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PSYCHOPATHOLOGY REVIEW PRACTICE FOR LAST EXAM 2025

Total questions: 177

Worksheet time: 4hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best illustrates the concept of etiology in psychological research?

a)

Researchers find that early exposure to chronic stress in childhood increases the likelihood of developing anxiety disorders later in life.

b)

A clinician explains that individuals with anxiety disorders often experience racing thoughts, muscle tension, and difficulty sleeping.

c)

A therapist tells a client that, with consistent cognitive-behavioral therapy, their anxiety symptoms are likely to improve over the next six months.

d)

A psychiatrist uses a structured interview to confirm that a patient meets the diagnostic criteria for generalized anxiety disorder.

2.

Main purpos(es) of the DSM is/are:

a)

diagnosis

b)

prognosis (the expected course/outcome),

c)

etiology

d)

diagnosis, prognosis and etiology

3.

Which of the following is true regarding the DSM (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders)?

a)

Most insurance companies require a DSM diagnosis before they approve coverage for mental health treatment.

b)

The DSM provides detailed explanations of the underlying causes of each listed psychological disorder.

c)

The DSM is designed primarily to offer treatment recommendations and intervention plans for clinicians.

d)

The DSM organizes disorders based on how frequently they occur in the general population, listing the most common ones first.

4.

Which of the following is considered one problem with the DSM approach to diagnosing psychological disorders?

a)

It takes a categorical approach, which may oversimplify psychological conditions that actually exist along a spectrum.

b)

It focuses on symptom checklists but does not provide a way to assess the severity of those symptoms across different individuals.

c)

It relies on diagnosis labels but does not include specific guidelines for how to treat each disorder once diagnosed.

d)

It organizes disorders by categories but does not prioritize the role of social and cultural factors in the diagnostic process.

5.

Which of the following is the current edition of the DSM?

a)

DSM-5

b)

DSM-3

c)

DSM-10

d)

DSM-8

6.

Which of the following best illustrates a categorical approach to psychopathology?

a)

A clinician determines that a client either meets or does not meet the diagnostic criteria for major depressive disorder based on a defined set of symptoms.

b)

A psychologist rates a client’s level of anxiety on a scale from 1 to 10 to assess the severity of their symptoms.

c)

A therapist tracks fluctuations in mood intensity across several weeks to understand the client’s emotional patterns.

d)

A psychiatrist uses a personality inventory to identify how traits like neuroticism or extraversion contribute to the client’s emotional experiences.

7.

An alternative to a categorical approach in evaluating psychopathology is:

a)

A dimensional approach, which assesses psychological disorders along a continuum of severity.

b)

A descriptive approach, which focuses only on listing symptoms without organizing them into broader diagnostic categories.

c)

A diagnostic approach, which emphasizes using structured interviews to confirm the presence of specific disorders.

d)

A prescriptive approach, which organizes psychological disorders based on recommended treatment strategies.

8.

Which of the following is an example of a dimensional approach to diagnosing psychopathology?

a)

A psychologist rates the severity of depressive symptoms on a scale from mild to severe based on how often and intensely the symptoms occur.

b)

A clinician determines that a client either meets or does not meet the official diagnostic criteria for major depressive disorder.

c)

A psychiatrist checks off a symptom checklist to confirm the presence of at least five out of nine criteria required for a diagnosis of depression.

d)

A therapist uses a diagnostic manual to decide which specific disorder label applies to the client based on symptom clusters.

9.

Which of the following is considered a main problem with the dimensional approach to diagnosing psychopathology?

a)

There is no clear objective threshold for determining when a person’s symptoms are severe enough to require a formal diagnosis.

b)

This approach fails to recognize that most psychological disorders exist on a continuum rather than in distinct categories

c)

This approach emphasizes biological causes of disorders while ignoring behavioral symptoms.

d)

This approach tends to focus on specific diagnostic labels rather than the severity of individual symptoms.

10.

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates comorbidity in psychopathology?

a)

Jordan has been diagnosed with both generalized anxiety disorder and major depressive disorder, and his clinician notes that symptoms of each disorder appear independently.

b)

Ava exhibits intense mood swings that sometimes look like anxiety and at other times resemble depression, making it difficult for her therapist to determine which single diagnosis fits best.

c)

Malik experiences panic attacks that vary in severity, sometimes occurring once a week and other times several times per day.

d)

Priya’s social anxiety has become so severe that it now includes occasional panic attacks when she is in crowded spaces.

11.

Which of the following best explains how Avshalom Caspi’s concept of the “p factor” helps us understand comorbidity in psychopathology?

a)

It suggests that the overlap of disorders like depression and anxiety is due to shared diagnostic criteria rather than a true underlying connection.

b)

It proposes that many psychological disorders may reflect a general underlying vulnerability to psychopathology, which helps explain why different disorders often co-occur.

c)

It argues that comorbidity results mainly from environmental factors like trauma or stress, without evidence of shared biological or cognitive risks.

d)

It emphasizes that comorbidity is a misinterpretation of fluctuating symptoms within a single disorder, rather than the presence of multiple disorders.

12.

According to Avshalom Caspi’s longitudinal research, which of the following is true about individuals with high p-scores?

a)

They usually exhibit fewer co-occurring disorders, with psychological symptoms isolated to one diagnostic category.

b)

They are generally at lower risk for developing psychopathology across their lifespan because their symptoms remain subclinical.

c)

They show higher resilience to environmental stressors, which protects them from long-term psychological distress.

d)

They tend to experience more life impairments, including higher rates of psychiatric hospitalizations and greater functional difficulties.

13.

An individual's p-score is likely to remain stable over time.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

About 1 in ​ (a)   Americans over age 18 has a

diagnosable psychological disorder in a given year.

Choose from the below words
4
2
5
10
15.

Nearly --- of Americans will have some form of

psychological disorder at some point in life,

a)

50%

b)

25%

c)

35%

d)

15%

16.

The primary goal of ​ (a)   is to make a

​ (b)   so that appropriate treatment can be

provided. The course and probable outcome, or ​ (c)   , will

depend on the particular psychological disorder that

is diagnosed.

Choose from the below words
assessment
diagnosis
prognosis
17.

Internalizing disorders: characterized by ​ (a)  

–Externalizing disorders: characterized by ​ (b)  

Choose from the below words
negative emotions
disinhibition
heightened arousal
heightened sensory sensitivity
18.

Which of the following statements is supported by research on gender and psychopathology prevalence?

a)

Disorders associated with internalizing are more prevalent among people who identify as women, while disorders associated with externalizing are more prevalent among people who identify as men.

b)

Disorders associated with internalizing are equally common across genders, but externalizing disorders are far more prevalent in older adults than in adolescents.

c)

Externalizing disorders are typically more common in people who identify as women, especially after adolescence, when hormonal changes increase risk.

d)

Internalizing disorders are more prevalent in men, largely due to underreporting of emotional difficulties by women in clinical research.

19.

Which of the following is a well-supported explanation for why gender differences appear in the presentation of psychological disorders?

a)

Psychopathology can take different forms depending on cultural norms and expectations, which shape how emotional and behavioral issues are expressed.

b)

Gender differences in psychopathology are entirely the result of biological hormone levels, with no influence from social or cultural factors.

c)

Gender differences in reported disorders are primarily caused by differences in access to psychological testing between men and women.

d)

Gender differences are largely explained by overdiagnosis in women and underdiagnosis in men, due to measurement errors in diagnostic tools.

20.

Organize these options into the right categories based on gender-based differences:

Categorize the following

Dependence on alcohol

Anorexia nervosa

Schizophrenia

Major depression

Bipolar

Generalized anxiety disorder

Drug dependence

Antisocial personality disorder

More likely in Men
More likely in women
Equally likely in both
21.

Organize these options into the right categories based on gender-based differences:

Categorize the following

Phobia

Panic disorder

Posttraumatic stress disorder

Childhood attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

More likely in Men
More likely in women
Equally likely in both
22.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

PET and fMRI have revealed brain regions that may function differently in individuals

Genetic factors can affect the production and levels of neurotransmitters + receptor sites.

Genetic factors can also affect the size of brain structures + their level of connectivity

Disorders may arise from prenatal problems

Considers problems within an individual as indicating problems within the family

Psychopathology as the result of the interaction between individuals and their cultures

Abnormal behavior is learned and thus can be unlearned.

Mental disorders result from classical and operant conditioning.

Thoughts can become distorted and produce maladaptive behaviors and maladaptive emotions.

Biological factors/perspective
Situational factors/perspective
Cognitive-Behavioral factors/perspective
23.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

Major depression

Dysthymia

Generalized anxiety disorder

Agoraphobia

Social phobia

Specific phobia

Panic disorder

Alcohol use disorder

Drug use disorder

Conduct disorder

Adult antisocial behavior

Internalizing (Distress)
Internalizing (Fear)
Externalizing
24.

