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Theory PRACTICE Midterm Exam

Total questions: 64

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

which pharmacy people work at the most?

a)

community pharmacy

b)

hospital pharmacy

c)

mail order pharmacy

d)

long-term care pharmacy

2.

Which of the following products or services does OBRA require pharmacists to offer to Medicare and Medicaid patients?

a)

package inserts

b)

counseling

c)

discounts

d)

home delivery

3.

What information must be provided to new patients when they pick up their first prescription at your pharmacy?

a)

store returns policy

b)

HIPAA privacy policy

c)

pharmacist in charge's name

d)

controlled substance restrictions

4.

Which of the following is exempt from the PPPA (poison prevention packaging act)?

a)

isosorbide dinitrate 20mg tablets

b)

anhydrous cholestyramine in powder form

c)

nitroglycerin SR capsules

d)

baby aspirin

5.

Which of the following conditions will not help prevent prescription errors?

a)

frequent interruptions

b)

uncluttered work space

c)

sufficient lighting

d)

reasonable length shifts

6.

What is the subscription on a prescription?

a)

any special instructions for the pharmacist

b)

name, strength and quantity of medication

c)

directions for use

d)

the “Rx” symbol

7.

A pharmacy technician receives a prescription from a patient. The patient needs all medications to be crushed, as he can’t swallow tablets whole. Which of the following medications would be a problem?

a)

oxycodone IR 5mg tablets

b)

Zofran 4mg ODT

c)

nitroglycerin 0.4mg SL tablets

d)

Depakote ER 500mg tablets

8.

A pharmacy receives the following prescription: Maxalt Melt ODT 5mg 1 tablet as needed for migraine headache. How should this medication be taken?

a)

subcutaneously

b)

under the tongue

c)

on the tongue

d)

swallowed whole

9.

What form is used to report theft or significant loss of controlled substances?

a)

DEA Form 41

b)

DEA Form 106

c)

DEA Form 222

d)

DEA Form 224

10.

It is common practice to request secondary identifiers from patients because doing so:

a)

is a requirement of most insurance companies

b)

is required by the FDA

c)

prevents dispensing the prescription to the wrong patient

d)

annoys some patients

11.

Pharmacy technicians often place auxiliary labels on prescription bottles. Which of the following would be appropriate for Amoxicillin suspension?

a)

take with food

b)

shake well before using

c)

may cause drowsiness

d)

take with plenty of water

12.

The most appropriate container size in ounces for dispensing 240mL of a liquid medication is:

a)

2

b)

4

c)

8

d)

16

13.

__________ is an electronic book that patients sign for prescriptions that they receive

a)

exempt narcotic log

b)

patient compliance form

c)

signature log

14.

A duty of pharmacy technicians is:

a)

ordering stock

b)

receiving pharmacy stock and putting it away

c)

keeping the pharmacy stock organized

d)

all of the above

15.

A prescription label will contain:

a)

the name of the patient

b)

the drug name and strength

c)

auxiliary labels, if applicable

d)

all of the above

16.

When filling a prescription for a patient for amoxicillin, the system alerts the technician about an allergy to penicillin. What should the pharmacy technician do?

a)

continue filling the prescription because it is for amoxicillin, not penicillin

b)

alert the pharmacist

c)

call the doctor to change the prescription

d)

give the prescription back to the patient

17.

An outpatient prescription requires which of the following?

a)

physician address and phone

b)

pharmacy address and phone

c)

medication lot and expiration date

d)

medication and lot expiration date

18.

Which of the following is not needed on a patient’s outpatient prescription?

a)

patient’s name

b)

patient’s ID number

c)

directions for use

d)

name of the medication

19.

Which of the following medications requires a patient package insert (PPI)?

a)

ACE Inhibitors

b)

birth control pills

c)

nitroglycerin tablets

d)

albuterol inhaler

20.

A physician writes a prescription for a non-controlled medication with PRN refills. How long is the prescription good for?

a)

1 year from the date the prescription was first filled

b)

2 years from the date written

c)

1 year from the date written

d)

6 months from the date the prescription was written

21.

