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SS Final Review

Total questions: 124

Worksheet time: 1hrs 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

This amendment abolished slavery

a)

13th Amendment

b)

14th Amendment

c)

15th Amendment

d)

19th Amendment

2.

This amendment gave African American men the right to vote

a)

13th Amendment

b)

14th Amendment

c)

15th Amendment

d)

19th Amendment

3.

This Freedmen's Bureau was created after the Civil War to...

a)

establish churches to provide aid in the Southern states.

b)

reunify the former Confederate States and to craft a plan to readmit them to the Union.

c)

establish schools and provide job training to former slaves in the South.

d)

abolish former Confederate governments and to punish former Confederate leaders.

4.

After the Civil War, southern states adopted Black Codes to -

a)

punish plantation owners for the use of slavery

b)

support Radical Reconstruction objectives in the South

c)

promote the activities of the Freedmen's Bureau

d)

limit the impact of the Thirteenth Amendment

5.

The election of Hiram Rhodes Revels in 1870 was significant because he was the first African American to -

a)

win an election as a member of the Democratic Party

b)

win a majority of the popular vote in Mississippi

c)

serve as a member of the U.S. Senate

d)

run for public office in the South

6.

"Black Codes was a name given to laws passed by southern governments established during the presidency of Andrew Johnson. These laws imposed severe restrictions on freedmen, such as prohibiting the right to vote, forbidding them to sit on juries, and limiting their right to testify against white men. They were also forbidden from carrying weapons and working in certain occupations."


Southern states passed the codes described in this excerpt in order to -

a)

limit the effects of the Reconstruction Amendments

b)

Increase the labor supply for factory jobs in the North

c)

decrease the number of northern representatives in Congress

d)

improve relations with the Democratic Party

7.

Poll Taxes

Literacy Tests

Grandfather Clauses


The measures in this list are examples of ways southern states weakened the effects of the -

a)

Compromise of 1850

b)

Fifteenth Amendment

c)

Treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo

d)

Dred Scott v. Sandford decision

8.

The Homestead Act attempted to promote development of western lands by

a)

creating a system of dams for crop migration

b)

removing all restrictions on immigration

c)

placing Native Americans on reservations

d)

providing free land to settlers

9.
What took land from Indian tribes and promoted assimilation?
a)
Homestead Act
b)
Morril Act
c)
Dawes Act
d)
Reconstruction Act
10.

This group opposed Lincoln's plan for reconstruction and felt the south should be punished.

a)

Democrats

b)

Radical Republicans

c)

Libertarians

d)

Socialists

11.
The U.S. wanted to get control over the Mississippi River and New Orleans.  Why did they want this area? 
a)
The river was in the U.S. 
b)
The port was used by Spain and they could get into the U.S. 
c)
The port and river were needed for trade in North America
d)
The U.S. did not want Native Americans to have it 
12.
Lewis and Clark had many goals that Jefferson gave them.  Which one was NOT accomplished? 
a)
Making peace with Natives 
b)
Locating the Northwest Passage 
c)
Gaining access to the Pacific 
d)
Scientific Exploration: plants and animals 
13.
Some people questioned Jefferson's role in the Louisiana Purchase.  Why? 
a)
Constitution did not state that he could buy land 
b)
Western land was opening the U.S. to threats 
c)
the land made the U.S. twice as big
d)
We were not allies with the French 
14.
Which was NOT a reason settlers moved west?
a)
fresh start 
b)
better life 
c)
land ownership 
d)
government forced them 
15.
Manifest Destiny was an idea that America should own all land east to west.  Which statement summarizes this idea? 
a)
Louisiana Purchase was the only part to this idea 
b)
U.S. peacefully got all land they wanted 
c)
People did not have the power to get new land 
d)
U.S. felt it was their right to buy, take, fight for, or compormise to get all the land they wanted 
16.