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the diathesis-stress model

a)

Jake has a family history of depression and, after going through a painful breakup and losing his job, begins experiencing symptoms of major depression.

b)

Maya feels anxious before every exam, even though she’s always been a top student and hasn’t faced any major personal setbacks.

c)

Luis experiences sudden panic attacks that seem to come out of nowhere, even when life has been going smoothly and stress-free.

d)

Nina develops PTSD symptoms after surviving a severe car accident, despite having no prior mental health vulnerabilities or family history of anxiety.

25.

Which of the following best illustrates the concept of a high p factor score?

a)

Sam has long struggled with social anxiety and perfectionism but maintains a stable job and relationships, despite occasional emotional exhaustion.

b)

Jordan has a history of depression, substance abuse, and aggression, has been hospitalized twice, and was recently arrested; his symptoms have progressively worsened over several years.

c)

Emily experiences panic attacks in crowded places and frequently ruminates over negative social interactions but has no criminal or psychiatric record.

d)

Leo has been diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder and works hard to manage his symptoms with therapy, maintaining a steady career.

26.

What does the p factor model suggest about long-term outcomes for individuals with high scores?

a)

They are likely to experience specific symptoms that remain stable and isolated within one diagnostic category.

b)

They are at increased risk for multiple types of psychological problems, and these impairments tend to intensify as time goes on.

c)

Their symptoms will likely resolve on their own over time, as the p factor only predicts short-term emotional distress.

d)

They are mainly vulnerable to environmental stressors but have low genetic or biological predisposition to psychopathology.

27.

Which of the following is NOT supported by current research on the p factor?

a)

High p factor scores are associated with a greater likelihood of psychiatric hospitalizations, suicide attempts, and criminal behavior.

b)

Individuals with high p factor scores tend to show worsening impairments over time, rather than improvement.

c)

The p factor explains why people who develop psychopathology in childhood are always destined to have severe disorders in adulthood

d)

The p factor is proposed as a general vulnerability to psychopathology, similar in structure to the concept of general intelligence (g).

28.

Disorders with a ​ (a)   will tend to be more ​ (b)   across cultures.

A disorder ​ (c)   is more likely to ​ (d)   across cultures.

Choose from the below words
strong biological component
similar
heavily influenced by learning, context, or both
differ
weak psychological influence
identical
uniform across societies
29.

Since the 1994 edition, the DSM has:

a)

Included a number of disorders that tend to occur within specific cultural settings

b)

Removed all culture-specific disorders, arguing they can be fully explained by universal diagnostic categories.

c)

Highlighted the common features of psychological disorders across cultures, describing fewer culturally unique patterns than in earlier editions.

d)

Organized disorders in ways that reflect symptom categories and diagnostic criteria, without introducing a distinct focus on cultural context.

30.

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates psychosis?

a)

Lena has started hearing voices that no one else can hear, and she believes those voices are giving her special instructions to complete a secret mission

b)

Mateo has become increasingly unresponsive; he sits motionless for long periods, staring blankly, and resists any attempts to move him or engage him in conversation.

c)

Sarah shows very little emotional expression during conversations and often speaks in short, flat sentences, even when discussing personal topics.

d)

Thomas has trouble focusing, struggles with memory tasks, and finds it difficult to organize his thoughts in a logical sequence.

31.

Estimates are that around 1 of every ----- persons

has schizophrenia.

a)

200

b)

100

c)

1000

d)

10

32.

The prognosis of schizophrenia is better in ​ (a)   than in

​ (b)   cultures.

Choose from the below words
developing
developed
33.

According to DSM-5, to be diagnosed with

schizophrenia a person has to have shown

continuous signs of disturbances for at least

a)

six

months.

b)

14 days

c)

two months

d)

1 year

34.

Organize each schizophrenia symptom under the right category:

Categorize the following

Delusions

Hallucinations

Disorganized speech

Disorganized or catatonic behavior

Flat affect

Alogia

Avolition

Anhedonia

Positive symptoms
Negative symptoms
35.

Match the following types of delusion with the proper example:

a)

“I have been chosen by the universe to solve world hunger because of my unmatched genius and wisdom.”

1.

Grandiose

b)

“I am actually Queen Elizabeth, and the world just hasn’t recognized my true royal status yet.”

2.

Identity

c)

“I am responsible for the earthquake that happened last week because of my sinful thoughts.”

3.

Guilt

d)
  • “Every time I move my hand, it’s not me — it’s the government controlling my body through radio waves.”

4.

Control

e)

My neighbors are secretly watching me through hidden cameras and trying to poison my food.

5.

Persecutory

36.

Match the following

a)

“Whenever I hear a song on the radio, I’m convinced the lyrics are specifically directed at me as a secret message.”

1.

Referential

b)

“My coworkers are plotting to get me fired, and I can tell they’re talking about me every time I walk into the room.”

2.

Persecutory

c)
  • “I feel like my arms move on their own sometimes, like someone else is making me do things against my will.”

3.

Control

d)
  • “I feel sure that my mistakes at work caused my entire company’s financial troubles, even though my boss says it wasn’t my fault.”

4.

Guilt

e)

“I’m certain I have a special talent that will make me more famous than any celebrity — it’s just a matter of time before the world realizes it.”

5.

Grandiose

37.

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates a hallucination?

a)

Michael is convinced that his neighbor is spying on him through hidden cameras, even though there’s no evidence of it.

b)

Selena hears a voice whispering her name when no one else is around, and no external sound is present.

c)

Dorothy feels anxious walking through the city because she believes strangers are giving her secret signals with their body language.

d)

Liam thinks his coworker dislikes him because of the way she looked at him during a meeting, even though she didn’t say anything.

38.

Most hallucinations are auditory .

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

39.

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates disorganized behavior as a symptom of schizophrenia?

a)

Jonah has been neglecting basic hygiene, often wearing heavy winter clothes in the summer and forgetting to bathe for days at a time.

b)

Nadia becomes anxious in social situations and avoids speaking to people she doesn’t know well.

c)

Marcus firmly believes that the news anchor is sending him secret personal messages through the TV broadcast.

d)

Priya occasionally feels detached from her surroundings, describing everything as if it looks “strangely unreal.

40.

Which of the following scenarios are examples of disorganized behavior as a symptom of schizophrenia? (Check all that apply.)

a)

Diego frequently flaps his arms and waves his hands in repetitive, purposeless ways while sitting alone, even when no one is around.

b)

Lila often neglects personal hygiene, wearing dirty clothes and forgetting to shower for weeks at a time, even when she has access to basic facilities.

c)

Max becomes extremely agitated and starts laughing loudly and clapping his hands in the middle of a serious work meeting, acting playfully without reason.

d)

Sam is convinced that strangers are following her everywhere she goes and keeps changing her route home to avoid them.

e)

Thomas avoids crowded places and feels overwhelming fear when he has to speak in front of a group.

41.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

Marco answers most questions with very brief, one-word replies

Emily often pauses for long stretches and seems unable to put her thoughts into words

Javier has started skipping his college classes and hasn’t submitted assignments for weeks

Despite having enjoyed gardening for years, Olivia “can’t bring herself to do it.”

After joining her friends for her birthday, Eve reports that the evening 'did nothing for her'

Liam, a long-time gamer, now 'feels empty', after winning.

Alogia
Avolition
Anhedonia
42.

The risk for the development of schizophrenia is about ​ (a)   for identical twins if one twin is affected, compared to ​ (b)   for fraternal twins, highlighting the strong influence of shared genetic material.

Choose from the below words
50%
7–14%
25%
25-50%
70-76%
43.

Which of the following biological factors have been linked to the development of schizophrenia? (Check all that apply.)

a)

Enlarged ventricles in the brain.

b)

Overactivity of the dopamine system.

c)

Prenatal exposure to viruses or infections.

d)

Deficiency of serotonin as the primary cause.

e)

Degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra.

44.

Schizophrenia is most commonly diagnosed in/during people's

a)

childhood

b)

late adolescence

c)

20-30s

d)

mid adulthood (35-50)

e)

prenatal development

45.

Which of the following were findings of the study that followed 291 youths (adolescents) to identify predictors of psychotic disorders (known as the North American Prodrome Longitudinal Study)?

Check all that apply:

a)

Having a family history of psychosis.

b)

Showing greater social impairment.

c)

Displaying higher levels of suspiciousness or paranoia.

d)

Exhibiting perfectionistic tendencies and high academic achievement.

e)

Increased physical agitation

46.

Which of the following environmental factors, when combined with genetic vulnerabilities, have been found to increase the risk of developing schizophrenia?

(Check all that apply)

a)

Heavy cannabis use during adolescence.

b)

Growing up in an urban environment.

c)

Exposure to the 'schizovirus'

d)

High academic pressure and perfectionistic family expectations.

e)

Experiencing parental divorce during early childhood.

