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Worksheets

TYS 5086 Compilation

Total questions: 173

Worksheet time: 9hrs 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A vernier scale is used with a ruler to measure extensions of a wire. The diagrams show the position of the vernier scale against the ruler before and after a mass is suspended from the end of the wire. What is the extension caused by the mass?

a)

0.03cm

b)

0.13cm

c)

0.53cm

d)

1.00cm

2.

What is the order of magnitude of the diameter of the Earth?

a)

1 x 103 m

b)

1 x 105 m

c)

1 x 107 m

d)

1 x 109 m

3.

A pendulum has a period of 1.0s.

A stopwatch is started when the pendulum is vertical and is moving to the right, as shown.

Which diagram shows the position and the direction of the pendulum 2.5 s later?

a)

b)

c)

d)

4.

Which is a scalar quantity?

a)

displacement

b)

force

c)

speed

d)

velocity

5.

5 A voltage of 2 millivolts is applied across a resistor causing a current of 4 microampere.

Which row gives the voltage in volts and the current in ampere?

a)

voltage/V: 0.000002

current/A: 0.000004

b)

voltage/V: 0.000002

current/A: 0.004

c)

voltage/V: 0.002

current/A: 0.000004

d)

voltage/V: 0.002

current/A: 0.004

6.

Two forces act at right angles at a point O as shown.

What is the resultant of the forces?

a)

magnitude: 15 N

direction: OQ

b)

magnitude: 15 N

direction: PR

c)

magnitude: 21 N

direction: OQ

d)

magnitude: 21 N

direction: PR

7.

Which pair consists of two vector quantities?

a)

acceleration and weight

b)

density and velocity

c)

energy and force

d)

pressure and work done

8.

Which order shows units of energy in the correct order of increasing size?

a)

J→kJ→mJ→nJ

b)

mJ→nJ→J→kJ

c)

nJ→mJ→J→kJ

d)

MJ→J→kJ→GJ

9.

The diagram shows the scales on a micrometer screw gauge and a vernier caliper.

What are the readings on the micrometer screw gauge and the vernier caliper respectively?

a)

6.77 mm

1.7 mm

b)

6.77 mm

2.7 mm

c)

7.77 mm

1.7 mm

d)

7.77 mm

2.7 mm

10.

Which quantity is a base quantity

a)

area

b)

speed

c)

temperature

d)

weight

11.

Which two quantities are both scalars?

a)

acceleration and weight

b)

acceleration and mass

c)

length and mass

d)

length and weight

12.

The speed-time graph is for a car initially at rest.

The car starts to move with ..................

(HINT: Gradient S-T graph --> Acceleration)

a)

non-uniform acceleration and then moving with uniform acceleration

b)

uniform acceleration and then moving with non-uniform acceleration

c)

uniform speed and then moving with non-uniform acceleration

d)

uniform speed and then moving with uniform acceleration

13.

In the speed-time graph shown, which region is the acceleration decreasing?

(HINT: Gradient of S-T graph --> Acceleration. So look for which part of the graph is gradient decreasing)

a)

V to W

b)

W to X

c)

X to Y

d)

Y to Z

14.

The speed-time graph is for a parachutist leaving an aircraft and falling to earth. Which point does the parachute open?

(HINT: When parachute opens, there is a SUDDEN decrease in speed!)

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

15.

A car takes 60 mins to travel 100 km along a main road and then 30 mins to travel 20 km along a side road.

What is the average speed for the whole journey?

a)

40 km/h

b)

70 km/h

c)

80 km/h

d)

100 km/h

16.

A car moving at 40 km/h speeds up with constant acceleration for 3 mins, reaching a final speed of 80 km/h. What is the distance travelled during this time?

(HINT: Use speed-time graph to sketch out the path and see)

a)

6 km

b)

4 km

c)

3 km

d)

2 km

17.

What is used to calculate the value of a uniform acceleration?

a)

area under speed-time graph

b)

change in speed / time taken

c)

change in velocity / time taken

d)

gradient of a distance-time graph

18.

Two runners, X and Y are in a race. The diagram shows the speed-time graph for them.

Which statement is correct?


(HINT: Use area under S-T graph to calculate distance of each runner after 8 s, 4 s and 7 s, then check which statement is correct)

a)

After 8 s, runner X has travelled 32 m further than runner Y.

b)

After 8 s, runner Y has travelled 4 m further than runner X.

c)

The runners have travelled the same distance after 4 s

d)

The runners have travelled the same distance after 7 s

19.

How is the acceleration of an object be determined?

a)

area of speed-time graph

b)

change in velocity

c)

gradient of speed-time graph

d)

velocity multiplied by time

20.

The motion of an object moving in a straight line is shown by a distance-time graph.

Which row describes the motion of the object from P to Q and Q to R?

(HINT: Gradient of D-T graph --> Speed)

a)

P to Q: moving with increasing acceleration,

Q to R: not moving

b)

P to Q: moving with increasing speed,

Q to R: moving with uniform speed

c)

P to Q: moving with uniform acceleration,

Q to R: moving with uniform speed

d)

P to Q: moving with uniform speed,

Q to R: not moving

21.

A parcel delivery van leaves its overnight parking space and covers a distance of 100km in the

morning and a further 75km in the afternoon. It then returns and is left in the same parking space

overnight.

What is the magnitude of the displacement of the van at the end of the journey?

a)

0 km

b)

25 km

c)

100 km

d)

175 km

22.

The graph shows a velocity-time graph for a car journey.

Which statement is correct?

a)

The car has a constant acceleration in section S.

b)

The car is accelerating in sections P, R and S.

c)

The car is moving forwards in section P and backwards in section R.

d)

The car is stationary in section Q.

23.

An object that has a mass of 15 kg on Earth is taken to the Moon.

The gravitational field strength on Earth is 10 N/kg and on Moon is 1.6 N/kg.

What are the mass and weight of the object on Moon?

(HINT: Use W = mg)

a)

15 kg & 24 N

b)

15 kg & 150 N

c)

24 kg & 15 N

d)

24 kg & 150 N

24.

What defines gravitational field strength?

