in asset prices.

b)

When the price of an asset reflects its fundamental value.

c)

When the price of an asset rises consistently above what appears to be its fundamental value, driven by the belief that others will buy it later at a higher price.

d)

A sharp, sudden decline in asset prices.

49.

The "Greater Fool" theory is associated with which investment strategy?

a)

Value investing (buying undervalued assets).

b)

Diversification (spreading risk).

c)

Momentum trading/Bubble activity, buying because you expect someone else to pay more later.

d)

Long-term fundamental analysis.

50.

According to the sources, what happens when a speculative bubble eventually bursts?

a)

Prices gradually return to their fundamental value over a long period.

b)

The central bank intervenes to maintain the inflated price.

c)

Someone is left holding the asset when its price crashes, as no "greater fool" can be found to buy it at an even higher price.

d)

The asset becomes permanently worthless.

51.

According to the sources, what is identified as the primary difference between economic transactions occurring between states within a country (like New South Wales and Western Australia) and transactions occurring between different countries?

a)

Citizens in states are motivated by different economic factors than citizens in countries

b)

International transactions are primarily driven by government policies, while domestic transactions are market-driven

c)

The existence of different currencies and the need for exchange rates to settle transactions

d)

Physical flows between states are negligible compared to financial flows between countries

52.

The sources state that foreign trade, saving, and financial transactions are largely motivated by the same reasons as domestic transactions. Which of the following is listed as one of these core motivations?

a)

To achieve perfectly balanced trade flows between all participants

b)

To engage in specialization to maximize output and trade for desired consumption bundles

c)

To accumulate enough foreign currency reserves to implement a fixed exchange rate

d)

To reduce the overall level of financial flows across borders

53.

How is the nominal exchange rate defined in the sources?

a)

The market where different currencies are bought and sold

b)

The price of a country's exports relative to its imports

c)

The relative price of one country’s currency in terms of another country’s currency

d)

The total value of financial investment flows into a country

54.

Based on the description in the sources, what happens when a country's currency appreciates?

a)

The price of the local currency falls, meaning it buys less foreign currency units

b)

The price of the local currency rises, meaning it buys more foreign currency units

c)

The demand curve for the currency shifts to the left

d)

The quantity of the currency supplied to the foreign exchange market decreases

55.

According to the sources, where do people exchange one currency for another to facilitate international trade and financial transactions?

a)

The global capital market

b)

The current account market

c)

The foreign exchange market

d)

The balance of payments market

56.

Which of the following activities creates a demand for a country's currency (e.g., Australian dollars) in the foreign exchange market, according to the sources?

a)

Australians buying imports from foreign countries

b)

Australians investing in foreign countries

c)

Foreigners buying Australian exports and investing in Australian assets

d)

The country's central bank selling its own currency

57.

The sources explain that the demand curve for a country's currency in the foreign exchange market is downward-sloping. This is primarily because:

a)

A higher price for the currency makes the country's goods and assets more expensive for foreigners, reducing the quantity demanded

b)

A lower price for the currency makes foreign goods and assets cheaper for domestic buyers, increasing the quantity of foreign currency demanded

c)

A higher price for the currency makes foreign goods and assets cheaper for domestic buyers, increasing the quantity of the local currency supplied

d)

A lower price for the currency makes foreign goods and assets more expensive for domestic buyers, reducing the quantity of foreign currency demanded

58.

According to the sources, which of the following activities creates a supply of a country's currency (e.g., Australian dollars) in the foreign exchange market?

a)

Foreigners buying Australian exports

b)

Foreigners investing in Australia

c)

Australians buying imports from foreign countries and investing in foreign assets

d)

Foreign speculators buying the country's currency in anticipation of appreciation

59.

What determines the equilibrium nominal exchange rate in the foreign exchange market, according to the sources?

a)

The difference between the country's current account and financial account balances

b)

The intervention of central banks to fix the exchange rate

c)

The interaction of the forces of supply and demand for the currency

d)

The level of a country's foreign currency reserves

60.

Based on the sources, what is the likely effect on the nominal exchange rate if there is an increase in financial inflows into a country?

a)

The supply of the country's currency will increase, causing a depreciation

b)

The demand for the country's currency will increase, causing an appreciation

c)

Both demand and supply of the currency will decrease, leaving the exchange rate unchanged

d)

The supply of the country's currency will decrease, causing an appreciation

61.

According to the sources, which of the following factors could cause an increase in the demand for a country's exports, leading to an increase in demand for its currency?

a)

A decrease in world GDP

b)

An increase in barriers to foreign markets

c)

Successful domestic innovation and marketing of goods and services to foreign customers

d)

A decrease in the foreign prices of competitor products

62.

The sources list several factors that can increase financial inflows into a country, thereby increasing the demand for its currency. Which of the following is one such factor?

4 lines
63.

According to the sources, an increase in which of the following factors could lead to an increase in a country's imports, thereby increasing the supply of its currency?

a)

A decrease in the country's GDP

b)

An increase in barriers protecting domestic producers

c)

An increase in domestic prices relative to foreign alternatives

d)

An increase in foreign prices

64.