47.

Which of the following best explains how prenatal development may increase the risk of developing schizophrenia?

a)

Exposure to trauma or viral infections during the second trimester, a critical period of brain development, may disrupt neural growth and raise the risk of schizophrenia.

b)

Genetic mutations occurring after birth, especially during early childhood brain development, are thought to be the main cause of schizophrenia in people without a family history.

c)

Elevated maternal stress in the third trimester is believed to overstimulate dopamine production in the fetus, increasing the chances of developing schizophrenia later.

d)

Complications during delivery, such as lack of oxygen, are considered the primary prenatal factor contributing to schizophrenia by interfering with brain development.

e)

All of the options have been found to be linked with the onset of schizophrenia

48.

Which of the following best defines hallucinations?

a)

False sensory perceptions experienced without an external source.

b)

Strong emotional reactions triggered by traumatic memories that seem vividly real.

c)

False beliefs about reality that persist even when clear evidence disproves them.

d)

Misinterpretations of real external stimuli, such as mistaking a shadow for a person.

49.

What characterizes the typical content of auditory hallucinations in schizophrenia? (Select all that apply)

a)

Accusatory messages, such as voices telling the person they are evil or incompetent.

b)

Voices issuing commands to engage in dangerous or harmful behavior.

c)

Harsh voices that criticize the person’s appearance and advise them to change their looks.

d)

Voices that criticize the person’s choices but encourage them to seek religion to find peace and redemption.

e)

Voices that provide detailed factual information about science or current events.

50.

Which of the following statements is accurate based on research on schizophrenia?

a)

Women are more likely than men to exhibit prominent negative symptoms.

b)

Men are more likely than women to be diagnosed with negative symptoms.

c)

Women typically experience an earlier onset of schizophrenia than men, with symptoms peaking during adolescence.

d)

Schizophrenia occurs equally across all countries, with no difference in symptom presentation between men and women.

e)

Men and women with schizophrenia generally experience the same balance of positive and negative symptoms over the course of the illness.

51.

Schizophrenia is a disorder characterized by alterations in:

(Select all that apply)

a)

thought

b)

perceptions

c)

consciousness

d)

mood

e)

attention

52.

These are brain MRIs of a pair of twins. One twin has been diagnosed with schizophrenia, and the other twin has not. Label each

53.

Which of the following scenarios best depicts trichotillomania?

a)

Emma repeatedly rubs and taps her knuckles when she’s feeling overwhelmed, believing that this calms her racing thoughts.

b)

Jonah compulsively checks the locks on his door exactly five times before leaving home and feels something bad will happen if he doesn’t.

c)

Lila pulls strands of hair from her scalp multiple times a day, often without realizing it, and feels relief afterward—even though she’s developed bald patches.

d)

Marcus bites his fingernails until they bleed whenever he’s nervous, especially before tests or social events.

54.

What do obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), eating disorders, and addiction all have in common?

a)

They all involve disturbances in perception and sensory processing that lead to psychotic episodes.

b)

They all originate from early childhood trauma and are typically resolved by adulthood without clinical intervention.

c)

They all involve maladaptive, repetitive behaviors that are difficult to control and persist despite negative consequences.

d)

They are all associated with dysregulation in brain reward pathways and may be treated with overlapping forms of cognitive-behavioral therapy.

55.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

"If I don’t check the stove again, something terrible might happen to my family."

"Images of violent accidents keep popping into my head"

Washing my hands exactly eight times makes me feel protected"

I recite the same phrase under my breath every time I pass a doorway,

An unshakable sense that something is “off” if my books aren’t aligned perfectly.

Compulsions
Obsessions
56.

Which of the following are common obsessions experienced by individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

(Check all that apply)

a)

Persistent fear of contamination by germs or toxins.

b)

Recurrent thoughts about causing accidental harm to others, such as leaving the stove on.

c)

Intrusive fears of committing violent or aggressive acts, even though the person has no desire to act on them.

d)

Intense fear of public speaking and being judged negatively in social situations.

e)

Frequent doubts about whether past events happened the way one remembers, leading to repeated checking for reassurance.

57.

Which of the following are the most common compulsive behaviors in individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

(Select all that apply.)

a)

Cleaning

b)

Checking

c)

Counting

d)

Avoiding

e)

Repeating

58.

Which of the following scenarios best describes someone with "pure obsession"?

a)

Sam repeatedly checks that the stove is turned off before leaving the house, often returning three or four times despite knowing it was already off.

b)

Lila experiences intrusive images of harming her pet and silently counts to seven over and over in her head until the anxiety fades, even though she never physically does anything.

c)

Jordan avoids walking near cracks in the sidewalk because he believes doing so will bring harm to his family.

d)

Emily feels compelled to wash her hands dozens of times a day after touching any object that might be contaminated.

59.

Which of the following have been proposed as possible causes or contributing factors in the development of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Classical and operant conditioning processes that reinforce compulsive behavior.

b)

Mutations in dopamine-regulating genes linked to motor control and reward seeking.

c)

Genetic variations that affect the neurotransmitter glutamate.

d)

Childhood infections that trigger autoimmune responses in the brain.

e)

Excessive social media use during adolescence, particularly on image-based platforms.

60.

Which of the following statements is supported by current research on anorexia nervosa?

a)

Boys and girls are equally likely to develop anorexia nervosa.

b)

Anorexia nervosa is significantly more common in boys than in girls across all age groups.

c)

Anorexia nervosa occurs more frequently in young adulthood than in adolescents, regardless of gender.

d)

Boys who develop anorexia typically experience more severe body dissatisfaction than girls.

61.

Match each eating disorder with the health or psychological issue most commonly associated with it:

a)

Low bone density and risk of osteoporosis

1.

Anorexia nervosa

b)

Dental erosion and cardiac irregularities

2.

Bulimia nervosa

c)

Intense emotional distress, including guilt and embarrassment

3.

Binge eating disorder

62.

Which of the following has been supported by research on eating disorders?

a)

Eating disorders are most common in societies where food is scarce and access to nutrition is limited.

b)

The prevalence of eating disorders is largely restricted to high-income, Western countries.

c)

Eating disorders are equally distributed across all cultures, regardless of social or environmental conditions.

d)

Eating disorders are more prevalent in societies where food is abundant and cultural emphasis is placed on body image

63.

Some but not all people with ------ are overweight or obese

a)

any of the three most common eating disorders

b)

binge-eating disorder and bulimia nervosa

c)

binge-eating disorder

64.

Which of the following are examples of the common compensatory purging behaviors? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Self-induced vomiting after eating

b)

Misuse of laxatives or diuretics.

c)

Excessive exercise

d)

Drinking large amounts of water

e)

Taking extremely hot showers or staying for an hour or more in a sauna to promote sweating

65.

Which of the following statements is accurate regarding bulimia nervosa?

a)

Bulimia nervosa is much more frequently diagnosed in women than in men.

b)

Bulimia nervosa is typically associated with being underweight, often below a healthy BMI.

c)

People with bulimia nervosa rarely feel distress about their behaviors, as purging is seen as a successful way to control weight.

d)

Bulimia nervosa is more common in older adults than in adolescents or young adults.

66.

Which of the following best illustrates the roles of both classical and operant conditioning in the development and maintenance of OCD symptoms?

a)

After getting sick once following a visit to a hospital, a person starts to feel anxious every time they pass a hospital and begins avoiding them, feeling calmer as a result.

b)

A person believes their thoughts can cause bad things to happen, so they engage in rituals to keep others safe, even if there's no evidence those thoughts have power.

c)

Someone grows up in a household where their parents emphasized cleanliness, and they adopt similar habits as part of their routine adult life.

d)

A person hears about a rare disease on the news and becomes extremely focused on researching medical symptoms, though they don’t act on any particular habits or rituals.

67.

Organize these options into the right categories

a)

As soon as Maria sees even the smallest spider crawling across the floor, she freezes completely. Her heart pounds fiercely, her breath shortens, and she feels overwhelmed by dread, often leaving the room and refusing to return until someone confirms it's gone.

1.

Specific Phobia

b)

When Chris receives an invitation to a gathering at a colleague's house, he immediately begins to dread it. The thought of others noticing his discomfort or judging him harshly fills him with dread, prompting him to create excuses to avoid attending.

2.

Social Anxiety Disorder

c)

Jenna spends most days worrying about potential disasters—like losing her job, financial problems, or family health—even though everything seems to be going fine. Her endless worrying leaves her exhausted, restless, and unable to sleep soundly.

3.

Generalized Anxiety Disorder

d)

Out of nowhere, Tyler suddenly feels his heart racing, chest tightening, and a terrifying sensation of losing control. These unexpected episodes strike him at random, leaving him constantly fearful that another attack might happen again soon.

4.