Who would consider Manifest Destiny (America's expansion) would be seen as positive by what TWO groups?

a)

Railroad companies

b)

Native Americans

c)

gold seekers

d)

Mexico

17.
The U.S. wanted to use the land out west.  What was the way the U.S. settled the issue with Native Americans living on the land out west?
a)
Treaties that were kept by both sides 
b)
Indian Removal Act 
c)
U.S. offered to pay full price for Indian lands 
d)
The U.S. offered the Natives a seat in Congress to help them decide what to do 
18.
Reservations were lands set aside for Native people.  Which statement was NOT  true about the reservations? 
a)
America cut funding to the reservations meaning shortage of food and supplies 
b)
Native Americans were left with no way of hunting 
c)
Native Americans were thankful for the land and the supplies and were peaceful in their new homes 
d)
Violence broke out on the reservations 
19.
Lewis and Clark's expedition proved which of the following was TRUE 
a)
Louisiana Purchase was worth the money because of all the plants and animals there 
b)
Louisiana Purchase was a waste of money 
c)
People cannot survive out west 
d)
they did not bring enough information back to make a judgement 
20.
Which idea would Mexico, Native Americans and Britain all have shared as a common impact of Manifest Destiny? 
a)
Large numbers of Natives are displaced 
b)
America gained control over the Mississippi and made negative trade impact 
c)
all land was lost to the US was done so by force or compromise 
d)
Britain and France were at war and made new enemies for the U.S.
21.

Which statement bests represents the United States’ view on land acquisition (getting land) in

the 1800’s?

a)

America’s attitude toward completing Manifest Destiny was to get all land they wanted through any means needed

b)

America was not willing to get into wars or battles attempting to gain land

c)

America thought that all nations had the right to keep the land they controlled

d)

America was ready to fight to ensure the Native Americans kept a fair share of the western land

22.

Define: Industrialization

a)
Industrialization is the decline of agricultural practices.
b)
Industrialization refers to the process of increasing rural populations.
c)
Industrialization is the transition from a service-based economy to a barter system.
d)

Industrialization is the process of making goods by machine, rather than by hand.

23.

Define: Urbanization

a)
Urbanization is the decline of cities and the movement of people to rural areas.
b)
Urbanization is the process of population shift from rural to urban areas, leading to the growth of cities.
c)
Urbanization refers to the increase in agricultural production in rural regions.
d)
Urbanization is the process of building more rural homes and farms.
24.

Which region of the US saw the rapid growth of industrialization?

a)
Northeast region
b)
Southwest region
c)
Southeast region
d)
Midwest region
25.

Why did industry grow in the North?

a)

The industry grew in the North due to access to resources, labor, and river systems.

b)
The industry grew in the North due to government regulations favoring agriculture.
c)
The industry grew in the North because of agricultural advancements.
d)
The industry grew in the North due to a lack of resources.
26.

Match the following terms to its definition.

a)

Natural Resources

1.

Materials used to meet certain needs

b)

Capital

2.

Money used to build and grow a business

c)

Labor Force

3.

People available to work

d)

Technology

4.

Scientific advancements

27.

What was the benefit of the factory system?

a)

Increased labor costs in production.

b)
Reduced quality of manufactured goods.
c)

Increased reliance on hand/manual labor.

d)

Efficiency and productivity in manufacturing goods.

28.

Why did factory owners prefer to hire women and children?

a)
They had more experience in factory work.
b)
They were preferred for their physical strength.
c)
They worked longer hours without breaks.
d)

They were cheaper to employ.

29.

Why did many people want to move to urban areas for work during the Industrial Revolution?

a)
Urban areas had better weather conditions for farming.
b)
Many people wanted to move to urban areas for work due to the availability of jobs in factories and industries.
c)
Urban areas offered more leisure activities than jobs.
d)
People moved to urban areas to escape rural life completely.
30.
Which best describes the living conditions of most immigrants during the Industrial Revolution? 
a)
Most immigrants lived in rural areas with few other people around
b)
Most immigrants lived in cities in extremely crowded buildings
c)
Most immigrants lived in single-family homes
d)
Most immigrants lived in homeless shelters year-round
31.
The transfer from the handy-craft system to machine technology and factories is called:
a)
Urbanization
b)
Revolution
c)
Industrialization
d)
Civilization
32.
How did the Industrial Revolution affect the cities?
a)
Made the crime rate decrease
b)
Led to an increase in farm workers
c)
Make the cities cleaner and safer
d)
Led to an increase in population in the cities
33.