What DAW code is assigned if the physician doesn’t indicate a preference for brand or generic?

a)

DAW 0

b)

DAW 1

c)

DAW 2

d)

DAW 6

22.

Knowing which of the following can best assist a technician in the prevention of data entry errors?

a)

names of medications

b)

insurance BIN numbers

c)

pharmacokinetics

d)

physicians practicing in the area

23.

Mail order pharmacies can’t be used for acute conditions because it takes a minimum of __________ for the medication to arrive

a)

24-48 hours

b)

3 weeks

c)

1 week

d)

2 weeks

24.

A consultant pharmacist must perform a drug regimen review for each nursing home patient:

a)

at least once monthly

b)

at least twice a month

c)

at least once every other month

d)

at least once a week

25.

Which member of the home care team compounds, labels bills and delivers medications?

a)

physician

b)

nurse

c)

pharmacist

d)

pharmacy technician

26.

Safe handling of radiopharmaceuticals is regulated by:

a)

NRC

b)

USP

c)

ASHIP

d)

ACHE

27.

The information contained in the manufacturer's package insert can also be found in the:

a)

Orange Book

b)

Merck Manual

c)

Physicians' Desk Reference

d)

The American Drug Index

28.

Which reference book is the official compendium of pharmaceutical products in the United States?

a)

Drug Facts and Comparisons

b)

USP-NF

c)

The Physicians Desk Reference

d)

Remington's Pharmaceutical Science

29.

Which pharmacy reference book contains drug costs?

a)

The Orange Book

b)

The Red Book

c)

The White Book

d)

The Blue Book

30.

If a physician writes a prescription for Coumadin and indicates 'brand name medically necessary' on the prescription, what DAW code should be used in submitting a prescription claim?

a)

DAW 0

b)

DAW 1

c)

DAW 2

d)

DAW 6

31.

Secondary identifiers include:

a)

hair and eye color

b)

weight and height

c)

address and date of birth

d)

mother's maiden name

32.

'Dispense as written' means:

a)

dispense only the brand name drug written on the prescription

b)

dispense a less expensive medication if available

c)

dispense only the generic equivalent of the brand name product

d)

pharmacist may choose their preferred brand

33.

All of the following duties may be performed by a pharmacy technician except:

a)

requesting information from a patient such as the date of birth, address, allergy and insurance information

b)

selecting an OTC product for a patient

c)

inputting and updating patient information in the computer

d)

placing the medication into a vial and attaching the prescription label to it

34.

Which of the following pharmacy abbreviations tells that a medication order is needed immediately?

a)

ASAP

b)

dtd

c)

NOW

d)

STAT

35.

Tall-Man Lettering is used to:

a)

better distinguish between two drugs with similar names

b)

ensure proper dosage form is selected

c)

provide larger print for those with poor eyesight

d)

prevent prescription forgeries

36.

For which of the following questions should a pharmacy technician refer the patient to the pharmacist?

a)

How many refills do I have left on this prescription?

b)

What should I do if I forget to take a dose of my prescription?

c)

How much would my prescription cost without insurance?

d)

Can you call me when my prescription is ready?

37.

Which of the following tasks may be performed by a pharmacy technician?

a)

checking and verifying finished prescriptions

b)

receiving verbal prescription over the phone from a designated person from a prescriber's office

c)

receiving a written prescription from a patient

d)

counseling a patient

38.

What is the maximum number of refills allowed on a prescription of lorazepam if authorized by a physician?

a)

zero

b)

one

c)

five

d)

unlimited

39.

Which of the following pieces of information is not required on a prescription label?

a)

directions for use

b)

name and address of the pharmacy

c)

name of the prescriber

d)

telephone number of the prescriber

40.

How many times may a prescription for a schedule C-III or C-IV medication be transferred between pharmacies that do not share an online database?

a)

5 times

b)

6 times

c)

once

d)

never

41.

What is the meaning of the abbreviation "qs ad"?

a)

a sufficient quantity for the left ear

b)

a sufficient quantity for the right ear

c)

a sufficient quantity to make up to

42.