Panic Disorder

e)

Emma hasn't visited a supermarket or taken public transportation in months. She feels trapped and helpless in places where getting away quickly might be challenging, so she stays close to home to feel safer.

5.

Agoraphobia

68.

Below are several sets of data describing symptoms and behaviors associated with different psychological disorders. Categorize each set of data under the appropriate corresponding disorder.

Categorize the following

It involves intense fear directed exclusively toward one particular object or situation.

It includes fears of public speaking, meeting new peoplem eating in front of others.

One of the earliest forms of anxiety disorders to develop.

Individuals can typically function normally when not exposed to the trigger.

Must experience the symptoms for at least 2 weeks.

Leading risk factor for suicide.

Restless and pointless motor behaviors

Exaggerated startle response.

Generalized Anxiety Disorder
Social Anxiety Disorder
Specific Phobia
Major depressive disorder
69.

Children who have an ​ (a)   temperamental

style are usually shy and tend to avoid unfamiliar

people and novel objects. These inhibited

children are more likely to develop ​ ​ (b)   disorders later in life.

Choose from the below words
inhibited
aggressive
neurotic 
anxiety
depressive 
70.

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates agoraphobia?

a)

Lucas avoids public speaking because he fears being judged negatively by his peers and professors.

b)

Mariana feels intense dread whenever she encounters pigeons, causing her to cross streets or alter her route entirely to avoid seeing them.

c)

Daniel has sudden, unpredictable episodes of rapid heartbeat, dizziness, and breathlessness, leaving him terrified they'll strike again at any moment.

d)

Olivia increasingly restricts her activities, rarely leaving her neighborhood, because she fears being somewhere that escape or assistance might not be easily accessible during a crisis.

71.

Someone experiencing agoraphobia would be most likely to avoid:

a)

A shopping mall

b)

Giving a presentation in front of coworkers.

c)

Taking an elevator to the 40th floor.

d)

Walking near a pond filled with geese.

72.

Place each of the following origins or causes under the correct psychological disorder category it most likely belongs to.

Categorize the following

Biological basis: certain temperamental style as children.

Biased thinking: neutral stimuli perceived as threatening.

Monoamine levels.

Stressors such as death of a loved one or divorce.

Genetic contribution (but relatively weaker than to other disorders)

Family history is strongest and most consistent factor.

Cognitive processes such as Beck's cognitive triad.

Cognitive model based on 'learned helplessness'

can be learned through experience, association, or reinforcement.

Anxiety disorders
Depressive disorders
Bipolar
73.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

G.A.D.

Specific phobia / agoraphobiia

Panic disorder

Social anxiety disorder

Major depressive disorder

Persistent depressive disorder

Bipolar I

Bipolar II

Anxiety disoders
Depressive disorders
Bipolar disorders
74.

Match each accordingly:

a)

Hypervigilance

1.

Generalized anxiety disorder

b)

Hypomania

2.

Bipolar II

c)

Associated with appetite and weight changes

3.

Major depressive disorder

d)

Manic episodes cause significant impairment

4.

Bipolar I disorder

e)

Aka: dysthymia

5.

Persistent depressive disorder

75.

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the concept of learned helplessness?

a)

After repeatedly failing math tests despite studying hard, Sofia stops trying altogether, convinced that no amount of effort will change her poor grades, even though new study strategies are available

b)

Liam constantly thinks, “I’m a failure, the world is unfair, and my future will never improve,” and feels hopeless even when others try to encourage him.

c)

Ethan selectively notices only the negative parts of his day and ignores any successes, reinforcing his belief that nothing good ever happens to him.

d)

Maya tends to catastrophize small setbacks, like thinking one critical comment means everyone dislikes her, which spirals into persistent sadness.

76.

Which of the following scenarios does NOT illustrate one of the negative cognitive triad components?

a)

Elena notices she struggles more than her peers on assignments and starts telling herself, “I’m just not as capable or smart as other people.”

b)

Jacob believes, “No matter what I do, the world is unfair, and everything is stacked against me.”

c)

Sara thinks, “It doesn’t matter how hard I try; my future is hopeless and will never get better.”

d)

Leo thinks, “People will probably laugh at me if I mess up this presentation, and I’ll feel humiliated in front of everyone.

77.

Having an external locus of control is most closely associated with:

a)

Panic disorder

b)

Hypomania

c)

Specific phobia

d)

Major depressive disorder

78.

Label the graphic accordingly:

79.

Label these graphs accordingly

80.

Which of the following best illustrates the way some people can make attributions that can lead to depression?

a)

When something goes wrong, Jordan blames his own personal flaws; but when something goes well, he assumes it’s just due to luck or outside help.

b)

When something goes wrong, Maya blames other people or bad luck; but when something goes well, she credits her own abilities.

c)

When something goes wrong, Alex focuses on how the situation was temporary and likely won’t happen again.

d)

When something goes well, Priya assumes it’s a one-time event and has little to do with her personal strengths.

81.

Internalizing disorders: characterized by ​ (a)  

–Externalizing disorders: characterized by ​ (b)  

Choose from the below words
negative emotions
disinhibition
heightened arousal
heightened sensory sensitivity
82.

Which of the following statements is supported by research on gender and psychopathology prevalence?

a)

Disorders associated with internalizing are more prevalent among people who identify as women, while disorders associated with externalizing are more prevalent among people who identify as men.

b)

Disorders associated with internalizing are equally common across genders, but externalizing disorders are far more prevalent in older adults than in adolescents.

c)

Externalizing disorders are typically more common in people who identify as women, especially after adolescence, when hormonal changes increase risk.

d)

Internalizing disorders are more prevalent in men, largely due to underreporting of emotional difficulties by women in clinical research.

83.

Which of the following is a well-supported explanation for why gender differences appear in the presentation of psychological disorders?

a)

Psychopathology can take different forms depending on cultural norms and expectations, which shape how emotional and behavioral issues are expressed.

b)

Gender differences in psychopathology are entirely the result of biological hormone levels, with no influence from social or cultural factors.

c)

Gender differences in reported disorders are primarily caused by differences in access to psychological testing between men and women.

d)

Gender differences are largely explained by overdiagnosis in women and underdiagnosis in men, due to measurement errors in diagnostic tools.

84.

Organize these options into the right categories based on gender-based differences:

Categorize the following

Dependence on alcohol

Anorexia nervosa

Schizophrenia

Major depression

Bipolar

Generalized anxiety disorder

Drug dependence

Antisocial personality disorder

More likely in Men
More likely in women
Equally likely in both
85.

Organize these options into the right categories based on gender-based differences:

Categorize the following

Phobia

Panic disorder

Posttraumatic stress disorder

Childhood attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

More likely in Men
More likely in women
Equally likely in both
86.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

PET and fMRI have revealed brain regions that may function differently in individuals

Genetic factors can affect the production and levels of neurotransmitters + receptor sites.

Genetic factors can also affect the size of brain structures + their level of connectivity

Disorders may arise from prenatal problems

Considers problems within an individual as indicating problems within the family

Psychopathology as the result of the interaction between individuals and their cultures

Abnormal behavior is learned and thus can be unlearned.

Mental disorders result from classical and operant conditioning.

Thoughts can become distorted and produce maladaptive behaviors and maladaptive emotions.

Biological factors/perspective
Situational factors/perspective
Cognitive-Behavioral factors/perspective
87.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

Major depression

Dysthymia

Generalized anxiety disorder

Agoraphobia

Social phobia

Specific phobia

Panic disorder

Alcohol use disorder

Drug use disorder

Conduct disorder

Adult antisocial behavior

Internalizing (Distress)
Internalizing (Fear)
Externalizing
88.

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the diathesis-stress model

a)

Jake has a family history of depression and, after going through a painful breakup and losing his job, begins experiencing symptoms of major depression.

b)

Maya feels anxious before every exam, even though she’s always been a top student and hasn’t faced any major personal setbacks.

c)

Luis experiences sudden panic attacks that seem to come out of nowhere, even when life has been going smoothly and stress-free.

d)

Nina develops PTSD symptoms after surviving a severe car accident, despite having no prior mental health vulnerabilities or family history of anxiety.

89.

Which of the following best illustrates the concept of a high p factor score?

a)

Sam has long struggled with social anxiety and perfectionism but maintains a stable job and relationships, despite occasional emotional exhaustion.

b)

Jordan has a history of depression, substance abuse, and aggression, has been hospitalized twice, and was recently arrested; his symptoms have progressively worsened over several years.

c)

Emily experiences panic attacks in crowded places and frequently ruminates over negative social interactions but has no criminal or psychiatric record.

d)

Leo has been diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder and works hard to manage his symptoms with therapy, maintaining a steady career.

90.