During the mid-1800s the development of the factory system in the United States contributed to .....

a)

a decline in number of immigrants

b)

the rapid growth of cities

c)

decrease in standard of living

34.

What is the movement from rural to urban areas called?

a)

moving

b)

inflation

c)

urbanization

35.
 Which factor contributed to the shifting of population from rural to urban areas from 1870-1900?
a)
Not enough families took advantage of the Homestead Act
b)
Great Plains Indians left their reservations to buy new farmland
c)
Houses in cities were less expensive than those in the counttryside
d)
 Better jobs in industry attracted farmers and laborers to cities
36.

The growth of cities is called ________.

a)

Suburbanization

b)

Industrialization

c)

Urbanization

37.
How did the population of European immigrants in America change in the late 1800s and early 1900s. 
a)
Most immigrants came from northern and western Europe. 
b)
Most immigrants came from eastern and southern Europe. 
c)
The number of European immigrants decreased. 
d)
The number of Protestant immigrants decreased. 
38.
Economic opportunities, religious freedom, and political and social equality are all examples of...
a)
Push Factors
b)
Pull Factors
c)
Falling Factors
d)
Jump Factors
39.
War, poverty, and discrimination are all examples of.......
a)
Pull Factors
b)
Push Factors
c)
Jump Factors
d)
Falling Factors
40.

What industry was "The Jungle" about ?

a)

Meatpacking

b)

Toy factory

41.

What was the problems with the meatpacking industry ?

a)

The factories were not clean

b)

They were not making any money

42.

What was the era called when they tried to make factories better places to work in ?

a)

Progressive Era 1890-1920

b)

Reconstruction Era 1865 to 1877

43.
A "muckraker" is
a)
A journalist who exposed living conditions in the tenements and factories
b)
Someone who took bribes 
c)
someone who fought for women's rights
d)
a gardener
44.
Photographed conditions of the urban poor in “How the Other Half Lives.” Examined the conditions of the poor in America’s cities. 
a)
Upton Sinclair 
b)
Lincoln Steffens 
c)
Jacob Riis 
d)
Frank Norris 
45.

Where were most of the immigrants who came to America through Ellis Island from?

a)

China

b)

Africa

c)

Europe

d)

Mexico

46.

Immigrants from Asia entered through which immigration center?

a)

Elis Island

b)

Angel Island

47.
Which of the following is an example of a push factor?
a)
religious freedom
b)
a drought or famine
c)
 job opportunities
d)
a fair government
48.
Pull factors are....
a)
good things that draw a person to another country.
b)
reasons people leave an area
c)
reasons that drive a person out of their country
49.
How were the "new" immigrants who came to the U.S. in the late 1800s and early 1900s different from the "old" immigrants who came previously?
a)
The new immigrants were more widely accepted into American culture. 
b)
The new immigrants mainly settled in the southern states and became farmers. 
c)
Most of the new immigrants came from eastern and southern Europe. 
d)
Most of the new immigrants came for a short time to earn money.
50.

This foreign policy idea promotes staying out of world affairs.

a)

Imperialism

b)

Isolationism

c)

Globalism

d)

Communism

51.

This type of foreign policy encourages stronger nations to extend their influence over weaker ones.

a)

Imperialism

b)

Isolationism

c)

Globalism

d)

Communism

52.

Identify reasons for American Imperialism

a)

Economic Interests

b)

Military Interests

c)

Cultural Superiority

d)

Self Interests

53.

Why did Secretary of State William Seward buy the territory of Alaska?

a)

He saw England in North America as a strategic threat.

b)

He saw France in North America as a strategic threat.

c)

He saw Russia in North America as a strategic threat.

d)

He saw Germany in North America as a strategic threat.

54.

Why did America annex Hawaii in 1898?

a)

Beautiful beaches

b)

Sugar Cane plantations

c)

It's location in the Pacific Ocean

d)

Tourism benifits

55.

Why did the U.S. want to open trade with Japan in the 1850's?

a)

The U.S. wanted access to Japanese markets before European nations.

b)

The U.S. wanted to create naval bases in Asia.

c)

The U.S. wanted to create an alliance with Japan's govt.

d)

The U.S. wanted new raw materials.

56.