(Use W = mg, then rearrange for g = W / m)

a)

mass x 10

b)

mass x weight

c)

massweight\frac{mass}{weight}

d)

weightmass\frac{weight}{mass}

25.

A hollow rectangular block of mass 819 g has the dimensions shown.

What is the density of the metal?

(HINT: Calculate the volume of metal first, then use Density = MassVolumeDensity\ =\ \frac{Mass}{Volume} )

a)

3.15 g/cm3

b)

4.10 g/cm3

c)

5.85 g/cm3

d)

13.7 g/cm3

26.

Which statement concerning mass of a body is not correct?

a)

mass experiences a force due to gravitational attraction

b)

mass is affected by variations in the strength of a gravitational field

c)

mass is a measure of the amount of substance in a body

d)

mass resists a change in the state of rest or motion of a body

27.

A measuring cylinder contains some water and a stone.

The mass of stone is 4 g and its density is 2 g/cm3.

What is the volume of water?

(HINT: Calculate volume of stone first using D = M/V. Then calculate volume of water by just subtracting)

a)

2.3 cm3

b)

2.6 cm3

c)

3.8 cm3

d)

4.1 cm3

28.

A gravitational field is a region in which a body with mass experiences a force.

Which statement about this force is correct?

a)

It can be attractive or repulsive

b)

It depends on the charge on the body

c)

It depends on the volume of the body

d)

It keeps a planet in orbit around the Sun

29.

The weight of a spacecraft on Earth is 1250 N and on Mercury is 475 N.

The gravitational field strength on Earth is 10 N/kg.

What is the gravitational field strength on Mercury?

(Calculate the mass of the object first using W = mg. Then use W = mg to find g on Moon)

a)

0.26 N/kg

b)

0.38 N/kg

c)

2.63 N/kg

d)

3.80 N/kg

30.

A student calculates the number of paper clips in a box.

The mass of one paper clip is 0.5 g and its density is 8 g/cm3. The student has determined the total volume of the paper clips using a measuring cylinder and water.

How many paper clips are in the box?

(HINT: Calculate total volume, then total mass of paper clips. Then use Density = Mass / Volume)

a)

160

b)

320

c)

400

d)

720

31.

A 1kg object is on the surface of the Earth, the international space station (a satellite in space) and on the OnMoon's surface.

Where is the inertia of the object the largest?

(HINT: Inertia depends on its mass only)

a)

on surface of Earth

b)

on International Space Station

c)

on surface of Moon

d)

it is the same on all 3 locations

32.

The weight of objects varies on different planets within the Solar System depending on the strength of the planet's gravitational field.

Which object has the smallest mass?

(Use W = mg, then make m the subject)

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

33.

How is the value of gravitational field strength determined?

(HINT: Use W = mg)

a)

mass x 10

b)

mas

c)

massweight\frac{mass}{weight}

d)

weightmass\frac{weight}{mass}

34.

A hollow rectangular plastic block has the dimensions shown.

The density of the plastic is 1.2 g/cm3.

What is the mass of the block?

a)

270 g

b)

410 g

c)

590 g

d)

860 g

35.

A student pushes a nail into a piece of cork using his hand. The pressure exerted by the student's hand is 0.30 N/mm2 and the area of contact between the hand and nail is 120 mm2. The area of contact between the other end of the nail the cork is 20 mm2.

What is the pressure exerted on the cook?

(Compare between both corks, 1 person be the scribe)

a)

0.05 N/mm2

b)

0.30 N/mm2

c)

1.8 N/mm2

d)

6.0 N/mm2

36.

A circus act involves a performer lying on a large number of pointed nails pointing upwards through a vertical board. The performer suffers no skin damage.

Which statement states this?

(HINT: the smaller the area, the higher the pressure)

a)

His weight is spread over a large area, decreasing the pressure

b)

His weight is spread over a large area, increasing the pressure

c)

His weight is spread over a small area, decreasing the pressure

d)

His weight is spread over a small area, increasing the pressure

37.

Each type of a four-wheeled toy car exerts a pressure on the ground of 3.5 N/cm2.

The area of each tyre in contact with the ground is 10 cm2. What is the weight of the car?

(HINT: Use Pr⁡essure = ForceArea\Pr essure\ =\ \frac{Force}{Area} to calculate the force on 1 tyre. Then multiply by 4 to get the weight)

a)

0.35 N

b)

1.4 N

c)

35 N

d)

140 N

38.

A window in an airplane has an area of 0.16 m2. The pressure inside the airplane is 80 kPa and the pressure outside is 50 kPa.

What is the value of the total force acting on the window due to these pressures?

(HINT: 1 Pa = 1 N/m2. Use Pressure = Force / Area to get Force. Since pressure is both pressing against the window, they are in opposite direction and will cancel each other out. Find the force due to each pressure and subtract the forces with each other to get the resultant force)

a)

4800 N

b)

8000 N

c)

12800 N

d)

20800 N

39.

A table has 4 legs. The area of each leg is 5 cm2. The pressure exerted on the floor by the table is 50 kPa. The gravitational field strength is 10 N/kg.

What is the mass of the table?

(Use Pressure = Force / Area to get Force first. Then use W = mg to get mass.)

a)

2.5 kg

b)

10 kg

c)

25 kg

d)

100 kg

40.

The density of an oil is 800 kg/m3, the density of water is 1000 kg/m3 and the density of mercury

is 13600kg/m3.

A solid cube has a side length of 40 mm and a mass of 80g.

Which statement is correct?

a)

The cube will float in oil.

b)

The cube will float in water.

c)

The cube will float in mercury.

d)

The cube will sink in all three liquids.

41.

On Earth, the gravitational field strength is 10 N/kg.

A block of wood has a mass of 2.0kg and has dimensions of 50 cm x 10 cm x 10cm.

The block is placed on a table so that the pressure it exerts on the table is the largest.

What is this pressure?

a)

40 N/m2

b)

200 N/m2

c)

400 N/m2

d)

2000 N/m2

42.

A car is accelerating along a road in the direction shown. The wheel shown is connected to the engine. Which direction is the force of friction exerted by the road on the car tyre?

(HINT: Friction always acts in opposite direction to motion)

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

43.

The speed-time graph shown for a model car. The resultant force on the car is 0.60 N. What is its mass?

(gradient of graph = acceleration. With acceleration, use F = m x a to get m.

a)

0.060 kg

b)

0.20 kg

c)

1.8 kg

d)

5.4 kg

44.

Four forces P, Q, R and S act on an object. The directions of the forces are shown. The object moves vertically upwards with a CONSTANT SPEED. Which statement MUST be correct?

(constant speed ==> 0 resultant force!!!)

a)

All four forces have the same magnitude

b)

P & R are equal in magnitude but both are larger than Q or S

c)

Q & S are equal in magnitude but P is larger than R

d)

Q & S are equal in magnitude and P & R are equal in magnitude

45.

Which free body diagram shows the directions of the forces acting on a rocket travelling vertically upwards?

a)

b)

c)

d)

46.

A car is moving forward. Two forces act on the car as shown. When force F equals force R, the car is ___

(HINT: when resultant force = 0 N, object is either at rest OR moving with constant speed)

a)

moving with non-uniform acceleration

b)

moving with uniform acceleration

c)

moving with uniform velocity

d)

stopping

47.

A box of mass 50 kg is pushed across a floor with a force of 340 N. The total frictional force acting on the box is 320 N. What is the acceleration of the box?

(HINT: 1. Find the resultant force on the box. Then use F = ma to find the acceleration)

a)

0.40 m/s2

b)

2.5 m/s2

c)

6.4 m/s2

d)

6.8 m/s2

48.

A large wooden crate of mass 160 kg is pushed across a rough floor with a force of 240 N. The acceleration of the crate is 0.50 m/s2. What is the frictional force on the crate?

(HINT: calculate the resultant force using F = ma. Then, calculate the friction using the resultant force and pushing force)

a)

80 N

b)

120 N

c)

160 N

d)

1600 N

49.

A car of mass 2400 kg travels at CONSTANT SPEED of 30 m/s for 10 mins.

The brakes are then applied and the car decelerates uniformly for 0.50 mins until the car comes to rest.

What is the braking force?

(HINT: Use a = (v − u)ta\ =\ \frac{\left(v\ -\ u\right)}{t} to calculate acceleration. Then use this value and substitute to equation F = ma to get Friction force. In this case, no other forces are there so braking force is the resultant force)

a)

120 N

b)

2400 N

c)

7200 N

d)

144000 N

50.

Which statement is incorrect?

(HINT: Can an object not decelerate if there are frictional forces?)

a)

Friction in air is also called air resistance

b)

Frictional forces only decrease the velocity of an object

c)

Frictional forces can cause energy to be wasted as thermal energy

d)

Friction is different between different pairs of surfaces

51.

The frictional force due to the air on a moving object gets four times larger when its speed

doubles.

The object has a mass of 4.0kg and falls through the air at 6.0m/s. The object accelerates at

9.0m/s2. The gravitational field strength is 10m/s2.

What is the frictional force on the body when it is moving at 12m/s?

a)

16 N

b)

36 N

c)

40 N

d)

144 N

52.

A pivoted window, weighing 100 N, is opened with a force of 30 N.

What is the magnitude of the resultant moment about the pivot?

a)

1 Nm

b)

5 Nm

c)

35 Nm

d)

41 Nm

53.

An object is designed to topple over easily when hit.

What should the object have so that it can topple over easily?

a)

base: narrow

centre of gravity: high

b)

base: narrow

centre of gravity: low

c)

base: wide

centre of gravity: high

d)

base: wide

centre of gravity: low

54.

A uniform plank is pivoted at its mid-point and a weight is added on either side in the positions shown.

The plank is balanced by the upward 2N force.

What is weight X?

a)

4 N

b)

6 N

c)

10 N

d)

12 N

55.

A child has a set of 3-dimensional capital letters.

Which letter, H, I, R or Y, is the most stable when standing upright on a table?

a)

b)

c)

d)

56.

The diagram shows a plank supported by a pivot. A block P is placed on one end of the plank and a block Q of weight 400 N is placed on the other end.

The weight of the plank can be ignored.

What is the weight of block P in order to keep the plank horizontal?

a)

150 N

b)

240 N

c)

360 N

d)

667 N

57.

A uniform plank is pivoted by its mid-point and a weight is added on either side in the positions shown.

A force needs to be applied at point X in order to balance the plank.

What is the magnitude of this force and its direction?

a)

force/N: 2

direction: downward

b)

force/N: 2

direction: upward

c)

force/N: 4

direction: downward

d)

force/N: 4

direction: upward

58.

A plank of negligible mass is held horizontally by supports X and Y that are placed 3 m apart.

A weight of 250 N is placed on the plank 0.80 m from support Y.

What is the force exerted by support Y on the plank?

a)

67 N

b)

100 N

c)

180 N

d)

200 N

59.

A ball is held over the edge of a balcony. The ball is released and falls on to a concrete path below, before bouncing back up. Which row shows the correct order of the energy transformations?

a)

chemical energy→elastic energy→kinetic energy→gravitational potential energy

b)

chemical energy→kinetic energy→gravitational potential energy→kinetic energy

c)

gravitational potential energy→elastic energy→kinetic energy→chemical energy

d)

gravitational potential energy→kinetic energy→elastic energy→kinetic energy

60.

A car, of mass 1000 kg, is slowly going down a steep hill. The brakes fail and the driver uses a horizontal sand-filled safety road to stop the car.

The car enters the sand at a speed of 10 m/ s and is subjected to a stopping force of 2500 N.

How far does the car travel before coming to rest?

a)

2 m

b)

4 m

c)

20 m

d)

40 m

61.

When a 300 N force is applied to a box weighing 600 N, the box moves 3.0 m horizontally in 20 s. What is the average power used when the box is moved?

a)

45 W

b)

90 W

c)

900 W

d)

1800 W

62.

What is not a form of potential energy?

a)

chemical

b)

elastic

c)

gravitational

d)

thermal

63.

A bullet of mass 0.0500 kg passes through a piece of wood and slows from 500 m/s to 200 m/s.

What is the kinetic energy lost by the bullet?

a)

2250 J

b)

4500 J

c)

5250 J

d)

10500 J

64.

A golf ball is travelling horizontally in the direction shown. Assume that no kinetic energy is transferred to thermal energy or sound, and the gravitational field strength is 10 N/kg.

What is the minimum speed the golf ball must have at X to enable it to reach the point Y?

a)

1.4 m/s

b)

2.0 m/s

c)

2.4 m/s

d)

2.8 m/s

65.

Which device converts kinetic energy to electrical energy?

a)

a hair dryer

b)

a jet engine

c)

a wind turbine

d)

an electric motor

66.

A person of weight 600 N walks uphill. He moves 1O m vertically each minute.

 

What is the useful power generated by the person?

a)

60 W

b)

100 W

c)

3600 W

d)

6000 W

67.

An energy transfer takes place inside a closed system.

 


Which statement about the total energy in the system is correct?

a)

It decreases.

b)

It increases.

c)

It stays the same.

d)

It is zero.

68.

A mass on a spring oscillates up and down with a constant amplitude.

At the top of its motion:

• the mass has no kinetic energy

• the mass has gravitational potential energy of 9.0 J

• the elastic potential energy in the compressed spring is 1.0 J.

At another position, the mass has kinetic energy of 1.8 J and gravitational potential energy of 5.0J.

What is the elastic potential energy in the spring at this new position?

a)

2.2 J

b)

3.2 J

c)

4.0 J

d)

5.0 J

69.

A man, of weight 800 N, takes 5.0 s to cycle 100 m at a constant speed along a road.

The road rises vertically 1.0 m for every 50 m measured along the road. What average power does he produce?

Work done against friction by the man can be ignored.

a)

32 W

b)

160 W

c)

320 W

d)

1600 W

70.

A stationary object is dropped from the top of a tower.

Just before impact with the ground its speed is 20 m/ s. The gravitational field strength is 1ON/ kg.

Frictional forces are negligible.

What is the height of the tower?

a)

20 m

b)

40 m

c)

100 m

d)

200 m

71.

A force F pushes a box at a constant speed a distanced along a rough inclined surface. The box rises a vertical height h.

The mass of the box is m. The gravitational field strength is g.

Which equation is used to calculate the work done W by the force F?

a)

W=Fd

b)

W= Fd+mgh

c)

W= Fd-mgh

d)

W=mgh

72.

Which form of energy, that molecules have, is related to temperature?

a)

chemical

b)

gravitational

c)

kinetic

d)

nuclear

73.

A liquid is heated.

Which statement is not correct?

a)

The molecules expand.

b)

The molecules gain energy

c)

The molecules move further apart

d)

The molecules move faster

74.

Which statement is correct?

a)

The molecules in a gas are closer together than in a liquid.

b)

The molecules in a solid are much further apart than in a liquid.

c)

In a liquid, the kinetic energy of the molecules increases with increasing temperature

d)

In a solid, the molecules can move around each other.

75.

Which statement about solids, liquids and gases is correct?

a)

In a gas, particles move slowly downwards due to the force of gravity

b)

In a liquid, particles move slowly in some directions only.

c)

In a solid, particles vibrate about fixed positions.

d)

Liquids and gases can be easily compressed.

76.

A liquid is heated.

Which statement about the molecules in the liquid is not correct?

a)

they expand

b)

they gain energy

c)

they move further apart

d)

they move faster

77.

The volume of air trapped in a cylinder is rapidly reduced to half its original volume.

The temperature of the air increases.

Which statement is correct?

a)

The molecules in the air hit the walls of the cylinder less frequently.

b)

The molecules in the air move faster

c)

The molecules in the air move further apart

d)

The molecules in the air have the same internal energy

78.

Boiling and evaporation are different processes.

Which statement is not correct?

a)

Boiling occurs throughout the entire liquid but evaporation only occurs at the surface.

b)

Evaporation can only occur when the temperature of the liquid is high enough.

c)

Evaporation causes the temperature of a liquid to fall.

d)

When a boiling liquid is heated its temperature remains constant

79.

Which statement about the evaporation of a liquid is not correct?

a)

It changes the liquid into a gas

b)

It cools the liquid.

c)

It occurs only at the boiling point of the liquid.

d)

It takes place at the surface of the liquid.

80.

Blocks of gold are made by pouring hot, molten gold into moulds. The gold cools to its melting point and begins to solidify.

As the gold solidifies, which statement is correct?

a)

Its temperature decreases and energy is lost from the gold to the surroundings.

b)

Its temperature decreases and no energy is lost from the gold to the surroundings

c)

Its temperature stays constant and energy is lost from the gold to the surroundings

d)

Its temperature stays constant and no energy is lost from the gold to the surroundings

81.

Which statement about water is correct?

a)

Evaporation does not take place until water reaches 100°C.

b)

Evaporation happens more quickly on a warm day than on an otherwise identical colder day.

c)

The temperature of boiling water increases as the time the water is boiling also increases.

d)

Solidified water has no internal energy.

82.

Water at the top of a hot water tank is heated and the water becomes hot. No water enters or leaves the tank. Which statement explains why water at the bottom of the tank stays cold for some time?

a)

Cold water at the top of the tank falls to the bottom

b)

Hot water at the bottom of the tank rises to the top.

c)

The insulation is a poor conductor of heat.

d)

Water is a poor conductor of heat.

83.

The rate of energy transfer from a body by radiation is affected by a number of factors.

What does not affect the rate of transfer?

a)

colour of the surface

b)

surface area

c)

surface temperature

d)

the surrounding air pressure

84.

A heated surface loses heat by radiation.

What does not affect the amount of heat lost per square metre of the surface?

a)

the area of the surface

b)

the colour of the surface

c)

the roughness of the surface

d)

the temperature of the surface

85.

An insulating material contains trapped air. 

Why is trapped air used in insulating materials?

a)

Air is a good conductor of thermal energy and trapping the air increases heat transfer by convection

b)

Air is a good conductor of thermal energy and trapping the air reduces heat transfer by convection.

c)

Air is a poor conductor of thermal energy and trapping the air increases heat transfer by convection

d)

Air is a poor conductor of thermal energy and trapping the air reduces heat transfer by convection

86.

What is meant by the term wavefront?

a)

the distance between successive peaks of a wave

b)

the distance between the trough and the peak of a wave

c)

a line joining points along the peak of a wave

d)

a line joining the trough and the peak of a wave

87.

The diagram shows how displacement varies with time as a wave passes a fixed point. What is the frequency of this wave?

a)

0.25 Hz

b)

0.50 Hz

c)

1.0 Hz

d)

2.0 Hz

88.

These terms are used in relation to waves.

1       amplitude

2       frequency

3       speed

4       wavelength

Which can be measured in metres?

a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 4

c)

2 and 4

d)

3 and 4

89.

The displacement-distance and displacement-time graphs are shown for a water wave in a ripple tank. What is the speed of the wave?

a)

0.02 cm/s

b)

0.08 cm/s

c)

25 cm/s

d)

50 cm/s

90.

The diagram shows how the displacement of particles in a wave varies with distance along the wave. What are the values of amplitude and wavelength for this wave?

a)

amplitude/mm: 10

wavelength/mm: 200

b)

amplitude/mm: 10

wavelength/mm: 400

c)

amplitude/mm: 20

wavelength/mm: 200

d)

amplitude/mm: 20

wavelength/mm: 400

91.

A wave passes along a spring.

Which statement about the period of the wave is correct?

a)

It is measured in Hz.

b)

It is the number of oscillations each second.

c)

It is the speed of the wave divided by wavelength.

d)

It is the time taken for one oscillation.

92.

In a ripple tank a dipper moves up and down at point P. In 2.0 s, three wave crests are produced on the surface of the water. The distance between wave crests is 6.0 cm.

What is the speed and the frequency of the wave?

a)

speed/cm/s: 4.0

frequency/Hz: 0.67

b)

speed/cm/s: 4.0

frequency/Hz: 1.5

c)

speed/cm/s: 9.0

frequency/Hz: 0.67

d)

speed/cm/s: 9.0

frequency/Hz: 1.5

93.

Circular water waves are produced in a ripple tank.

The diagram shows the position of the wave crests after 10 s.

What is the frequency of the waves?

a)

0.40 Hz

b)

0.50 Hz

c)

2.0 Hz

d)

2.5 Hz

94.

Springs and ropes can both be used to illustrate wave motion.

Which statement is correct?

a)

Ropes are only suitable for illustrating longitudinal waves

b)

Ropes are suitable for illustrating both transverse and longitudinal waves

c)

Springs are only suitable for illustrating longitudinal waves.

d)

Springs are suitable for illustrating both transverse and longitudinal waves

95.

Ten periods of a simple pendulum is X s.

Which equation is correct?

a)

frequency = 1Xfrequency\ =\ \frac{1}{X}

b)

frequency = 10Xfrequency\ =\ \frac{10}{X}

c)

frequency = X10frequency\ =\ \frac{X}{10}

d)

frequency = X × 10frequency\ =\ X\ \times\ 10

96.

What is the correct order for the speed of sound in air, steel and water from the slowest to the fastest?

a)

air→steel→water

b)

air→water→steel

c)

steel→air→water

d)

steel→water→air

97.

A girl, standing 165 m in front of a tall building, fires a starting pistol.

A boy, standing 350m from the girl, hears two bangs 1.0s apart.

Using this information, what is the speed of sound in air?

a)

330m/s

b)

350m/s

c)

515m/s

d)

680m/s

98.

A girl blows a whistle close to a cliff face.

The echo she hears has the same pitch as the original sound but it is quieter.

Which statement about the wave reflected from the cliff compared to the original sound is correct?

a)

It has the same amplitude but a lower frequency.

b)

It has the same frequency but a lower speed.

c)

It has the same speed but a lower wavelength.

d)

It has the same wavelength but a lower amplitude

99.

A man stands between two cliffs and claps his hands once. An echo is heard which is closely followed by another. The speed of sound is 330 m/ s.

What is the time interval between the two echoes?

a)

0.17s

b)

0.33s

c)

0.67s

d)

0.83s

100.

A sound wave of frequency 400 Hz travels through air with velocity 320 m/ s.

The frequency of the wave in air is doubled to 800 Hz.

Which row describes the 800 Hz wave?

a)

velocity/m/s: 320

wavelength/m: 0.40

b)

velocity/m/s: 320

wavelength/m: 2.50

c)

velocity/m/s: 640

wavelength/m: 0.80

d)

velocity/m/s: 640

wavelength/m: 1.25

101.

A ship sends a short pulse of high frequency sound down towards the sea bed and detects the reflected sound 0.24 seconds later. The speed of the sound in water is 1500 m/ s.

What is the depth of the sea?

a)

180m

b)

360m

c)

6250m

d)

12500m

102.

Sound travels at 330 m / s in air.

A boy makes a loud noise and hears an echo from a cliff face 1.50 s later.

What is the distance between the boy and the cliff face?

a)

220.0m

b)

247.5m

c)

440.0m

d)

495.0m

103.

A musician plays a single note on a violin.

The same note is then played more loudly.

How do the amplitude and frequency of the sound wave change?

a)

amplitude: increases

frequency: increases

b)

amplitude: increases

frequency: no change

c)

amplitude: no change

frequency: increases

d)

amplitude: no change

frequency: no change

104.

What happens to a sound wave as it travels through air over a long distance?

a)

The amplitude decreases.

b)

The frequency decreases.

c)

The speed decreases

d)

The wavelength increases

105.

When sections of a large metal pipe have been welded together, they are checked to discover whether there are any cracks in the joints.

Which component of the electromagnetic spectrum is used for this purpose?

a)

infra-red

b)

radiowaves

c)

ultra-violet

d)

X-rays

106.

The diagram shows the main components of the electromagnetic spectrum in order of increasing frequency. Some of the components are labelled. The component Q has frequencies below those of light. What are electromagnetic waves in component Q used for?

a)

killing cancerous cells

b)

satellite television

c)

sterilisation

d)

television remote controller

107.

The main components of the electromagnetic spectrum have many well-known uses.

What is a use of infra-red radiation?

a)

checking metal castings for cracks

b)

alarms to detect intruders

c)

transmitting satellite television signals

d)

sterilisation of medical equipment

108.

Which component of the electromagnetic spectrum is used in intruder alarms?

a)

infrared

b)

microwaves

c)

radiowaves

d)

ultraviolet

109.

Microwaves travel through a vacuum.

What is their speed and what type of wave are they?

a)

speed in m/s: 3 x 102

type: longitudinal

b)

speed in m/s: 3 x 108

type: longitudinal

c)

speed in m/s: 3 x 102

type: transverse

d)

speed in m/s: 3 x 108

type: transverse

110.

Some of the components of the electromagnetic spectrum are shown. What are the components P, Q and R?

a)

P: microwaves

Q: ultraviolet

R: X-rays

b)

P: ultraviolet

Q: X-rays

R: microwaves

c)

P: X-rays

Q: microwaves

R: ultraviolet

d)

P: X-rays

Q: ultraviolet

R: microwaves

111.

A ray of light travelling in a glass block will change direction when it reaches the edge of the block. What is the change in the direction of the ray?

a)

50°

b)

80°

c)

100°

d)

130°

112.

A ray of light is reflected from a plane mirror. What are the values of angles X and Y if the angle of incidence of the ray is 30°?

a)

X/°: 30

Y/°: 30

b)

X/°: 30

Y/°: 60

c)

X/°: 60

Y/°: 30

d)

X/°: 60

Y/°: 60

113.

A ray of light hits the two mirrors placed at right angles shown in the diagram. The angle of incidence at the first mirror is 72°.

The ray is then reflected from the second mirror.

Through which angle has the direction of the ray changed?

a)

108°

b)

144°

c)

180°

d)

360°

114.

A ray of light travelling in a glass block will change direction when it reaches the edge of the block. What is the angle between the reflected ray and the path the ray would take in absence of a boundary?

a)

50°

b)

80°

c)

100°

d)

130°

115.

Which row gives the descriptions of refractive index and critical angle?

a)

b)

c)

d)

116.

The diagram shows a ray of light incident normally on the side PQ of a glass prism.

The critical angle for a ray of light travelling from glass into air is 42°. What will happen to this ray?

a)

It will be reflected from PQ at an angle of 45°.

b)

It will travel through the prism, reflecting from QR and RP, before re-entering the air at PQ

c)

It will travel through the prism to QR, be reflected onto RP and then refracted into the air.

d)

It will travel through the prism to QR and then be refracted into the air.

117.

The diagram shows a ray of light moving from medium S to medium T. Which row compares medium S with medium T?

a)

S: light travels faster

T: higher refractive index

b)

S: light travels faster

T: lower refractive index

c)

S: light travels slower

T: higher refractive index

d)

S: light travels slower

T: lower refractive index

118.

The diagram shows two rays of light from an object. 

The object is 10 cm in front of the lens. In this example, what is the focal length of the lens and the type of image formed?

a)

focal length: less than 10 cm

type of image: real

b)

focal length: less than 10 cm

type of image: virtual

c)

focal length: greater than 10 cm

type of image: real

d)

focal length: greater than 10 cm

type of image: virtual

119.

In the human eye there is a converging lens that produces an image at the back of the eye.

An eye views a distant object.

Which type of image is produced?

a)

real, inverted, diminished

b)

real, upright, same size

c)

virtual, inverted, magnified

d)

virtual, upright, diminished

120.

An object is placed in front of a thin converging lens at a distance equal to twice the focal length of the lens. Which description of the image formed by the lens is correct?

a)

real, inverted, same size as object

b)

real, upright, same size as object

c)

virtual, inverted, magnified

d)

virtual, upright, magnified

121.

The diagram shows a thin converging lens forming a real image of an object. What happens to the image as the object is moved further away from the focal point F?

a)

It moves further away from the lens and decreases in size.

b)

It moves further away from the lens and increases in size.

c)

It moves towards the lens and decreases in size

d)

It moves towards the lens and increases in size.

122.

The graph shows the results of an experiment to determine the resistance of a wire. What is the resistance of the wire?

a)

0.2 Ω

b)

4.0 Ω

c)

5.0 Ω

d)

80 Ω

123.

A wire of length 0.50 m and a cross-sectional area of 1.0 x 10-6 m2 has a resistance of 0.75Ω.

Another wire of the same material has a length of 2.0m and a cross-sectional area of

0.50 X 10-6m2.

What is the resistance of the longer wire?

a)

0.094 Ω

b)

0.38 Ω

c)

1.5 Ω

d)

6.0 Ω

124.

The circuit diagram shows three resistors in parallel with a battery. What is the effective resistance of these three resistors?

a)

0.14 Ω

b)

0.57 Ω

c)

1.75 Ω

d)

7.0 Ω

125.

Which statement is correct when the potential difference (p.d.) across a component in a circuit is 1V?

a)

1 C of charge is driven through the component in one second.

b)

1 J of work is done in driving a unit charge through the component.

c)

1J of work is done in driving a unit current through the component.

d)

1 W of power is produced in driving a unit charge through the component.

126.

To fully charge a battery for a portable electric saw, a current of 3.0A is used for five hours. 

How much charge does the battery store?

a)

15C

b)

900C

c)

6000C

d)

54000C

127.

A circuit consists of a battery, two resistors in parallel and an ammeter. What is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery?

a)

6.0V

b)

9.0V

c)

18.0V

d)

27.0V

128.

A small battery, when fully charged, is capable of supplying a current of 800 mA to a circuit for 1 hour before becoming fully discharged. For how long will this battery be able to supply a current of 2 A?

a)

0.16hours

b)

0.4 hours

c)

1.6 hours

d)

4.0 hours

129.

How can the unit of electromotive force be written?

a)

coulomb per volt

b)

joule coulomb

c)

joule per coulomb

d)

watt per coulomb

130.

There is a potential difference (p.d.) across a component in an electric circuit.

In time t, charge Q is driven through the component. The work done, in driving Q through the component in this time, is W.

What is the p.d. across the component?

a)

QWtQWt

b)

QWt\frac{QW}{t}

c)

QW\frac{Q}{W}

d)

WQ\frac{W}{Q}

131.

A 24 V battery is connected in series with a 2.0 Ω resistor and a parallel arrangement of a 6.0 Ω

and a 12 Ω resistor.

What is the potential difference across the 6.0Ω resistor?

a)

8 V

b)

12 V

c)

16 V

d)

24 V

132.

Which statement about electric field lines caused by two isolated point charges is not correct?

a)

Arrows on a field line show the direction in which a positive charge would move.

b)

Field lines go from one charge to the other if the charges have the same sign.

c)

Field lines never cross each other.

d)

Field lines very near a charge are radial, like spokes of a wheel.

133.

In the circuit shown, the battery lights up all four lamps.

When the filament of one of the lamps melts, the other three lamps stay on.

Which lamp filament melts?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

134.

The diagram shows a simple d.c. circuit. The resistances of the three resistors X, Y and Z are equal. Which statement is correct?

a)

The current in Y is larger than that in X and equal to that in Z.

b)

The current in Y is larger than that in X and larger than that in Z.

c)

The current in Y is smaller than that in X and equal to that in Z.

d)

The current in Y is smaller than that in X and larger than that in Z.

135.

A 12 V battery is connected across a parallel arrangement of two resistors. What is the reading on the ammeter?

a)

1.3A

b)

2.0A

c)

4.0A

d)

6.0A

136.

A circuit connects a 3.0Ω resistor in series with a tungsten filament lamp.

The voltmeter reads 2.5Vand the ammeter reads 500mA.

What is the potential difference across the lamp?

a)

1.0 V

b)

1.5 V

c)

2.5 V

d)

4.0 V

137.

A 2Ω resistor and a 5Ω resistor are arranged in parallel with a power source.

 

Which statement about the arrangement is correct?

a)

The current from the power source is the sum of the currents in each branch.

b)

The current in a single branch may be found by resistance divided by potential difference.

c)

The current is equal in both branches.

d)

The sum of the potential differences across each resistor is equal to the potential difference across the power source.

138.

A circuit contains a battery of electromotive force (e.m.f.) V connected across an arrangement of a 2.0Ω, a 3.0Ω and a 4.0Ω resistor. The current in the 3.0Ω resistor is 3.0A and the current in the wire leading from the battery is It. What are the values of V and It?

a)

V/V: 9.0

It/A: 3.0

b)

V/V: 9.0

It/A: 4.5

c)

V/V: 18

It/A: 4.5

d)

V/V: 18

It/A: 6.0

139.

Three 2Ω resistors can be connected together in series and parallel in different ways.

Which total resistance could not be obtained from different combinations of these resistors?

a)

23\frac{2}{3} Ω

b)

43\frac{4}{3} Ω

c)

3 Ω

d)

4 Ω

140.

The graph shows the voltage-current graphs for three equal lengths of the same material of resistance wire X, Y and Z. The resistance and cross-sectional area of the wires change in going from X to Z.

 Which row describes these changes?

a)

resistance: decreases

cross-sectional area: decreases

b)

resistance: decreases

cross-sectional area: increases

c)

resistance: increases

cross-sectional area: decreases

d)

resistance: increases

cross-sectional area: increases

141.

The circuit diagram shows three different resistors and three meters with their readings. What is the value of R?

a)

2 Ω

b)

3 Ω

c)

4 Ω

d)

6 Ω

142.

The diagram shows a circuit where the brightness of a lamp can be changed using a variable resistor.

The brightness of the lamp increases.

What happens to the voltage across the variable resistor and to the current in the lamp?

a)

voltage across the variable resistor: decreases

current in the lamp: decreases

b)

voltage across the variable resistor: decreases

current in the lamp: increases

c)

voltage across the variable resistor: increases

current in the lamp: decreases

d)

voltage across the variable resistor: increases

current in the lamp: increases

143.

A wire of length 2.0 m and cross-sectional area 0.50 x 10-6 m2 has a resistance of 1.2 Ω.

Another wire of the same material has a length of 0.50 m and a cross-sectional area of

1.0 X 10-6m2.

What is the resistance of the shorter wire?

a)

0.15 Ω

b)

0.60 Ω

c)

2.4 Ω

d)

9.6 Ω

144.

When four identical resistors are connected in parallel, their effective resistance is 0.50 Ω.

What is the resistance of a single resistor?

a)

0.125 Ω

b)

0.50 Ω

c)

2.0 Ω

d)

8.0 Ω

145.

A 12 V battery is connected in a circuit containing three resistors. 

X is an ammeter and Y is a voltmeter. What are the expressions for the readings X and Y?

a)

X/A: I + I1

Y/V: 12 + V1

b)

X/A: I + I1

Y/V: 12 - V1

c)

X/A: I - I1

Y/V: 12 + V1

d)

X/A: I - I1

Y/V: 12 - V1

146.

The circuits contain a number of identical cells and a number of identical resistors.

In which circuit is the current in the cells the highest?

a)

b)

c)

d)

147.

A resistor and a motor are connected in series and the combination is then connected to a 12V

battery.

The resistance of the motor is 1.0Ω and the resistor prevents a current of more than 4.0 A in the

motor.

What is the minimum value of the resistor?

a)

0.3 Ω

b)

1.3 Ω

c)

2.0 Ω

d)

3.0 Ω

148.

A lamp, a resistor and a motor are connected in parallel. The combination is then connected to a

battery.

Which statement is correct?

a)

The current in the battery is less than the sum of the currents in each component.

b)

The current in the battery is the same as the current in the motor.

c)

The voltage across the battery is the same as the voltage across the motor.

d)

The voltage across the battery is the sum of the voltage across each component.

149.

A resistor and a motor are connected in series and the combination is then connected to a 12V

battery.

The resistance of the motor is 1.0 Ω and the resistor prevents a current of more than 4.0 A in the

motor.

What is the minimum value of the resistor?

a)

0.3 Ω

b)

1.3 Ω

c)

2.0 Ω

d)

3.0 Ω

150.

A lamp, a resistor and a motor are connected in parallel. The combination is then connected to a

battery.

Which statement is correct?

a)

The current in the battery is less than the sum of the currents in each component.

b)

The current in the battery is the same as the current in the motor.

c)

The voltage across the battery is the same as the voltage across the motor.

d)

The voltage across the battery is the sum of the voltage across each component.

151.

An electric heater takes a current of 4A from a 250V supply when operating normally. 

What is the time taken for the heater to convert 400 000 J of electrical energy?

a)

400 s

b)

1000 s

c)

1600 s

d)

100000 s

152.

A 5 Ω resistor carries a current of 2 A for 10 s.

How much energy is converted into heat?

a)

4 J

b)

25 J

c)

100 J

d)

200 J

153.

1 kWh of electrical energy costs $0.12.

For how long is a 40W lamp used, if the cost is $0.24?

a)

0.050 hours

b)

0.080 hours

c)

12.5 hours

d)

50 hours

154.

A plug for a lamp contains a fuse with a 3.0A rating. Which statement is correct?

a)

The fuse breaks the circuit if the current exceeds 3.0A.

b)

The fuse contains an electromagnet.

c)

The fuse is connected to the earth pin of the plug.

d)

The fuse keeps the current at 3.0A.

155.

The diagram shows three identical bulbs connected to a cell.

A copper wire is now connected between S and T.

Which statement is correct?

a)

Q and R go out and P gets brighter.

b)

Q and R go out with no change in the brightness of P.

c)

R goes out and P and Q get brighter.

d)

R goes out with no change in the brightness of P and Q.

156.

The diagrams show a fuse, a lamp and a heater.

In which diagram is the fuse placed correctly?

a)

b)

c)

d)

157.

A man decides to replace six 100 W light bulbs with six 60 W bulbs.

The bulbs are used for 5.0hours each day and the cost of electrical energy is $0.10 per unit (kWh).

What is the weekly saving?

a)

$0.12

b)

$0.84

c)

$1.20

d)

$8.40

158.

The circuit shows a battery, three identical resistors and three ammeters A1, A2 and A3. Which row shows possible readings for the ammeters?

a)

A1/A: 6

A2/A: 3

A3/A: 3

b)

A1/A: 6

A2/A: 4

A3/A: 2

c)

A1/A: 12

A2/A: 4

A3/A: 8

d)

A1/A: 12

A2/A: 7

A3/A: 5

159.

In which pair are both formulae correct?

a)

b)

c)

d)

160.

A microwave oven uses 6.0A of current when plugged into a 240V mains supply.

It is used for two minutes each day and electricity costs $0.24 per kWh.

What is the cost of using it for a year (365 days)?

a)

$4.20

b)

$11.50

c)

$420

d)

$691

161.

A television has a power of 240W and is connected to a 240V mains supply.

Which fuse rating is appropriate for the fuse used with the television?

a)

1 A

b)

3 A

c)

10 A

d)

13 A

162.

The diagrams show a fuse, a lamp and a heater.

Which diagram shows the fuse in the correct place?

a)

b)

c)

d)

163.

The diagram shows how a steel bar can be magnetised. Which statement describes how the steel bar can be demagnetised?

a)

Reverse the d.c. supply and gradually decrease the current in the circuit

b)

Reverse the d.c. supply and gradually increase the current in the circuit

c)

Use an a.c. supply and gradually decrease the current in the circuit

d)

Use an a.c. supply and gradually increase the current in the circuit

164.

The diagram shows the pattern and direction of the magnetic field around two bar magnets. Which diagram shows the poles of the two magnets?

a)

b)

c)

d)

165.

Three metal bars, X, Y and Z, exhibit the following magnetic properties.

X is attracted by both ends of Y.

Y can be repelled by Z.

Which row correctly describes X, Y and Z?

a)

X: magnetised

Y: magnetised

Z: unmagnetised

b)

X: magnetised

Y: unmagnetised

Z: magnetised

c)

X: unmagnetised

Y: magnetised

Z: magnetised

d)

X: unmagnetised

Y: magnetised

Z: unmagnetised

166.

The diagram shows two separate bar magnets.

What are the poles at X and Y?

a)

X: N

Y: N

b)

X: N

Y: S

c)

X: S

Y: N

d)

X: S

Y: S

167.

The diagram shows an electromagnet and a permanent magnet.

The electromagnet attracts the permanent magnet.

The permanent magnet is removed and three compasses are placed around the electromagnet.

Which diagram shows the correct directions for the compass needles?

a)

b)

c)

d)

168.

A piece of magnetised steel is placed inside a coil connected to a power supply.

Which method demagnetises the steel?

a)

Supply alternating current and gradually decrease the voltage to zero.

b)

Supply alternating current and gradually increase the voltage to zero.

c)

Supply direct current and gradually decrease the voltage to zero.

d)

Supply direct current and gradually increase the voltage to zero.

169.

A copper wire carrying a current is held between the poles of a magnet.

The current in the wire can be reversed. The poles of the magnet can be changed over.

In how many of the four directions shown can a force act on the wire?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

170.

A current-carrying wire is in a magnetic field. The direction of electron flow is shown.

What is the direction of the force on the wire?

a)

in the opposite direction to the magnetic field

b)

in the same direction as the magnetic field

c)

into the paper

d)

out of the paper

171.

A copper wire carrying a current is held between the poles of two magnets.

The current in the wire can be reversed. The poles of the magnets can be reversed. In how many of the four directions shown by the arrows can a force act on the wire?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

172.

A vertical wire carries a current. The diagram shows the magnetic field around the wire, when viewed from above.

The poles of a magnet are placed either side of the wire. What is the direction of the force on the wire caused by the magnet?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

173.

A current-carrying coil in a magnetic field experiences a turning effect which causes it to rotate. The diagrams show the possible arrangements of field and current flow around the coil.

In which diagrams does the coil rotate in an anti-clockwise direction?

a)

P and Q

b)

P and R

c)

Q and R

d)

Q and S