What does the p factor model suggest about long-term outcomes for individuals with high scores?

a)

They are likely to experience specific symptoms that remain stable and isolated within one diagnostic category.

b)

They are at increased risk for multiple types of psychological problems, and these impairments tend to intensify as time goes on.

c)

Their symptoms will likely resolve on their own over time, as the p factor only predicts short-term emotional distress.

d)

They are mainly vulnerable to environmental stressors but have low genetic or biological predisposition to psychopathology.

91.

Which of the following is NOT supported by current research on the p factor?

a)

High p factor scores are associated with a greater likelihood of psychiatric hospitalizations, suicide attempts, and criminal behavior.

b)

Individuals with high p factor scores tend to show worsening impairments over time, rather than improvement.

c)

The p factor explains why people who develop psychopathology in childhood are always destined to have severe disorders in adulthood

d)

The p factor is proposed as a general vulnerability to psychopathology, similar in structure to the concept of general intelligence (g).

92.

Disorders with a ​ (a)   will tend to be more ​ (b)   across cultures.

A disorder ​ (c)   is more likely to ​ (d)   across cultures.

Choose from the below words
strong biological component
similar
heavily influenced by learning, context, or both
differ
weak psychological influence
identical
uniform across societies
93.

Since the 1994 edition, the DSM has:

a)

Included a number of disorders that tend to occur within specific cultural settings

b)

Removed all culture-specific disorders, arguing they can be fully explained by universal diagnostic categories.

c)

Highlighted the common features of psychological disorders across cultures, describing fewer culturally unique patterns than in earlier editions.

d)

Organized disorders in ways that reflect symptom categories and diagnostic criteria, without introducing a distinct focus on cultural context.

94.

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates hypomania?

a)

Over the past few days, Sarah has been unusually energetic, talking rapidly, starting new projects, and sleeping less, while feeling confident and excited — though she hasn’t lost touch with reality or acted dangerously

b)

Over the past few days, Mark has been unusually sad, withdrawing from friends, feeling hopeless, and struggling to find motivation, even for activities he usually enjoys.

c)

Over the past few days, Anna has been experiencing sudden episodes of intense fear, with a racing heart and dizziness, worrying she might lose control or have a medical emergency.

d)

Over the past few days, James has been increasingly suspicious, convinced that strangers are plotting against him, and withdrawing from social contact to avoid imagined threats.

95.

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates dysthymia?

a)

For the past two years, Mia has felt consistently down, with low energy and low self-esteem, even though she manages daily tasks. She rarely feels joyful, and her mood has become part of her usual life.

b)

Over the past week, Emily has felt unusually energetic, confident, sleeping very little, talking fast, and starting several new projects, even though friends are concerned.

c)

For the past month, Chloe has been deeply sad, withdrawing from activities she usually enjoys, feeling hopeless, and having trouble concentrating on work.

d)

Over the past year, Sophie has had sudden, unpredictable episodes of intense fear, racing heart, and shortness of breath, worrying she might lose control.

96.

Bipolar I is characterized more my manic episodes than by depression.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

Manic episodes episodes do not necessarily cause significant impairment in daily living whereas hypomanic episodes almost always do.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Internalizing disorders: characterized by ​ (a)  

–Externalizing disorders: characterized by ​ (b)  

Choose from the below words
negative emotions
disinhibition
heightened arousal
heightened sensory sensitivity
99.

Which of the following statements is supported by research on gender and psychopathology prevalence?

a)

Disorders associated with internalizing are more prevalent among people who identify as women, while disorders associated with externalizing are more prevalent among people who identify as men.

b)

Disorders associated with internalizing are equally common across genders, but externalizing disorders are far more prevalent in older adults than in adolescents.

c)

Externalizing disorders are typically more common in people who identify as women, especially after adolescence, when hormonal changes increase risk.

d)

Internalizing disorders are more prevalent in men, largely due to underreporting of emotional difficulties by women in clinical research.

100.

Which of the following is a well-supported explanation for why gender differences appear in the presentation of psychological disorders?

a)

Psychopathology can take different forms depending on cultural norms and expectations, which shape how emotional and behavioral issues are expressed.

b)

Gender differences in psychopathology are entirely the result of biological hormone levels, with no influence from social or cultural factors.

c)

Gender differences in reported disorders are primarily caused by differences in access to psychological testing between men and women.

d)

Gender differences are largely explained by overdiagnosis in women and underdiagnosis in men, due to measurement errors in diagnostic tools.

101.

Organize these options into the right categories based on gender-based differences:

Categorize the following

Dependence on alcohol

Anorexia nervosa

Schizophrenia

Major depression

Bipolar

Generalized anxiety disorder

Drug dependence

Antisocial personality disorder

More likely in Men
More likely in women
Equally likely in both
102.

Organize these options into the right categories based on gender-based differences:

Categorize the following

Phobia

Panic disorder

Posttraumatic stress disorder

Childhood attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

More likely in Men
More likely in women
Equally likely in both
103.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

PET and fMRI have revealed brain regions that may function differently in individuals

Genetic factors can affect the production and levels of neurotransmitters + receptor sites.

Genetic factors can also affect the size of brain structures + their level of connectivity

Disorders may arise from prenatal problems

Considers problems within an individual as indicating problems within the family

Psychopathology as the result of the interaction between individuals and their cultures

Abnormal behavior is learned and thus can be unlearned.

Mental disorders result from classical and operant conditioning.

Thoughts can become distorted and produce maladaptive behaviors and maladaptive emotions.

Biological factors/perspective
Situational factors/perspective
Cognitive-Behavioral factors/perspective
104.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

Major depression

Dysthymia

Generalized anxiety disorder

Agoraphobia

Social phobia

Specific phobia

Panic disorder

Alcohol use disorder

Drug use disorder

Conduct disorder

Adult antisocial behavior

Internalizing (Distress)
Internalizing (Fear)
Externalizing
105.

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the diathesis-stress model

a)

Jake has a family history of depression and, after going through a painful breakup and losing his job, begins experiencing symptoms of major depression.

b)

Maya feels anxious before every exam, even though she’s always been a top student and hasn’t faced any major personal setbacks.

c)

Luis experiences sudden panic attacks that seem to come out of nowhere, even when life has been going smoothly and stress-free.

d)

Nina develops PTSD symptoms after surviving a severe car accident, despite having no prior mental health vulnerabilities or family history of anxiety.

106.

Which of the following best illustrates the concept of a high p factor score?

a)

Sam has long struggled with social anxiety and perfectionism but maintains a stable job and relationships, despite occasional emotional exhaustion.

b)

Jordan has a history of depression, substance abuse, and aggression, has been hospitalized twice, and was recently arrested; his symptoms have progressively worsened over several years.

c)

Emily experiences panic attacks in crowded places and frequently ruminates over negative social interactions but has no criminal or psychiatric record.

d)

Leo has been diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder and works hard to manage his symptoms with therapy, maintaining a steady career.

107.

What does the p factor model suggest about long-term outcomes for individuals with high scores?

a)

They are likely to experience specific symptoms that remain stable and isolated within one diagnostic category.

b)

They are at increased risk for multiple types of psychological problems, and these impairments tend to intensify as time goes on.

c)

Their symptoms will likely resolve on their own over time, as the p factor only predicts short-term emotional distress.

d)

They are mainly vulnerable to environmental stressors but have low genetic or biological predisposition to psychopathology.

108.

Which of the following is NOT supported by current research on the p factor?

a)

High p factor scores are associated with a greater likelihood of psychiatric hospitalizations, suicide attempts, and criminal behavior.

b)

Individuals with high p factor scores tend to show worsening impairments over time, rather than improvement.

c)

The p factor explains why people who develop psychopathology in childhood are always destined to have severe disorders in adulthood

d)

The p factor is proposed as a general vulnerability to psychopathology, similar in structure to the concept of general intelligence (g).

109.

Disorders with a ​ (a)   will tend to be more ​ (b)   across cultures.

A disorder ​ (c)   is more likely to ​ (d)   across cultures.

Choose from the below words
strong biological component
similar
heavily influenced by learning, context, or both
differ
weak psychological influence
identical
uniform across societies
110.

Since the 1994 edition, the DSM has:

a)

Included a number of disorders that tend to occur within specific cultural settings

b)

Removed all culture-specific disorders, arguing they can be fully explained by universal diagnostic categories.

c)

Highlighted the common features of psychological disorders across cultures, describing fewer culturally unique patterns than in earlier editions.

d)

Organized disorders in ways that reflect symptom categories and diagnostic criteria, without introducing a distinct focus on cultural context.

111.

Which of the following best illustrates the concept of etiology in psychological research?

a)

Researchers find that early exposure to chronic stress in childhood increases the likelihood of developing anxiety disorders later in life.

b)

A clinician explains that individuals with anxiety disorders often experience racing thoughts, muscle tension, and difficulty sleeping.

c)

A therapist tells a client that, with consistent cognitive-behavioral therapy, their anxiety symptoms are likely to improve over the next six months.

d)

A psychiatrist uses a structured interview to confirm that a patient meets the diagnostic criteria for generalized anxiety disorder.

