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otorhinolaryngology

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Not one of esophagus physiologic constrictions is

a)

in the area of the esophageal inlet

b)

where the aortic arch crosses over the tracheal bifurcation

c)

At crossing of left primary bronchus

d)

At crossing of right primary bronchus

e)

where the esophagus pierces the diaphragm

2.

Allergic rhinitis is a

a)

type I allergic response

b)

type II allergic response

c)

type III allergic response

d)

type IV allergic response

e)

All the above answers are incorrect

3.

Not one of otogenic extracranial complications is

a)

postauricular subperiosteal abscess

b)

Bezold abscess

c)

labyrinthitis

d)

peripheral facial paralysis

e)

thrombophlebitis of the sigmoid sinus

4.

Which one isn’t the character of the onset of Meniere disease?

a)

Most cases present rotation

b)

Nausea, vomiting, sweating, etc are accompanied when vertigo onset frequently

c)

The time of vertigo onset is 1 minute.

d)

Usually, more long history of the disease is, more frequently vertigo attack

e)

Balance dysfunction during vertigo in remission

5.

Subject to the average 500~2000Hz hearing threshold, the threshold of moderate deafness is

a)

41-60dB

b)

26-40dB

c)

≤25dB

d)

61-80dB

e)

≥81dB

6.

On the classification of deafness, which one is incorrect?

a)

According to its pathological quality, deafness can be divided into organic deafness and functional deafness

b)

According to its pathological location, deafness can be divided into conductive deafness, sensorineural deafness and mixed deafness

c)

According to its severity, deafness can be divided into 4 grades: slight deafness, moderate deafness, severe deafness and profound deafness

d)

According to age of deafness occurrence, deafness can be divided into preadult deafness and adult deafness

e)

According to time of deafness appearance, deafness can be divided into acquired deafness and congenital deafness

7.

Which one can’t be seen in X-ray examination of botany foreign body in trachea and bronchus?

a)

atelectasis

b)

emphysema

c)

pulmonary inflammation

d)

shadow of foreign body

e)

non apparent abnormality

8.

The functions of pharynx don’t include

a)

immunity

b)

balance

c)

pressure regulation of the middle ear

d)

participation in the formation of language

e)

breathing

9.

On the opening of nasal sinuses, which one is wrong?

a)

maxillary sinus-middle meatus

b)

frontal sinus-middle meatus

c)

anterior ethmoid sinus-middle meatus

d)

posterior ethmoid sinus-middle meatus

e)

sphenoid sinus-spheno-ethmoic recess

10.

The common pathogenic bacteria causing furuncle of nose is

a)

beta hemolytic streptococcus

b)

staphylococcus aureus

c)

Staphylococcus epidermidis

d)

pseudomonas aeruginosa

e)

colibacillus

11.

The main symptom of acute laryngitis is

a)

coughing

b)

laryngospasmus

c)

hoarseness

d)

dyspnea

e)

fever

12.

The primary treatment of laryngeal carcinoma is

a)

surgery

b)

radiotherapy

c)

chemotherapy

d)

immune therapy

e)

herb therapy

13.

On laryngeal obstruction, which one is incorrect?

a)

Lesions of larynx or its adjacent tissues lead to stenosis or occlusion of laryngeal passage (especially at the glottis), which then cause dyspnea

b)

laryngeal obstruction is a independent disease

c)

laryngeal obstruction is a symptom caused by various etiologies

d)

Obstructive dyspnea caused by laryngeal obstruction often lead to hypoxia and CO2 accumulation

e)

laryngeal obstruction can led to death from suffocation.

14.

A male patient, 35 years old, have had a clogging sensation in throat for 1 hour. Examination: epiglottis was obvious swollen. The primary treatment is

a)

large dose of antibiotic plus dexamethasone

b)

antibiotic

c)

tracheotomy

d)

laryngeal intubation

e)

incision on the site with obvious swelling

15.

The symptom that will not occur in laryngeal obstruction is

a)

inspiratory dyspnea

b)

expiratory dyspnea

c)

inspiratory stridor

d)

depression of soft tissue while inspiration

e)

hypoxia

16.

Female, 17 years old, complained of otodynia, burning sensation, pain gradually aggravating, with tenderness of the tragus and auricular traction pain, diffuse hyperemia, swelling and dampness of the external auditory canal, several small pustules can be seen, which should be diagnosed as

a)

furuncle of external auditory canal

b)

necrotizing otitis externa

c)

acute suppurative otitis media

d)

acute mastoiditis

e)

acute external otitis

17.

The narrowest site in respiratory tract is

a)

posterior nares

b)

anterior nostrils

c)

laryngeal inlet

d)

glottis

e)

subglottis

18.

The narrowest part of the nasal vestibule is

a)

posterior nares

b)

anterior nostril

c)

pyriform aperture

d)

olfactory sulcus

e)

nasal limen

19.

Of the following statements, which one is completely wrong

a)

anterior nasal sinus include the maxillary sinus, anterior ethmoid sinus and frontal sinus

b)

the openings of anterior nasal sinus are located in the middle nasal meatus

c)

posterior nasal sinus include posterior ethmoid sinus and sphenoid sinus

d)

the opening of posterior ethmoid sinus is located in the superior meatus, and opening of sphenoid sinus is located in spheno-ethmoic recess behind and above superior meatus

e)

the presence of purulent secretion in olfactory sulcus suggests the infection of anterior sinuses

20.

The internal ring of pharyngeal lymph does not include

a)

lateral pharyngeal band

b)

palatine tonsil

c)

lingual tonsil

d)

eustachian tube tonsil

e)

retropharyngeal lymph nodes

21.

Choice of treatment for nasopharyngeal carcinoma is

a)

surgery

b)

chemotherapy

c)

radiotherapy

d)

symptomatic treatment

e)

traditional Chinese medicine treatment

22.

The following one structure is not membrane labyrinth

a)

utricle

b)

saccule

c)

part of cerebral dura mater

d)

membranous cochlear duct

e)

membranous semicircular duct

23.

The main symptom of laryngeal obstruction is

a)

inspiratory dyspnea

b)

hoarseness

c)

expiratory dyspnea

d)

cyanosis

e)

paroxysmal barking cough and dyspnea

24.

The most effective treatment in the early stage of acute suppurative otitis media is

a)

systemic application of antibiotics and corticosteroid

b)

systemic application of antibiotics

c)

ear drops of antibiotics

d)

2% phenol glycerin

e)

eustachian tube blowing

25.

The main cause of acute suppurative otitis media in children is

a)

the eustachian tube is short, wide and straight

b)

the isthmus of the eustachian tube is wide

c)

the eustachian tube is immature

d)

infants’ immunity is low

e)

all of the above

26.

Deafness caused by middle ear diseases is

a)

conductive deafness

b)

sensorineural deafness

c)

neural deafness

d)

mixed deafness

e)

central deafness

27.

For the pharyngeal division, which option is correct:

a)

nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx

b)

nasopharynx, oropharynx, glossopharynx

c)

oropharynx, laryngopharynx, posterior nares

d)

isthmus, pharynx, mouth

e)

glossopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx

28.

As for the treatment of secretory otitis media, which of the following treatment does not belong to the removal of effusion in the middle ear,

a)

tympanocentesis and aspiration

b)

tympanotomy

c)

myringectomy tube

d)

eustachian tube blowing and dilation

e)

adenoidectomy

29.

The structure with the function of regulating middle ear air pressure is

a)

eustachian tube

b)

pharyngeal tonsil

c)

palatine tonsil

d)

inferior turbinate

e)

lateral pharyngeal cord

30.

Cartilage scaffold of larynx does not include

a)

thyroid cartilage

b)

cricoid cartilage

c)

epiglottis cartilage

d)

hyoid

e)

arytenoid cartilage

31.

Tympanic perforations in cholesteatoma of middle ear is usually located in

a)

central area of pars tensa

b)

posterior and inferior pars tensa

c)

posterior and superior pars tensa or pars flaccida

d)

anterior and inferior pars tensa

e)

posterior and superior pars tensa

32.

Female patient, 40 years old, saleswoman. In the past six months, hoarseness and throat discomfort, were relieved after rest. Examination: the double vocal cords are congested and the mucosa is hypertrophic, but the surface is still smooth. There is a small gap behind the double vocal cords when they are closed. The most likely diagnosis is

a)

acute laryngitis

b)

chronic laryngitis

c)

laryngeal nodal tuberculosis

d)

vocal cord paralysis

e)

laryngeal carcinomia

33.

A patient with furuncle of nose suddenly appeared chill, high fever, severe headache. The likely complication the patient had was

a)

buccal cellulitis

b)

eye cellulitis

c)

upper lip cellulitis

d)

cavernous sinus thrombophlebitis

e)

cephalomeningitis

34.

In term of the composition of pharyngeal wall, the correct choice is

a)

mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, adventitia

b)

mucosa, submucosa, lamina propria, muscularis

c)

mucosa, fibrous layer, muscularis, outer membrane layer

d)

mucosa, fibrous layer, muscularis, adventitia

e)

mucosa, lamina propria, muscularis, outer membrane layer

35.

Peripheral facial paralysis refers to facial paralysis caused by the lesion of below which segment of facial nerve?

a)

labyrinth segment

b)

tympanum segment

c)

mastoid segment

d)

facial nucleus segment

e)

cone segment

36.

In chronic suppurative otitis media, part of the edge of the perforation of the tympanic membrane has reached the tympanic sulcus, where there is no residual tympanic membrane. The perforation is called

a)

A central perforation

b)

B tension perforation

c)

C marginal perforation

d)

D relaxation perforation

e)

E none of the above

37.