How would a patient take a medication if the directions read "prn"?

a)

as directed

b)

rectally

c)

as needed

d)

by mouth

43.

Which federal law is associated with protecting patient privacy?

a)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

b)

Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA)

c)

Medicare Modernization Act (MMA)

d)

Privacy and Practice Act (PPA)

44.

Which of the following workplace issues may contribute to a prescription error?

a)

filling one prescription at a time

b)

medication labels that use multiple color and size fonts

c)

multitasking

d)

quiet work environment

45.

Which of the following is not a strategy to prevent medication errors?

a)

dispensing area should be properly designed to prevent errors

b)

the product inventory should be arranged to help differentiate medications from one another

c)

label should be read only twice

d)

whenever possible a second individual should perform and independent check

46.

According to MEDMARX, how many times should a pharmacist or technician read a prescription?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

depends on the expertise of the individual

47.

What is the purpose of quality assurance programs?

a)

document the causes of errors and implement programs to reduce them

b)

reduce the use of technicians in dispensing activities

c)

provide evidence for state disciplinary actions

d)

all of the above

48.

Which of the following organizations is responsible for post-marketing surveillance of vaccines?

a)

TJC

b)

MEDMARX

c)

MedWatch

d)

VAERS

49.

Which of the following medications is on ISMP's high-alert/high-risk medication list?

a)

Advair

b)

acetaminophen

c)

methotrexate

d)

polyethylene glycol

50.

According to NCC-MERP, what category of error occurs when a pharmacist catches an error while counseling a patient as the patient picks up his prescription?

a)

Category A - No Error

b)

Category B - Error, No Harm

c)

Category C - Error, No Harm

d)

Category D - Error, No Harm

51.

Which of the following programs is administered by the FDA, and allows health professionals and consumers to report adverse drug reactions?

a)

MEDMARX

b)

MedWatch

c)

MedImpact

d)

VAERS

52.

According to TJC, which of the following is least likely to lead to a wrong dose error?

a)

30.0mg

b)

30 mg

c)

30 U

d)

30 units

53.

Which entity is responsible for establishing requirements for reference materials in a pharmacy?

a)

BOP

b)

TJC

c)

FDA

d)

USP

54.

Which organization oversees Medicare and Medicaid?

a)

BOP

b)

CMS

c)

DEA

d)

TJC

55.

How many refills are allowed for a schedule C-III controlled substance?

a)

zero

b)

one

c)

five

d)

as many as prescribed by the physician

56.

Which drug law stated that all drugs must be pure, safe and effective before they can be marketed in the United States?

a)

1906 Pure Food and Drug Act

b)

1938 Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act

c)

1951 Durham-Humphrey Amendment

d)

1962 Kefauver-Harris Amendment

57.

Which of the following is false regarding technology and HITECH/HIPAA?

a)

patient confidentiality is maintained

b)

limits patient access

c)

CPOE compliments the technology

d)

portability is maintained

58.

What does the first set of numbers in a drug NDC number indicate?

a)

package size

b)

drug product

c)

manufacturer

d)

lot number

59.

The FDA reporting system for adverse effects that occur from the use of approved drugs is called:

a)

Class I Recall

b)

VAERS

c)

MedWatch

d)

MEDMARX

60.

Both domestic and imported drugs require approval by the/a ______ before they can be marketed in the United States.

a)

DEA

b)

US Marshall

c)

US Customs

d)

FDA

61.

Which class of drug recall occurs if the patient experiences a reversible side effect?

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

Class IV

62.

What is the maximum number of refills allowed for a Schedule C-IV drug?

a)

zero

b)

one

c)

five

d)

unlimited

63.

What are the maximum daily and monthly limits placed on pseudoephedrine containing products?

a)

1.2 grams/day and 5 grams/month

b)

2 grams/day and 6 grams/month

c)

2.8 grams/day and 7.5 grams/month

d)

3.6 grams/day and 9 grams/month

64.

How many refills are allowed on a C-II controlled substance?

a)

as many as prescribed

b)

zero

c)

five

d)

one