112.

Main purpos(es) of the DSM is/are:

a)

diagnosis

b)

prognosis (the expected course/outcome),

c)

etiology

d)

diagnosis, prognosis and etiology

113.

Which of the following is true regarding the DSM (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders)?

a)

Most insurance companies require a DSM diagnosis before they approve coverage for mental health treatment.

b)

The DSM provides detailed explanations of the underlying causes of each listed psychological disorder.

c)

The DSM is designed primarily to offer treatment recommendations and intervention plans for clinicians.

d)

The DSM organizes disorders based on how frequently they occur in the general population, listing the most common ones first.

114.

Which of the following is considered one problem with the DSM approach to diagnosing psychological disorders?

a)

It takes a categorical approach, which may oversimplify psychological conditions that actually exist along a spectrum.

b)

It focuses on symptom checklists but does not provide a way to assess the severity of those symptoms across different individuals.

c)

It relies on diagnosis labels but does not include specific guidelines for how to treat each disorder once diagnosed.

d)

It organizes disorders by categories but does not prioritize the role of social and cultural factors in the diagnostic process.

115.

Which of the following is the current edition of the DSM?

a)

DSM-5

b)

DSM-3

c)

DSM-10

d)

DSM-8

116.

Which of the following best illustrates a categorical approach to psychopathology?

a)

A clinician determines that a client either meets or does not meet the diagnostic criteria for major depressive disorder based on a defined set of symptoms.

b)

A psychologist rates a client’s level of anxiety on a scale from 1 to 10 to assess the severity of their symptoms.

c)

A therapist tracks fluctuations in mood intensity across several weeks to understand the client’s emotional patterns.

d)

A psychiatrist uses a personality inventory to identify how traits like neuroticism or extraversion contribute to the client’s emotional experiences.

117.

An alternative to a categorical approach in evaluating psychopathology is:

a)

A dimensional approach, which assesses psychological disorders along a continuum of severity.

b)

A descriptive approach, which focuses only on listing symptoms without organizing them into broader diagnostic categories.

c)

A diagnostic approach, which emphasizes using structured interviews to confirm the presence of specific disorders.

d)

A prescriptive approach, which organizes psychological disorders based on recommended treatment strategies.

118.

Which of the following is an example of a dimensional approach to diagnosing psychopathology?

a)

A psychologist rates the severity of depressive symptoms on a scale from mild to severe based on how often and intensely the symptoms occur.

b)

A clinician determines that a client either meets or does not meet the official diagnostic criteria for major depressive disorder.

c)

A psychiatrist checks off a symptom checklist to confirm the presence of at least five out of nine criteria required for a diagnosis of depression.

d)

A therapist uses a diagnostic manual to decide which specific disorder label applies to the client based on symptom clusters.

119.

Which of the following is considered a main problem with the dimensional approach to diagnosing psychopathology?

a)

There is no clear objective threshold for determining when a person’s symptoms are severe enough to require a formal diagnosis.

b)

This approach fails to recognize that most psychological disorders exist on a continuum rather than in distinct categories

c)

This approach emphasizes biological causes of disorders while ignoring behavioral symptoms.

d)

This approach tends to focus on specific diagnostic labels rather than the severity of individual symptoms.

120.

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates comorbidity in psychopathology?

a)

Jordan has been diagnosed with both generalized anxiety disorder and major depressive disorder, and his clinician notes that symptoms of each disorder appear independently.

b)

Ava exhibits intense mood swings that sometimes look like anxiety and at other times resemble depression, making it difficult for her therapist to determine which single diagnosis fits best.

c)

Malik experiences panic attacks that vary in severity, sometimes occurring once a week and other times several times per day.

d)

Priya’s social anxiety has become so severe that it now includes occasional panic attacks when she is in crowded spaces.

121.

Which of the following best explains how Avshalom Caspi’s concept of the “p factor” helps us understand comorbidity in psychopathology?

a)

It suggests that the overlap of disorders like depression and anxiety is due to shared diagnostic criteria rather than a true underlying connection.

b)

It proposes that many psychological disorders may reflect a general underlying vulnerability to psychopathology, which helps explain why different disorders often co-occur.

c)

It argues that comorbidity results mainly from environmental factors like trauma or stress, without evidence of shared biological or cognitive risks.

d)

It emphasizes that comorbidity is a misinterpretation of fluctuating symptoms within a single disorder, rather than the presence of multiple disorders.

122.

According to Avshalom Caspi’s longitudinal research, which of the following is true about individuals with high p-scores?

a)

They usually exhibit fewer co-occurring disorders, with psychological symptoms isolated to one diagnostic category.

b)

They are generally at lower risk for developing psychopathology across their lifespan because their symptoms remain subclinical.

c)

They show higher resilience to environmental stressors, which protects them from long-term psychological distress.

d)

They tend to experience more life impairments, including higher rates of psychiatric hospitalizations and greater functional difficulties.

123.

An individual's p-score is likely to remain stable over time.

a)

True

b)

False

124.

About 1 in ​ (a)   Americans over age 18 has a

diagnosable psychological disorder in a given year.

Choose from the below words
4
2
5
10
125.

Nearly --- of Americans will have some form of

psychological disorder at some point in life,

a)

50%

b)

25%

c)

35%

d)

15%

126.

The primary goal of ​ (a)   is to make a

​ (b)   so that appropriate treatment can be

provided. The course and probable outcome, or ​ (c)   , will

depend on the particular psychological disorder that

is diagnosed.

Choose from the below words
assessment
diagnosis
prognosis
127.
Peter is deathly afraid of spiders.  Whenever he sees one, he screams and runs out of the room and will not return until he sees evidence that it has been killed.  What is he probably suffering from?
a)
Social Phobia
b)
Generalized Anxiety Disorder
c)
A Specific Phobia
d)
Obsessive-compulsive Disorder
128.
Which of the following would be considered a compulsion?
a)
Checking twenty times to see if the front door is locked
b)
Thinking about a song over and over again
c)
Feeling anxiety when spinning on a carnival ride
d)
All of the answers are correct
129.

Obsessive thoughts typically ____ anxiety and compulsive behaviors typically ____ anxiety

a)

increase; increase

b)

decrease;

decrease

c)

decrease;increase

d)

increase; decrease

130.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following
  • Fear of contamination by people or the environment

Religious, often blasphemous, thoughts

  • Extreme worry something is not complete

  • Extreme concern with order, symmetry, or precision

  • Repeated cleaning of household objects

  • Ordering or arranging things in a particular way

  • Repeatedly checking locks, switches, appliances, doors, etc.

  • Constantly seeking approval or reassurance

Checking your body for changes or signs of illness

Obsessions
Compulsions
131.

Organize each personality disorder into its right cluster:

Categorize the following

Paranoid

Schizoid

Schizotypal

Antisocial

Borderline

Histrionic

Narcissistic

Avoidant

Dependent

Obsessive–Compulsive

Odd, Eccentric
Dramatic, Emotional, Erratic
Anxious, Fearful
132.

Match the following dissociative disorder with its corresponding description/symptom:

a)
  • Inability to remember important personal information, too extensive to be explained by ordinary forgetfulness

1.

Dissociative Amnesia

b)

Sudden, unexpected travel away from home + Confusion about personal identity or assumption of new identity

2.

Dissociative Amnesia w/ Fugue

c)
  • Behavior that is controlled by two or more distinct recurring identities

3.

DID

133.

Match each characteristic/symptom with its corresponding personality disorder

a)

Desperate efforts to avoid real or imagined abandonment

1.

Borderline

b)
  • Evidence often seen in childhood as conduct disorder

2.

Antisocial

c)

Excessive need for admiration

3.

Narcissistic

d)
  • Often superstitious

4.

Schizotypal

e)
  • Constantly assuming that other people intend to deceive, exploit, or harm them.

5.

Paranoid

134.

Match each characteristic/symptom with its corresponding personality disorder

a)

Most serious and disabling of the person

1.

Borderline

b)
  • Appearing to lack “conscience”

2.

Antisocial

c)

Grandiose sense of self-importance

3.

Narcissistic

d)
  • Attention-seeking behavior that often includes sexually seductive or provocative behaviors

4.

Histrionic

e)
  • Fears of separation; and the inability to assume responsibility

5.

Dependent

135.

Following the failure of his business, Mr. Jones disappeared and was discovered two years later in another state practicing law without a license. When questioned, he responded that he had found himself in a strange city and could not remember any personal information. Mr. Jones most likely would be diagnosed with

a)

amnesia

b)

dissociative identity disorder

c)

dissociative fugue

d)

dementia

e)

bipolar disorder

136.