Which of the following could cause an increase in financial outflows from a country, leading to an increase in the supply of its currency, based on the sources?

a)

An increase in the country's interest rates relative to foreign interest rates

b)

A decrease in the country's business profitability relative to foreign businesses

c)

An increase in foreign political risk relative to the country's political risk

d)

An increase in the expected future value of the country's currency

65.

The sources describe two types of exchange rate regimes. In a floating exchange rate regime:

a)

The exchange rate is set by the government and rarely changes

b)

The country needs enough foreign reserves to pay for all net outflows

c)

The exchange rate fluctuates in response to market forces

d)

The government actively manages the exchange rate to maintain a fixed value

66.

What does the Balance of Payments track, according to the sources?

a)

Only a country's trade balance (exports minus imports of goods)

b)

How much income crosses national borders each year

c)

Transactions with the rest of the world, categorised into the Current Account and the Financial Account

d)

The total amount of foreign currency held by the central bank

67.

The Current Account, as defined in the sources, measures:

a)

The difference between a country's total financial inflows and financial outflows

b)

The difference between the total income a country's residents receive from abroad and the total income they pay to foreigners

c)

The total value of a country's exports of goods and services

d)

The total amount of foreign currency held by the central bank

68.

According to the sources, what is the theoretical relationship between the Current Account and the Financial Account?

a)

They are independent of each other

b)

The Current Account surplus must equal the Financial Account surplus

c)

The Financial Account must be the negative of the Current Account

d)

There is no necessary relationship unless the government intervenes

69.

Based on the formula provided in the sources (Y = C + I + G + NX and -NX = C + I + G - Y), a country running a Current Account Deficit implies that:

a)

Its total income/output (Y) exceeds its total spending (C + I + G)

b)

Its total spending (C + I + G) exceeds its total income/output (Y)

c)

It is investing abroad on net

d)

It has a Financial Account deficit

70.

The sources discuss the common misconception that a Current Account Deficit (CAD) is bad. Which statement reflects the view presented in the sources?

a)

CADs are always a sign that a country is importing too much

b)

CADs mean a country is effectively using foreign savings to fund local spending or investment

c)

CADs indicate that a country is exporting too little

d)

CADs can only be reduced by imposing tariffs

71.

According to the sources, if a country is at full employment, what action would help reduce a Current Account Deficit (CAD)?

a)

Increasing local spending (e.g., increasing government spending)

b)

Accepting more foreign investment into the country

c)

Spending less locally and accepting less foreign investment

d)

Imposing higher tariffs on imports

72.

Which type of global financial flow is described in the sources as being generally "pretty steady and stable over time"?

a)

Portfolio investment

b)

Foreign direct investment (FDI)

c)

Short-term foreign lending

d)

Foreign deposits and loans

73.

The sources mention that foreign lending can be fickle and speculative. What risk associated with foreign lending is highlighted?

a)

It is primarily motivated by diversifying asset holdings

b)

Foreigners might decide not to roll over their existing loans, leading to problems

c)

It always results in cost disadvantages for the borrowing country

d)

It leads to a guaranteed appreciation of the borrowing country's currency

74.

What did the sources identify as a key factor contributing to the US financial crisis of 2007-08?

a)

Excessive government intervention in setting a fixed exchange rate

b)

A sudden increase in short-term foreign lending flows.

c)

Initial perceptions that housing lending was essentially risk-free, leading to risky lending practices

d)

High tariffs imposed by the US government on imports.

75.

According to the sources, what primarily causes actual output to deviate from potential output in the short run?

a)

Long-run growth trends in technology and efficiency

b)

Sustainable production levels based on current resources

c)

Business cycles

d)

Growth in a country's potential output

76.

Which of the following is listed as a driver of long-run economic growth in the sources?

a)

Short-term fluctuations in economic activity

b)

Increased volatility in economic growth

c)

More efficient allocation of scarce labour and machinery

d)

Periods of recession and expansion

77.

The sources state that "Business cycles are not cycles". This implies that:

a)

Business cycles follow a perfectly predictable, repeating pattern

b)

The term 'cycle' is a misnomer because the fluctuations are irregular in duration and intensity

c)

Economic activity only moves in one direction over time

d)

Economic downturns are always followed by upturns of the same length and magnitude

78.

4. The Output Gap is defined as:

a)

The difference between actual and potential output

b)

The total output produced in an economy

c)

The gap between imports and exports

d)

The difference between government spending and revenue

79.

A negative output gap, as described in the sources, primarily indicates:

a)

That the economy is producing more than its full-employment potential level

b)

That demand is running faster than supply can keep up

c)

A shortfall in demand leading to the economy producing less than its potential

d)

That the economy is experiencing rising prices (inflation)

80.

According to the sources, which phase of the demand-induced business cycle is a period of declining economic activity that runs from a peak to a trough?

a)

Expansion

b)

Peak

c)

Trough

d)

Recession

81.