Which American Secretary of State promoted an 'open door ' policy with China?

a)

John Kennedy

b)

John Lennon

c)

John Wayne

d)

John Hay

57.

How did many Americans justify imperialism?

a)

We were spreading democracy

b)

We were spreading Christianity

c)

We were providing loans

d)

We were providing educational opportunities

58.

Why was the purchase of Alaska criticized at the time?

a)

It was too expensive.

b)

It was too far away.

c)

It was seen as worthless.

d)

It was seen as too cold.

59.

Why was the queen of Hawaii overthrown in 1893?

a)

She was not liked by her subjects

b)

She tried to limit the influence of foreigners

c)

She tried to make the monarch too powerful

d)

She tried to give better treatment to native Hawaiians

60.

These events lead the U.S. into war with Spain in 1898.

a)

America annexing Hawaii

b)

Spain annexing Puerto Rico

c)

Cuban people being placed into concentration camps

d)

The U.S.S. Maine sinking

61.

When capturing the Philippine Islands, American forces suffered how many casualties?

a)

0

b)

5

c)

10

d)

15

62.

Theodore Roosevelt commanded a cavalry unit in Cuba known as the

a)

Rough Rollers

b)

Rough Riders

c)

Rough Company

d)

Rough Racers

63.

These types of exaggerated news stories helped push the U.S. into war with Spain.

a)

Red Journalism

b)

Orange Journalism

c)

Yellow Journalism

d)

Green Journalism

64.

The Platt Amendment

a)

gave the U.S. the right to intervene in Puerto Rico's business at any time it wanted.

b)

gave the U.S. the right to intervene in the Philippine Island's business any time it wanted.

c)

gave the U.S. the right to intervene in Hawaii's business any time it wanted.

d)

gave the U.S. the right to intervene in Cuba's business any time it wanted.

65.

After the Spanish-American War, the U.S. annexed which former Spanish territories?

a)

Cuba

b)

Columbia

c)

Puerto Rico

d)

Philippine Islands

66.

This American organization was opposed to the U.S. becoming an empire.

a)

Anti-nationalist league

b)

Anti-immigration league

c)

Anti-imperialist league

d)

Anti-internationalist league

67.

America first attempted to buy land to build the Panama Canal from what country ?

a)

Cuba

b)

Columbia

c)

Croatia

d)

Cambodia

68.

How did America end up getting the land it needed to build the Panama Canal?

a)

We supported a revolution in Columbia.

b)

We supported a revolution in Cuba

c)

We supported a revolution in Croatia

d)

We supported a revolution in Cambodia

69.

The Jones Act

a)

gave Cubans U.S. citizenship

b)

gave Filipinos U.S. citizenship

c)

gave Columbians U.S. citizenship

d)

gave Puerto Ricans U.S. citizenship

70.

Why was the Armistice of Compiegne signed on November 11, 1918, after only three days of negotiation?

a)

Italy insisted that it would not remain in the war for much longer, and Germany would be left without its last ally.

b)

The Allies offered Germany very fair conditions, provided the war ended soon.

c)

Germany was defeated and had to accept any terms the Allies demanded.

d)

Bulgaria insisted that it would not remain in the war for much longer, and Germany would be left without its last ally.

71.

Which modern-day organization reflects the thesis of Wilson's ''Fourteen Points''?

a)

NASA

b)

The Red Cross

c)

The United Nations

d)

The Smithsonian Institution

72.

What treaty signed in 1919 officially ended World War I?

a)

The Treaty of Versailles

b)

Armistice of Compiègne

c)

The Treaty of Brest-Litovsk

d)

The Treaty of Berlin

73.

What international peace organization was developed immediately following World War I?

a)

NATO

b)

The League of Nations

c)

The Global Peace Initiative

d)

The United Nations

74.

Why did Article 231 (War Guilt Clause) of the Treaty of Versailles have a negative effect on the German economy?

a)

It established that Germany would have to pay reparations.

b)

It established a long-term trade blockade over Germany as punishment for starting World War I.

c)

It was known as the 'War Guilt Clause,' which diminished investor confidence in Germany.

d)

It meant the Allies were entitled to plunder the resources of defeated nations.

75.