Match the following

a)

Padma is extremely confident and feels that lately she needs very little sleep. In addition, she reports that her thoughts seem to be going fast—similar to watching three television shows at once. Padma most likely is experiencing

1.

a manic episode.

b)

Leo worries all of the time. He worries about his money, his children, and his dog. His muscles are always tense and sore, he has trouble sleeping, is often irritable, and has difficulty concentrating. Leo’s symptoms sound most like ________

2.

generalized anxiety disorder

c)

During his college years, Jacob often experienced episodes of intense fear accompanied by the fear that he might be dying. Jacob might have experienced a ________ while in college.

3.

panic disorder

d)

After being passed up for a promotion and then getting into a heated argument with his son, a man disappears. He shows up two weeks later in another town with no memory of who he is or how he got there. He appears to be suffering from

4.

dissociative fugue.

e)

After being abused throughout her childhood, Helen has three distinct personalities. One is aggressive, one is sexually promiscuous, and one is very timid. Helen most likely suffers from

5.

dissociative identity disorder.

137.

Personality disorders:

* Frank has had many brushes with the law and shows very little regret toward those he has wronged: ​ (a)  

*Mike feels as if the world revolves around him, displaying an unwarrented sense of self-importance : ​ (b)  

Bert is prone to fits of explosive rage and risky behavior: ​ (c)  

Choose from the below words
antisocial
narcissistic
borderline
schizoid
avoidant
histrionic
paranoid
138.

Narcissistic Personality Disorder: Characterized by a ​ (a)   sense of self-importance, fantasies of ​ (b)   success, need for ​ (c)   admiration, and a willingness to ​ (d)   others to achieve ​ (e)   goals

Choose from the below words
grandiose
unlimited
excessive
exploit
personal
139.

What is the difference between an obsession and a compulsion?

a)

An uncontrollable pattern of thought is a compulsion; the repeated performance of coping behavior is an obsession.

b)

An obsession usually begins shortly after a stressful event; a compulsion is inherited behavior.

c)

An uncontrollable pattern of thought is an obsession; the repeated performance of coping behavior is a compulsion.

d)

A compulsion is always accompanied by physical symptoms such as shakiness or headaches; an obsession never is.

140.

The nurse is speaking with a client who is exhibiting magical thinking with paranoid beliefs. This is typical with which personality disorder?

a)

Borderline Personality D/O

b)

Obsessive-Compulsive Personality D/O

c)

Dependent Personality D/O

d)

Schizotypal Personality D/O

141.
This personality disorder is characterized by the person essentially lacks a sense of self, and, as a result, experiences feelings of emptiness and fears of abandonment. There is a pattern of intense but unstable relationships, emotional instability, outbursts of anger and violence (especially in response to criticism), and impulsive behavior.
a)
borderline personality disorder
b)
narcissistic personality disorder
c)
dependent personality disorder
d)
antisocial personality
142.

Plato feels like everyone at work is watching him, and is constantly looking over his shoulder, worried that someone is trying to see what he is working on so they can steal his ideas. Which personality disorder does Plato likely have?

a)

Narcisstic

b)

Avoidant

c)

Histrionic

d)

Paranoid

143.
Logan always seems to be causing drama.  He is in and out of relationships all the time, is mean to his friends and family, never passes on doing a dare no matter how dangerous it is, and floats back and forth between feeling like he's awesome or that he sucks.  What is he probably suffering from?
a)
Schizoid Personality Disorder
b)
Borderline Personality Disorder
c)
Histrionic Personality Disorder
d)
Antisocial Personality Disorder
144.

DSM-V is a widely used system for:

a)

classifying psychological disorders

b)

identifying the causes of psychological abnormality

c)

distinguishing sanity from insanity

d)

treating depression

145.

Which of the following statements is accurate regarding bulimia nervosa?

a)

Bulimia nervosa is much more frequently diagnosed in women than in men.

b)

Bulimia nervosa is typically associated with being underweight, often below a healthy BMI.

c)

People with bulimia nervosa rarely feel distress about their behaviors, as purging is seen as a successful way to control weight.

d)

Bulimia nervosa is more common in older adults than in adolescents or young adults.

146.

Which of the following best illustrates the roles of both classical and operant conditioning in the development and maintenance of OCD symptoms?

a)

After getting sick once following a visit to a hospital, a person starts to feel anxious every time they pass a hospital and begins avoiding them, feeling calmer as a result.

b)

A person believes their thoughts can cause bad things to happen, so they engage in rituals to keep others safe, even if there's no evidence those thoughts have power.

c)

Someone grows up in a household where their parents emphasized cleanliness, and they adopt similar habits as part of their routine adult life.

d)

A person hears about a rare disease on the news and becomes extremely focused on researching medical symptoms, though they don’t act on any particular habits or rituals.

147.

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the concept of comorbidity, as defined in clinical psychology?

a)

After being diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder, Malik begins experiencing symptoms of major depression, including fatigue and hopelessness.

b)

Zoe begins experiencing panic attacks following a car accident, but her symptoms improve after several months of therapy and medication.

c)

Jackson is diagnosed with depression during high school, but years later is diagnosed with alcohol use disorder after a difficult breakup.

d)

Lila receives two different diagnoses from two different clinicians: one says she has bipolar disorder, the other says she has borderline personality disorder.

148.

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates agoraphobia?

a)

After experiencing intense physical symptoms while stuck in a crowded subway car, Nadia now avoids public transportation altogether and only travels with someone she trusts.

b)

Jonah starts skipping parties and group hangouts because he feels socially awkward and worries about being judged by others.

c)

Maya insists on triple-checking the locks on all doors and windows every night and becomes restless if she tries to sleep without doing so.

d)

Cameron no longer attends school assemblies because loud noises and flashing lights make him feel overwhelmed and dizzy.

149.
  • The impairments to daily living for bipolar I disorder are the ​ ​ (a)   episodes , but the impairments for bipolar II disorder are the ​ (b)   episodes.

Choose from the below words
manic
major depressive
150.

Bipolar disorders are much ​ (a)   common than depression.

Choose from the below words
less
more
151.

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates catatonic behavior?

a)

Maria stands completely still for long periods, unresponsive to people around her, and repeats words she hears without understanding.

b)

Jamal frequently talks to himself with nonsensical phrases and moves his limbs in an erratic, unpredictable manner.

c)

Lily neglects her hygiene, wears mismatched clothes, and often mutters incoherent sentences when alone.

d)

Carlos paces nervously, wringing his hands and talking rapidly about unrelated topics.

152.
  • Many researchers believe that people prone to dissociative disorders are also prone to ----

a)

PTSD

b)

schizophrenia

c)

pure obsessions

d)

borderline personality disorder

153.

Which of the following statements about Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID) is accurate?

a)

Most individuals diagnosed with DID are men.

b)

DID occurs equally among men and women.

c)

The majority of people diagnosed with DID are women

d)

DID is more common in children than adults.

154.

Which of the following best characterizes individuals who simulate Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)?

a)

They tend to report obscure and rare symptoms of DID but rarely mention common comorbid conditions.

b)

They typically report widely known DID symptoms but often omit frequent associated issues like major depression or PTSD.

c)

They describe both subtle and overt symptoms of DID with accuracy matching clinical cases.

d)

They primarily present with symptoms unrelated to trauma or dissociation.

155.

Which of the following statements best captures a current debate about the nature of Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD)?

a)

BPD is primarily a biologically based personality disorder distinct from trauma-related conditions.

b)

Some clinicians suggest that BPD represents a manifestation of complex post-traumatic stress disorder due to overlapping symptoms and etiology.

c)

BPD symptoms are entirely separate from trauma responses and reflect maladaptive personality traits only.

d)

The classification of BPD has shifted toward a neurodevelopmental disorder linked to early childhood brain abnormalities.

156.

Match each disorder on the left with the best option of its possible origin or cause:

a)

Biased perception and inhibited temperament

1.

Anxiety Disorders

b)

Monoamine deficiency and multiple negative events

2.

Depressive Disorders

c)

Strong family history risk

3.

Bipolar disorders

d)

Abnormalities in dopamine neurotransmission

4.

Schizophrenia

157.

Match the following

a)

Genetic predispositions in personality / impulsivity, and social learning

1.

Addiction

b)

Frontal lobe deficits, amygdala dysfunction, and childhood abuse

2.

Antisocial Personality

c)

Severe childhood abuse

3.

DID

d)

Smaller caudates (area in the brain involved in controlling impulsivity)

4.

OCD

158.

A nurse is assessing a patient who displays a pattern of grandiosity, need for admiration, and a lack of empathy. The patient often exaggerates achievements and expects to be recognized as superior. Which personality disorder is the patient most likely exhibiting?

a)

Borderline Personality Disorder

b)

Narcissistic Personality Disorder

c)

Antisocial Personality Disorder

d)

Avoidant Personality Disorder

159.