In patients with acute suppurative otitis media, 2% glycerin carbonate ear drops were stopped immediately after tympanic membrane perforation because glycerin carbonate

a)

A has only analgesic effect

b)

B has no better effect than antibiotic water solution

c)

C has corrosive effect on tympanic mucosa and tympanic membrane

d)

D oil is not easy to enter the middle ear through perforation

e)

E none of the above

38.

The main basis for the diagnosis of chronic sinusitis is

a)

A empyema in middle meatus

b)

B headache aggravation in the afternoon

c)

C purulent secretion in maxillary sinus puncture

d)

D sinus cavity blur in X-ray examination

e)

E all of the above

39.

Which of the following is the main basis for the diagnosis of chronic tonsillitis

a)

A recurrent attacks of acute tonsillitis

b)

B unsmooth surface of tonsil

c)

C chronic congestion of tonsil and lingual and palatal arch

d)

D pus thrombus discharged when tonsillar crypts are compressed.

e)

E lymphadenopathy of mandibular angle

40.

The most common site of epistaxis is

a)

A inferior meatus

b)

B middle meatus

c)

C top of nose

d)

D anterior inferior area of nasal septum

e)

E anterior superior part of nasal septum

41.

There is often intermittent alternating nasal obstruction. Consider

a)

A acute rhinitis

b)

B chronic simple rhinitis

c)

C chronic hypertrophic rhinitis

d)

D allergic rhinitis

e)

E atrophic rhinitis

42.

It does not conform to the clinical manifestations of chronic hypertrophic rhinitis

a)

A unilateral or bilateral persistent nasal obstruction

b)

B tinnitus and hearing impairment may occur

c)

C The mucosa of inferior turbinate is nodular or mulberry

d)

D the probe has a sense of firmness

e)

E it is sensitive to vasoconstrictor

43.

Which of the following is the main cause of acute suppurative otitis media

a)

A bacteria infect through eustachian tube

b)

B ear digging damages tympanic membrane

c)

C malnutrition

d)

D blood infection

e)

E improper transformation of secretory otitis media

44.

Which of the following is not a clinical manifestation of secretory otitis media

a)

A hearing loss

b)

B tinnitus

c)

C inner ear occlusion

d)

D a small amount of secretion intermittently from external auditory meatus

e)

E self hearing enhancement

45.

Chronic suppurative maxillary sinusitis generally does not appear

a)

A nasal obstruction

b)

B massive purulent discharge

c)

C dizziness and headache

d)

D olfactory decline or disappearance

e)

E vision decline

46.

The main pathogens causing acute tonsillitis are

a)

A hemolytic streptococcus

b)

B non hemolytic streptococcus

c)

C staphylococcus

d)

D pneumococcus

e)

E influenza virus

47.

The main cause of acute epiglottis is

a)

A bacterial infection

b)

B trauma

c)

C viral infection

d)

D inhalation of harmful gas

e)

E foreign body

48.

The common symptoms of acute epiglottis are not

a)

A chills, fever

b)

B sore throat

c)

C hoarseness

d)

D dyspnea

e)

E dysphagia

49.

The main symptoms of chronic laryngitis are

a)

A hoarseness

b)

B throat discomfort

c)

C cough

d)

D dyspnea

e)

E fever

50.

The most frequent occurrence part of vocal nodule is

a)

A anterior 2/3 of vocal cords

b)

B posterior 1/3 of vocal cords

c)

C the whole vocal cords

d)

D at the junction of the anterior and middle 1/3 of the vocal cords

e)

E at the junction of the middle and posterior 1/3 of the vocal cords

51.

More than 90% of laryngeal malignant tumors are pathological types

a)

A adenocarcinoma

b)

B squamous cell carcinoma

c)

C basal cell carcinoma

d)

D lymphosarcoma

e)

E malignant neurofibroma

52.

Typical clinical symptoms of Meniere's disease do not include

a)

A paroxysmal vertigo

b)

B fluctuating hearing loss

c)

C tinnitus

d)

D ear fullness

e)

E consciousness disorder during paroxysmal period

53.

Necessary for diagnosis of Meniere's disease

a)

A history

b)

B glycerin test positive

c)

C imaging test

d)

D displacement test positive

e)

E one vestibular dysfunction

54.

Based on the average hearing threshold of 500-2000hz, the hearing threshold of severe deafness is

a)

A 41-60dB

b)

B 26-40dB

c)

C ≤25dB

d)

D 61-80dB

e)

E ≥81dB

55.

The lesions of sensorineural hearing loss can be found in

a)

A external auditory meatus

b)

B tympanic membrane

c)

C ossicular chain

d)

D middle ear

e)

E cochlea

56.

The most common clinical ototoxic antibiotics are

a)

A aminoglycoside antibiotics

b)

B sulfanilamide antibiotics

c)

C macrolide antibiotics

d)

D penicillin antibiotics

e)

E tetracyclines

57.

The most common pathogens causing furuncle are

a)

A hemolytic streptococcus

b)

B Staphylococcus aureus

c)

C epidermidis

d)

D Pseudomonas aeruginosa

e)

E colibacillus

58.

Choice of treatment for nasopharyngeal carcinoma is

a)

A surgery

b)

B chemotherapy

c)

C radiotherapy

d)

D symptomatic treatment

e)

E traditional Chinese medicine treatment

59.

In the treatment of acute sinusitis, the following mistakes are made

a)

A keep the drainage of the paranasal sinus unobstructed

b)

B control infection

c)

C prevent complications

d)

D puncture and wash the maxillary sinus after the control of acute inflammation

e)

E perform endoscopic surgery as early as possible

60.

The necessary symptoms of chronic suppurative sinusitis are

a)

A nasal obstruction

b)

B headache

c)

C anosmia

d)

D purulent discharge

e)

E halitosis

61.

It is not the local factor that causes chronic pharyngitis

a)

A recurrent acute pharyngitis turns into chronic

b)

B chronic inflammation of upper respiratory tract stimulates

c)

C long term excessive smoking and drinking

d)

D voice abuse by teachers and singers

e)

E irregular diet

62.

Dyspnea caused by laryngeal obstruction is divided into

a)

A one degree

b)

B two degrees

c)

C three degrees

d)

D four degrees

e)

E five degrees

63.

The most unlikely clinical manifestations of patients with chronic hypertrophic rhinitis are

a)

A open nasal sound

b)

B tinnitus

c)

C tear overflow

d)

D headache

e)

E olfactory decline

64.

The four depression signs in soft tissue of dyspnea are

a)

A inspiratory soft tissue depression of the suprasternal fossa, the supraclavicular fossa, the upper abdomen and the intercostal space

b)

B inspiratory soft tissue depression of the infrasternal fossa, the supraclavicular fossa, the upper abdomen and the intercostal space

c)

C inspiratory soft tissue depression of the suprasternal fossa, the supraclavicular fossa, the infraclavicular fossa and the intercostal space

d)

D inspiratory soft tissue depression of the suprasternal fossa, the infrasternal fossa, the supraclavicular fossa and the intercostal space

e)

E inspiratory soft tissue depression of the suprasternal fossa, the supraclavicular fossa, infraclavicular fossa and intercostal space

65.

The patient, 19 years old, has the habit of digging ear. The otalgia was severe. When chewing or speaking, the pain was more severe. There was obvious tenderness of the tragus and auricle traction pain. Localized swelling and swelling could be seen in the cartilage of the external auditory meatus. The best diagnosis is

a)

A acute mastoiditis

b)

B acute suppurative otitis media

c)

C necrotizing otitis externa

d)

D furuncle of external auditory meatus

e)

E diffuse external otitis

66.

A 6-year-old boy suffered from fever, chills and anorexia 3 days ago. He said that he suffered from sore throat, pain in both ears and yellow ear leakage. No special treatment was given. Physical examination shows that there is no redness and swelling in the external auditory canal, and there is a lot of pus in the external auditory canal, which appears rapidly after being cleaned. The skin of mastoid is slightly swollen and flushed, and the tenderness of mastoid tip is obvious. The most likely diagnosis of this child is

a)

A acute suppurative otitis media, acute mastoiditis

b)

B chronic suppurative otitis media, acute mastoiditis

c)

C acute suppurative otitis media

d)

D chronic suppurative otitis media

e)

E furuncle of external auditory meatus

67.

The common pathogenic bacteria of chronic suppurative otitis media are

a)

A aureus

b)

B Pseudomonas aeruginosa

c)

C Proteus

d)

D Klebsiella

e)

E all of the above

68.

In the following theories of etiology of Meniere's disease, it is possible that

a)

A theory of endolymphatic dysfunction

b)

B theory of semicircular calculus

c)

C theory of crest calculus

d)

D theory of injury

e)

E theory of trace element deficiency

69.

The correct treatment of furuncle of external auditory meatus is

a)

A all should be cut to discharge pus

b)

B if the furuncle is large and has obvious fluctuation, it should not be cut and drained

c)

C the incision should be parallel to the longitudinal axis of the external auditory meatus

d)

D if it needs to be cut, the cut should be as deep as possible

e)

E it cannot be treated with microwave because microwave treatment will lead to the spread of inflammation

70.

The following that are not the main causes of sensorineural hearing loss is

a)

A noise deafness

b)

B ototoxic deafness

c)

C idiopathic sudden deafness

d)

D secretory otitis media

e)

E senile deafness