What was true about the German Revolution of 1918-1919 and the Russian Revolution of 1917?

a)

They lead to the creation of states.

b)

They were direct consequences of World War I.

c)

Both these revolutions lead to economic growths.

d)

They were both Agricultural revolutions.

76.

The German Revolution of 1918-1919 led to the creation of the _____.

a)

Federal Republic of Germany

b)

The German Reich

c)

German Democratic Republic

d)

Weimar Republic

77.

What was the result of hyperinflation in Weimar Germany after the end of WWI?

a)

Slavery was instituted.

b)

German society stabilized and experienced no noticeable problems

c)

The reichsmark became virtually worthless.

d)

Adolf Hitler decided that it would be best to stick to painting.

78.

Which territory did Germany have to give away to France following its defeat in World War I?

a)

Prussia

b)

Upper Silesia

c)

Bavaria

d)

Alsace-Lorraine

79.

The social impact of World War I was NOT associated with _____.

a)

feminism

b)

a literary movement

c)

the 'spirit of modernism'

d)

a revival of aristocratic power and influence

80.

Which of the following nations was not a member of the "Big Four"?

a)

Italy

b)

France

c)

Russia

d)

Great Britain

81.

peace plan by President Wilson that called for the League of Nations

a)

stalemate

b)

Fourteen Points

c)

reparations

d)

armistice

82.

payments for war damages

a)

stalemate

b)

Fourteen Points

c)

reparations

d)

armistice

83.

agreement to stop fighting

a)

stalemate

b)

Fourteen Points

c)

reparations

d)

armistice

84.

Their resentment of the Treaty of Versailles would brew and grow for the next 20 years, leading to the rise of a ______________, who promised Germans a return to the German Empire’s greatness.

a)

Georges Clemenceau

b)

David Lloyd George

c)

Vittorio Orlando

d)

Adolf Hitler

85.

Which of these countries were Axis countries?

a)

Bulgaria

b)

Germany

c)

Ireland

d)

Italy

86.

Which of these countries were Allied countries?

a)

Canada

b)

France

c)

Japan

d)

India

87.

This neutral country is where the Pope lives. It is called the _______ ____

(a)  

88.

What does the word armistice mean?

a)

An agreement to go to war.

b)

An agreement to attack with tanks.

c)

An agreement to stop fighting.

d)

An agreement to carry on fighting.

89.

The name of the German airforce is (a)  

90.

What was the Red Army?

4 lines
91.

In what year was the Munich Agreement signed?

a)

1936

b)

1937

c)

1940

d)

1938

92.

Which country bombed the American fleet at Pearl Harbor?

(a)  

93.

When was D Day?

a)

6 June 1944

b)

6 June 1945

c)

5 June 1944

d)

7 June 1944

94.

In July 1940 the Luftwaffe started air attacks on Britain. It had 2,600 fighters and bombers. How many did the RAF have?

4 lines
95.
This is a policy of avoiding conflicts with other countries
a)
quota
b)
interventionist
c)
isolationist
d)
colonialism
96.
The movement of African Americans and others to the cities typically of the north was called
a)
Jim Crow
b)
affirmative action
c)
Great Migration
d)
Fundamentalism
97.
A numeric limit used to slow immigration in the 1920's.
a)
evolution
b)
fundamentalism
c)
quota
d)
isolationism
98.
Which of the following US Presidents died in office during the 1920's?
a)
Woodrow Wilson
b)
Warren Harding
c)
Calvin Coolidge
d)
Herbert Hoover
99.
This celebrity is known for flying non stop from New York to Paris.
a)
Amelia Earhart
b)
Babe Ruth
c)
Curly Lambeau
d)
Charles Lindbergh
100.
The KKK is known as a group promoting
a)
collaboration
b)
racism
c)
civil rights
d)
prohibition
101.
The "red scare" was a reaction to
a)
the end of WWI
b)
the communist victory in Russia
c)
the Republicans winning the Presidency
d)
The Kellogg-BriandPact
102.
flappers represented which theme of the 1920's?
a)
normalcy
b)
traditionalism
c)
change
d)
economic success
103.
One result of the installment plan concept.
a)
decrease in wages
b)
reduction in luxury purchases
c)
growth in consumer spending
d)
demand for lower tariffs
104.
The boom of the automobile in popularity led to 
a)
 decline in tourism
b)
new roads and bridges being built
c)
gasoline being rationed
d)
workers in the Ford plants receiving pay cuts
105.
One change for women in the 1920s...
a)
Women felt freer to be bolder in styles and manners
b)
Married women balanced career and family easily
c)
Many women had long hair and avoided makeup
d)
Women dominated leadership in businesses
106.
This led to a political scandal for President Harding
a)
restrictions on immigration
b)
selling of oil rights on federal property
c)
the federal response to the red scare
d)
Awarding a Medal of Honor to an aviator
107.
Which of the following countries was NOT limited with a quota for immigration?
a)
Italy
b)
Japan
c)
Mexico
d)
England
108.
What great threat did AG Palmer want to protect Americans from?
a)
Business trusts and monopolies
b)
political radicals like communists and socialists
c)
corruption and fraud in the banking industry
d)
labor unions causing unrest by striking
109.
The main reason for urban sprawl in the 1920s 
a)
the rise of the automobile
b)
widespread distribution of electricity
c)
growth of industry
d)
a change in birth rate
110.
Owners often accused striking workers of being
a)
capitalists
b)
communists
c)
bigots
d)
nativists
111.
The racial rioting across many cities in the US during the summer of 1919 is collectively called
a)
red dawn
b)
red scare
c)
red summer
d)
red tide
112.
Which of the following is not a direct result of the explosion in the number of automobiles?
a)
changes in American landscape
b)
changes is American architecture
c)
creation of new businesses
d)
changes in communication
113.
Which of the following is NOT considered a part of the mass media increase of the 1920s?
a)
the telegraph
b)
magazines
c)
radio broadcasts
d)
movies
114.
What does the Great Migration refer to?
a)
immigration from Asia to America
b)
people moving from rural areas to the cities
c)
African Americans returning to Africa
d)
African Americans heading north from the south
115.

What event is known as Black Tuesday?

a)

The day the New Deal was announced

b)

The day the Dust Bowl began

c)

The day the stock market crashed in 1929

d)

The day the Hawley-Smoot Tariff was passed

116.

What was the primary cause of the Dust Bowl?

a)

Overproduction of crops

b)

Severe drought and poor farming practices

c)

The New Deal policies

d)

The Hawley-Smoot Tariff

117.

What was the main goal of the New Deal?

a)

To increase tariffs on imported goods

b)

To provide immediate relief, recovery, and reform during the Great Depression

c)

To end the Dust Bowl

d)

To rebuild the stock market

118.

What was the Hawley-Smoot Tariff?

a)

A program to provide jobs during the Great Depression

b)

A law that raised U.S. tariffs on over 20,000 imported goods to record levels

c)

A relief program for farmers affected by the Dust Bowl

d)

A banking reform act

119.

What were Hoovervilles?

a)

New towns built under the New Deal

b)

Areas affected by the Dust Bowl

c)

Shantytowns built by homeless people during the Great Depression

d)

Banks that survived the Bank Holiday

120.

What was the Bank Holiday?

a)

A day to celebrate the end of the Great Depression

b)

A period when all banks were closed to prevent mass withdrawals

c)

A holiday introduced by the New Deal

d)

The day the stock market reopened after Black Tuesday

121.

What is Social Security?

a)

A tax on imported goods

b)

A program to help the elderly, unemployed, and disabled

c)

A law to protect bank deposits

d)

A relief effort for those affected by the Dust Bowl

122.

Which of the following was an effect of the Dust Bowl?

a)

Increased tariffs on imported goods

b)

Massive migration to California and other states

c)

The creation of Social Security

d)

The establishment of Hoovervilles

123.

How did the Hawley-Smoot Tariff impact the global economy during the Great Depression?

a)

It provided financial relief to struggling farmers.

b)

It led to an increase in global trade.

c)

It worsened the Great Depression by reducing international trade.

d)

It had no significant impact on the global economy.

124.

What was one of the purposes of the New Deal's Bank Holiday?

a)

To allow banks to adjust their interest rates

b)

To prevent a total collapse of the banking system by stopping mass withdrawals

c)

To celebrate the end of the Great Depression

d)

To introduce new currency

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