A nurse is evaluating a patient who frequently displays intense and unstable relationships, a fear of abandonment, and dramatic mood swings. The patient often engages in impulsive behaviors such as self-harm and has a history of chronic feelings of emptiness. Which personality disorder is most consistent with these symptoms?

a)

Histrionic Personality Disorder

b)

Paranoid Personality Disorder

c)

Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder

d)

Borderline Personality Disorder

160.

A patient exhibits a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control. The patient is excessively devoted to work and productivity, often at the expense of leisure activities and relationships. The patient is also rigid about rules and standards. Based on these symptoms, which personality disorder is the patient most likely experiencing?

a)

Histrionic Personality Disorder

b)

Narcissistic Personality Disorder

c)

Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder

d)

Schizotypal Personality Disorder

161.

A nurse is assessing a patient who exhibits a pattern of detachment from social relationships and a limited range of emotional expression. The patient prefers solitary activities and shows little interest in forming close relationships. Which personality disorder is the patient most likely demonstrating?

a)

Schizoid Personality Disorder

b)

Borderline Personality Disorder

c)

Antisocial Personality Disorder

d)

Narcissistic Personality Disorder

162.
This personality disorder is characterized by a lack of self-confidence and an excessive need to be looked after. The person needs a lot of help in making everyday decisions and surrenders important life decisions to the care of others. He greatly fears abandonment and may go through considerable lengths to secure and maintain relationships.
a)

Histrionic personality disorder

b)

Schizotypal personality disorder

c)

Narcissistic personality disorder 

d)

Dependent personality disorder

163.

Organize the following traits/associated characteristics with the corresponding personality disorder:

Categorize the following

Tense

Guarded

Suspicious

Self-absorbed

Entitled

Envious of attention to others

Exhibits seductive behaviors

Needs immediate gratification and constant reassurance

Rapidly changes mood

Easily hurt and embarrassed

Few close friends

Rigid behavioral patterns and limited engagement with unfamiliar contexts.

Paranoid
Narcissistic
Histrionic
Avoidant
164.

Organize the following traits/associated characteristics with the corresponding personality disorder:

Categorize the following

Socially isolated

Cannot stand being alone

Peculiar thoughts and appearance

Manipulative

Dishonest

Disloyal

Lacks remorse/guilt

Habitually breaks social rules

Often troubles with the law

Childhood history of similar behaviors (i.e. animal cruelty)

Intense and unstable moods and relationships

Chronic anger

Drug and alcohol abuse

Limited, flat, or indifferent emotional expression

Often constricted, inappropriate, or odd emotional expression

Self-harming or threats to self-harm

Schizoid
Borderline
Schizotypal
Antisocial
165.

Organize the following traits/associated characteristics with the corresponding personality disorder:

Categorize the following

Perfectionistic

Overconscientious

Preoccupied w/ details

Unable to express affection

Wants others to make decisions.

Needs constant advice and reassurance.

Fears being abandonded.

Obsessive compulsive
Dependent
166.

Indicate which psychopathology matches most closely the following profile:

Jared is a 32-year-old IT specialist who prefers solitary activities and often turns down invitations to social gatherings. He works remotely and rarely speaks during team meetings unless necessary. His coworkers describe him as polite but emotionally flat and hard to read. When his team won a major contract, Jared responded with a neutral nod, while others cheered. When his grandmother passed away, he informed his boss in an email but returned to work the next day without mentioning it again.

a)

Bipolar I

b)

Schizophrenia

c)

Agoraphobia

d)

Schizoid personality dsorder

e)

DID

167.

Indicate which psychopathology matches most closely the following profile:

Nina is a 27-year-old part-time artist who lives alone and believes she has a "spiritual connection" with her plants. In conversation, she frequently uses unusual metaphors ("I’m aligned with Jupiter today") and sometimes laughs in serious moments or smiles during discussions about sad topics. At a friend’s birthday dinner, when someone toasted the guest of honor, Nina stood up, gave a dramatic bow, and whispered, “The astral plane is listening.”

a)

Bipolar II

b)

Schizophrenia

c)

DID

d)

Schizotypal personality dsorder

e)

Dissociative fugue

168.

Identify the psychopathology that best describes the following profile/description:

Santiago frequently changes jobs, not because of dissatisfaction with the work, but because of repeated conflicts with coworkers and managers. In romantic relationships, Santiago becomes intensely attached very quickly, yet soon after, accuses their partner of betrayal. When upset, Santiago has difficulty regulating emotions and has a history of reckless behavior.

a)

Borderline personality disorder

b)

Bipolar I disorder

c)

Bipolar II disorder

d)

Schizophrenia

e)

Dissociative fugue

169.

Identify the psychopathology that best describes the following profile/description:

Avery is often described by classmates as "living in her own world." She wears unconventional outfits, speaks in elaborate metaphors, and seems unaware when others are confused or uncomfortable. Though she attends classes, she rarely interacts with peers and doesn't seem interested in forming connections.

a)

Schizotypal personality disorder

b)

Schizoid personality disorder

c)

Cyclothymia

d)

Schizophrenia

e)

Dissociative Identity Disorder

170.

Identify the psychopathology that best describes the following profile/description:

Thomas works long hours at a local firm but rarely speaks to coworkers unless necessary. He eats lunch alone, doesn’t respond to jokes or personal comments. He doesn’t appear bothered by his lack of social interaction and prefers solitary hobbies like stamp collecting.

a)

Schizotypal personality disorder

b)

Schizoid personality disorder

c)

Histrionic personality disorder

d)

Narcissistic personality disorder

e)

Dependent personality disorder

171.

Identify the psychopathology that best describes the following profile/description:

Maria thrives in environments where she is the center of attention. She often interrupts conversations to share personal anecdotes, dresses dramatically, and becomes upset when not immediately reassured or complimented. Her emotions shift rapidly depending on the room’s reaction to her presence.

a)

Schizotypal personality disorder

b)

Schizoid personality disorder

c)

Histrionic personality disorder

d)

Narcissistic personality disorder

e)

Dependent personality disorder

172.

Identify the psychopathology that best describes the following profile/description:

Evan is highly respected for his precision and reliability at work, but coworkers find him difficult to collaborate with. He becomes upset if meetings start even a few minutes late and insists on doing projects only his way, even when it causes delays. Evan avoids social gatherings and struggles to express warmth, even with close family.

a)

Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

b)

Generalized anxiety disorder

c)

Agoraphobia

d)

Psychosis

e)

Schizoid personality disorder

173.

Which of the following individuals most likely exhibits characteristics associated with borderline personality disorder?

a)

Lena often cycles between idolizing and abruptly cutting off friends. She reports feeling empty and unsure of who she really is, and she has a history of impulsive behavior and intense emotional swings.

b)

Jared maintains distant relationships and rarely expresses emotion. He lives alone, keeps to himself, and shows little interest in social interaction.

c)

Tessa presents as confident and charming but is frequently manipulative and lies without remorse. She has a record of minor thefts and school suspensions.

d)

Noah reports frequent panic attacks in large crowds and avoids public spaces altogether. He insists on staying near his home and close family at all times.

174.

Which of the following statements is most consistent with current research on borderline personality disorder (BPD)?

a)

BPD symptoms often center around a heightened need for reassurance and discomfort in social settings, with minimal impact on identity or mood.

b)

BPD has traditionally been categorized as a personality disorder, though some researchers now consider it closely related to complex PTSD.

c)

BPD is best understood as a milder subtype of antisocial personality disorder, especially due to its impulsive traits.

d)

BPD is primarily treated through medications targeting serotonin and dopamine imbalances, which typically resolve most symptoms.

175.

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding personality disorders?

symptoms.


a)

The majority of individuals diagnosed with a personality disorder often meet criteria for more than one due to overlapping

b)

Personality disorders are best viewed as distinct from normative personality traits.

c)

Many personality disorders reflect extremes along a continuum of common personality traits.

d)

Some researchers argue that personality disorders can be understood in terms of the Big Five trait dimensions.

176.

Match each disorder to its corresponding characteristic or causal factor

a)

Linked to childhood abuse or exposure to extreme violence (70–80%)

1.

Borderline Personality Disorder

b)

Faked presentations often miss common symptoms like depression or PTSD

2.

Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)

c)

Strongly associated with serotonin-related genetic vulnerability

3.

Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

d)

Tied to dysfunction in prefrontal cortex, amygdala, thalamus, hippocampus

4.

Addiction

e)

More frequently diagnosed in males and ethnic minorities

5.

Binge-Eating Disorder

177.

What are some common symptoms of Cluster B Personality Disorders?

a)

Intense emotions, difficulty forming healthy relationships, impulsivity, manipulative behavior, lack of empathy

b)

Fear of abandonment, perfectionism, social anxiety, low self-esteem

c)

Excessive worry, panic attacks, phobias, compulsions

d)

Paranoia, hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech