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CD Final Exam Review

Total questions: 46

Worksheet time: 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Jack has a 2 year graduate degree and helps children who have large and small motor impairments or challenges. What child development related career is this?

a)

Child care consultant

b)

Genetic counselor

c)

Physical therapist

d)

Teacher

2.

Which is an example of work in the field of child development that requires only a 4 year bachelor's degree?

a)

Becoming a nurse aid and working in a children's ward

b)

Being a cook for a large childrens camp

c)

Being a dental hygienist who teaches children how to brush their teeth

d)

Teaching children in elementary school

3.

Stephanie wants to work in the field of child development and become a child psychiatrist. This degree requires a/an:

a)

Bachelor's degree

b)

Graduate/Master’s degree and above

c)

Associates degree

d)

Technical training certificate

4.

Which is an example of entry-level work in the field of child development?

a)

Becoming a child psychologist to enjoy helping children with problems

b)

Cleaning children’s teeth and teaching them good dental hygiene

c)

Specializing in helping children with their unique dietary needs

d)

Working as a nanny in Mrs. Jones home caring for her two children

5.

Daniel has a medical degree from a well respected university and works with patients from infancy through age eighteen. Which child development-related career is this?

a)

Pediatrician

b)

Play therapist

c)

Special education teacher

d)

Teacher assistant

6.

Which type of degree will allow you to join the workforce sooner:

a)

Graduate Diploma

b)

High School Diploma

c)

Associate degree

d)

Bachelor’s degree

7.

A career as a Pediatrician (childrens doctor) requires what type of degree?

a)

Associates

b)

Bachelors

c)

Masters

d)

Doctorate: Doctor of Philosophy (PhD)

8.

Which organization does FCCLA represent?

a)

Family, Career, and Community Leaders of America

b)

Future Careers and Community Leaders of America

c)

Families Caring for Communities and Leaders of America

d)

Future Consumers and Career Leaders of America

9.

What is the mission of FCCLA?

a)

To provide leadership training in sports and athletics

b)

To promote personal growth and leadership development to develop real world skills, become college- and career-ready, and make a difference in families, careers, and communities

c)

To focus on environmental activism and sustainability

d)

To teach entrepreneurship and business strategies

10.

Maya learns how to manage her time, communicate effectively, and solve problems in her daily life. What type of skills is Maya developing?

a)

Real life skills required to play virtual video games

b)

Real life skills that help students perform well in standardized tests

c)

Real life skills that help people navigate the world and deal with everyday challenges

d)

Real life skills learned only in college that help people succeed in a career

11.

Examples of durable employability skills in the field of child development careers include:

a)

Time, Money, Friends

b)

Connections in the industry

c)

Critical Thinking, Collaboration/Teamwork, Communication

d)

Pride, Joy, Happiness

12.

Jamie faced unexpected challenges at work but adjusted their approach based on team feedback and found new solutions. What does this behavior demonstrate?

a)

Relying solely on personal opinion

b)

Adaptability by accepting feedback and learning from setbacks

c)

Ignoring criticism to maintain confidence

d)

Sticking to a rigid plan regardless of circumstances

13.

Cheyenne learned many valuable skills in her CTE classes that she can take with her once she graduates. She found out that there were local companies that would help train her based on what she learned in high school. What type of work-based learning is this?

a)

Summer job

b)

Apprenticeship

c)

Internship

d)

Jobshadowing

14.

Sarah’s Early Childhood Education I class required her to go into childcare centers during her class time to assist the teachers and learn what it is like to work in a childcare setting. What type of work-based learning is this?

a)

Internship

b)

Job Shadow

c)

Pre-Apprenticeship

d)

Apprenticeship

15.

The developing baby is called a(n) (a)   during weeks 3-8 of pregnancy.

16.

During which stage of the pregnancy does morning sickness occur and does the mother have little weight gain, only 2-4 pounds?

a)

First trimester

b)

Second trimester

c)

Third Trimester

d)

Second Semester

17.

During which week of pregnancy can the fetal heartbeat first be heard by an ultrasound?

a)

12-14 weeks

b)

18-19 weeks

c)

20-22 weeks

d)

30-31 weeks

18.

Which foods should pregnant women avoid?

a)

Cold cuts, raw seafood, soft cheeses

b)

Chocolate

c)

Whole grains, low mercury fish, healthy fats

d)

Fruits, whole grains, dairy, vegetables

19.

Kelly had high blood pressure during pregnancy. This could be caused by

a)

Preterm labor

b)

Trimester

c)

Placenta previa

d)

Preeclampsia

20.

All pregnant women should be tested for this potential complication during pregnancy between 24-28 weeks, to check her glucose levels in her blood.

a)

Preeclampsia

b)

Fetal monitor

c)

Infection

d)

Gestational diabetes

21.

Tobacco use during pregnancy is linked to:

a)

Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder (FASD)

b)

A healthy pregnancy

c)

Low birth weight and prematurity

d)

Heart disease and gestational diabetes

22.

Prematurity and infant death can be related to:

a)

A mother having an STD/STI

b)

A mother taking illegal drugs during pregnancy

c)

A mother getting adequate prenatal care

d)

A mother meeting with a genetic counselor

23.

Slow physical growth, facial abnormalities, and brain injury are all ways the fetus is influenced by:

a)

Tay Sachs Disease

b)

Inheriting an extra chromosome

c)

Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder

d)

Inherited diseases

24.

When does a baby have sickle cell anemia?

a)

When he/she is born with 21 chromosomes

b)

When he/she receives a defective dominant gene from the mother

c)

When he/she receives a defective recessive genes from both parents

d)

When his/her brain is injured before or during birth

25.

(a)   is caused by inheriting an extra copy of chromosome 21:

26.

Some advantages of a home birth are

a)

If there is an emergency you have an obstetrician to deliver the baby at home

b)

A midwife and a doula can assist in an emergency delivery

c)

More comfortable atmosphere and more friends/family allowed at the birth

d)

You can schedule a c-section at your house.

27.

Some advantages of a birthing center are:

a)

Birthing centers can provide pain medicine like an epidural

b)

A mother is able to move around during labor and is in a more home-like atmosphere with a midwife to deliver the baby

c)

An obstetrician can deliver the baby at a birthing center

d)

Birthing centers have a midwife to perform a c-section in case of an emergency.

28.

A woman’s water breaking or amniotic sac rupturing could mean:

a)

The baby is in distress

b)

The mother is in labor

c)

The placenta should be delivered

d)

The second stage of labor has started

29.

Active labor can be described as:

a)

Baby is delivered

b)

Placenta is delivered

c)

Contractions coming closer together and full dilation of 10 cm.

d)

Effacement

30.

The APGAR test is done:

a)

Before birth

b)

At one minute and then again at 5 minutes after birth

c)

During a prenatal check up

d)

At home

31.

Kelly’s baby was facing feet first. The doctor tried to turn the baby into a head down position for delivery but the baby wouldn’t move. Kelly’s baby will probably be delivered:

a)

By a midwife in a birthing center

b)

By a midwife in a water birth

c)

By an obstetrician performing a Cesarean Section (c-section)

d)

Feet first

32.

Kya’s financial worries about paying for childcare is an example of which postpartum need?

a)

Prenatal Care

b)

Internal Care

c)

Mental Care

d)

External Care

33.

Emily’s doctor said she could return to work and her regular activities at her 8 week postpartum check up. A doctor’s visit is an example of:

a)

External Care

b)

Prenatal Care

c)

Internal Care

d)

Mental Care

34.

Daniela was diagnosed with postpartum depression and needed medication and therapy. This is an example of which postpartum need?

a)

Internal Care

b)

External Care

c)

Prenatal Care

d)

Mental Care

35.

Ray began lifting his head around two months old and would follow his mom across the room. Then, Ray was able to push himself up on his arms to look at his toy. Then, he was able to push himself back on to his knees to interact with his dog. This is an example of which process?

a)

Proximodistal

b)

Cephalocaudal

c)

Fine Motor Skills

d)

SIDS

36.

Three-month-old Taylor can grasp objects that are handed to them and make fists, but they lack the ability to point at objects or even reach for objects on their own. This is because Taylor is still working on which process?

a)

Proximodistal

b)

Cephalocaudal

c)

Gross Motor Skills

d)

SIDS

37.

Which of the following constitutes a safe sleeping environment for an infant:

a)

A firm fitting mattress in a safety approved crib along with a positioner wedge to help with reflux, and no stuffed animals

b)

A firm mattress in a safety approved portable crib with one blanket and a small pillow

c)

A soft sleep surface, such as an adult bed

d)

A firm and flat mattress in a safety approved crib, free of loose bedding, and stuffed toys

38.

Babies typically say their first words around:

a)

3-6 months

b)

6-8 months

c)

10-12 months

d)

18-24 months

39.

Which of the following best describes Braxton Hicks contractions?

a)

Strong, regular contractions signaling labor

b)

Painful contractions requiring immediate hospital visit

c)

Irregular, mild contractions that prepare the uterus for labor

d)

Contractions that only occur after delivery

40.

What is the purpose of a glucose screening during pregnancy?

a)

To check the baby’s heart rate

b)

To test the mother for gestational diabetes

c)

To assess fetal lung maturity

d)

To determine the baby’s genetic traits

41.

A Doppler ultrasound is primarily used to:

a)

Measure the baby’s length

b)

Listen to the fetal heartbeat

c)

Determine the baby’s gender

d)

Check the placenta’s position

42.

Genetic counseling is typically offered to:

a)

All pregnant women automatically

b)

Individuals or couples at risk for inherited conditions

c)

Only after the baby is born

d)

People with no family medical history

43.

Listeriosis in pregnancy is caused by:

a)

A virus transmitted sexually

b)

High blood sugar levels

c)

A bacterial infection from contaminated food

d)

Genetic abnormalities

44.

Gestational diabetes is:

a)

Diabetes a woman has before pregnancy

b)

Diabetes that develops during pregnancy

c)

Diabetes in the newborn

d)
  1. A type of diabetes unrelated to pregnancy

45.

An epidural is:

a)

A surgical procedure to deliver the baby

b)

A type of prenatal vitamin

c)

A pain relief method involving medication injected near the spinal cord

d)

A type of fetal monitoring

46.

Which statement best describes the difference between FMLA and maternity leave in North Carolina?

a)

FMLA provides 12 weeks of paid leave, while North Carolina offers 8 weeks of unpaid leave for all employee

b)

FMLA and North Carolina both provide 12 weeks of paid leave for eligible employees.

c)

FMLA offers up to 12 weeks of unpaid, job-protected leave for eligible employees nationwide, while North Carolina provides 8 weeks of paid parental leave only to eligible state employees

d)

FMLA is a state law applicable only in North Carolina, providing 12 weeks of paid leave.