While supply-side shocks can cause economic cycles, the sources state that most business cycles in advanced economies come from what?

a)

Government policy interventions

b)

Changes in farm output due to weather

c)

Civil wars

d)

Demand-side disruptions

82.

The sources list inflation and unemployment as undesirable outcomes associated with business cycles. According to the sources, inflation tends to occur when aggregate desired spending is:

a)

Below the level of potential output/supply

b)

Equal to the level of potential output/supply

c)

Above the level of potential output/supply

d)

Driven solely by supply-side shocks

83.

Okun's Rule of Thumb, as described in the sources, establishes a link between:

a)

Inflation and the unemployment rate

b)

The output gap and the unemployment rate

c)

Real GDP and Real GDI

d)

Business confidence and consumer confidence

84.

Which of the following is identified as a common characteristic of business cycles in the sources?

a)

Recessions are usually long and gradual

b)

Business cycles affect only a few specific sectors of the economy

c)

Business cycles are irregular in duration and amplitude

d)

Expansions are always followed by recessions

85.

According to the sources, which of the following is considered a leading indicator of the economy?

a)

The Unemployment rate

b)

Real GDP

c)

Business confidence

d)

Real Retail Sales

86.

Which of the following is considered a lagging indicator of the economy, according to the sources?

a)

Consumer confidence

b)

The stock market

c)

Business confidence

d)

The unemployment rate

87.

The working-age population, as defined in the sources, includes those aged 15 or older, excluding which groups?

a)

People who have given up looking for a job

b)

People in the military or institutionalized (in jail)

c)

Those who are retired or in school

d)

People who are temporarily absent from their job

88.

According to the sources, what group constitutes the "labour force"?

a)

All people in the working-age population

b)

Only people who are currently employed

c)

The employed plus the unemployed

d)

Working-age people who are actively searching for work

89.

Based on the definition in the sources, to be classified as "unemployed", a working-age person must meet several criteria, including:

a)

Working at least one hour during the week for pay

b)

Being retired or in school

c)

Actively searching for work

d)

Being on temporary absence from their job

90.

The sources state that most unemployment spells are short. What is this primarily attributed to?

a)

Cyclical unemployment

b)

Long-term unemployment

c)

People moving between jobs (frictional unemployment)

d)

Structural changes in the economy

91.

What type of unemployment is specifically described as occurring "when there is too little spending and hence too little labour demand for the amount of willing labour supply", and is targeted by government agencies?

a)

Frictional unemployment

b)

Structural unemployment

c)

Equilibrium unemployment

d)

Cyclical unemployment

92.

The Equilibrium Unemployment Rate (NAIRU) is described as:

a)

Zero percent unemployment, representing full employment

b)

The long-run unemployment rate where the inflation rate is stable

c)

The highest possible unemployment rate during a recession

d)

The percentage of the labour force that is unemployed

93.

Which of the following is mentioned as an economic cost of unemployment for the government?

a)

A loss of output as people do not work

b)

Hysteresis

c)

Higher welfare payments and less tax revenue

d)

Lower lifetime earning for the individual

94.

Hysteresis, in the context of unemployment as described in the sources, refers to:

a)

The social isolation and pain experienced by the unemployed

b)

When a period of high unemployment leads to a higher equilibrium unemployment rate

c)

The difficulty long-term unemployed face in finding work due to skill loss and discrimination

d)

The movement of people in and out of the labour market

95.

According to the sources, which of the following best defines inflation?

a)

A rise in the price of a single important good like oil.

b)

An increase in the total amount of money in circulation.

c)

A generalised rise in the overall level of prices and a decline in the real value of money.

d)

Fluctuations in relative prices due to shifts in supply and demand. general shifts in supply and demand that affect relative prices

96.

According to the sources, the Consumer Price Index (CPI) is primarily used to measure:

a)

The total output of an economy.

b)

The average change over time in the prices consumers pay for a representative “basket” of goods and services.

c)

The cost of production for businesses.

d)

The exchange rate between two currencies.

97.

The "basket" used to calculate the CPI, as described in the sources, represents:

a)

A fixed list of goods and services chosen by the government each year.

b)

A metaphor for the representative combination and amount of goods and services a typical household buys annually.

c)

The total value of all goods produced in the economy.

d)

Only essential items like food and shelter眼里

98.

According to the sources, if the cost of buying a representative basket of goods rose from 200lastyearto200 last year to 210 this year, the inflation rate would be:

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

2.5%

d)

0.5%

99.

Which of the following is listed in the sources as a challenge in measuring the true cost of living using the CPI?

a)

Calculating the total nominal GDP.

b)

Accounting for changes in relative prices.

c)

The difficulty in surveying households regularly.

d)

Failing to fully account for quality improvements and new products.

100.

The sources state that CPI likely overstates changes in the "cost of living" partly because of "substitution bias". What does substitution bias refer to?

a)

Consumers buying more imported goods when domestic prices rise.

b)

Businesses substituting capital for labour in production.

c)

People substituting toward cheaper goods when the prices of items in the fixed CPI basket rise.

d)

Only essential items like food and shelter are included in the CPI.