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Bio Multiple - Cell Membrane

Total questions: 103

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What part of the phospholipid is hydrophilic?

a)

Fatty acid tails

b)

Phosphate head

c)

Lipid bilayer

d)

Protein channel

2.

Which part of the phospholipid repels water?

a)

Phosphate group

b)

Polar head

c)

Nonpolar tail

d)

Channel protein

3.

Why is polarity important in the cell membrane?

a)

It prevents diffusion

b)

It allows selective permeability

c)

It makes the membrane rigid

d)

It breaks down solutes

4.

What is diffusion?

a)

Movement of water through a membrane

b)

Active transport using ATP

c)

Movement of molecules from high to low concentration

d)

Movement of molecules from low to high concentration

5.

Osmosis refers specifically to the movement of:

a)

Proteins

b)

Water

c)

Ions

d)

Lipids

6.

What is the difference between active and passive transport?

a)

Active uses proteins; passive doesn’t

b)

Passive uses ATP; active doesn’t

c)

Active requires energy; passive doesn’t

d)

There is no difference

7.

Which of the following is an example of passive transport?

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Sodium-potassium pump

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

Exocytosis

8.

Which molecule can diffuse freely across the cell membrane without a protein channel?

(a)  

9.

What is required for glucose to enter a cell?

a)

A) A pump

b)

B) ATP

c)

C) Facilitated diffusion through a protein

d)

D) Diffusion through the lipid bilayer

10.

Aquaporins are specialized for the transport of:

a)

Sugars

b)

Oxygen

c)

Water

d)

Ions

11.

Why can’t any molecule travel through aquaporins?

a)

They are gated

b)

They are nonpolar

c)

They are size- and polarity-specific

d)

They are only present in plants

12.

What do identification proteins do?

a)

Transport molecules

b)

Mark cells as "self"

c)

Open and close channels

d)

Break down toxins

13.

In a hypertonic solution, what happens to a cell?

a)

It swells

b)

It shrinks

c)

It bursts

d)

Nothing changes

14.

A cell has 80% water and 20% salt. It is placed in a solution with 85% salt. What type of solution is this?

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Hypertonic

d)

Neutral

15.

Why do cells divide?

a)

To decrease surface area

b)

To prevent reproduction

c)

For growth and repair

d)

To avoid photosynthesis

16.

What is the main function of a cell's DNA?

a)

Store energy

b)

Provide nutrients

c)

Carry genetic instructions

d)

Create ATP

17.

During which phase does a cell spend most of its life?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Interphase

18.

Which of the following is NOT part of the cell cycle?

a)

M phase

b)

G1 phase

c)

G3 phase

d)

S phase

19.

What happens during interphase?

a)

Chromosomes line up

b)

DNA is replicated

c)

Chromosomes separate

d)

The cell splits in two

20.

What are chromosomes made of?

a)

Lipids and proteins

b)

RNA and sugars

c)

DNA and proteins

d)

Carbohydrates and DNA

21.

Which structure connects sister chromatids?

a)

A) Centriole

b)

B) Spindle fiber

c)

C) Centromere

d)

D) Nucleolus

22.

What best describes prophase?

a)

Chromosomes are pulled apart

b)

DNA replicates

c)

Chromosomes condense and spindle forms

d)

Cell pinches in two

23.

What happens during metaphase?

a)

Chromosomes uncoil

b)

Chromosomes line up at the center

c)

Chromatids separate

d)

Nuclear membrane reforms

24.

In plant cells, cytokinesis involves:

a)

Pinching of the cell membrane

b)

Formation of a cleavage furrow

c)

Formation of a cell plate

d)

Breaking of the cell wall

25.

Which of the following terms describes a cancer that spreads to other parts of the body?

a)

Benign

b)

Malignant

c)

Apoptotic

d)

Latent

26.

Which of the following increases your risk of cancer?

a)

Regular exercise

b)

UV radiation

c)

Drinking water

d)

Healthy diet

27.

What is the role of tumor suppressor genes?

a)

Speed up cell division

b)

Prevent mutations

c)

Detect viruses

d)

Slow or stop cell division

28.

How many chromosomes are found in human cells after S phase?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

92

d)

44

29.

How many main divisions occur during meiosis?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

30.

What is the final product of meiosis?

a)

2 diploid cells

b)

4 diploid cells

31.

Are the cells produced by meiosis genetically identical?

a)

Yes, they are clones

b)

No, they are genetically unique

c)

They are identical to the parent

d)

They are identical in pairs

32.

During which stage do homologous chromosomes line up in the middle?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Anaphase II

33.

When do sister chromatids separate in meiosis?

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Telophase I

34.

When does crossing over occur?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Telophase II

d)

Anaphase I

35.

What is the purpose of crossing over?

a)

To reduce chromosome number

b)

To duplicate DNA

c)

To increase genetic variation

d)

To make identical cells

36.

What forms during prophase I?

a)

Sister chromatids

b)

Spindle fibers and tetrads

c)

Cell plates

d)

Cleavage furrows

37.

What is a tetrad?

a)

Four chromatids lined up

b)

Four cells created in meiosis

c)

A type of chromosome mutation

d)

A phase in mitosis

38.

Meiosis increases genetic diversity through:

a)

Binary fission

b)

Crossing over and independent assortment

39.

Which of the following happens only in meiosis, not mitosis?

a)

DNA replication

b)

Chromosome alignment

c)

Tetrad formation

d)

Cytokinesis

40.

Which cells undergo meiosis in humans?

a)

Skin cells

b)

Muscle cells

c)

Gametes (sperm and egg)

d)

Liver cells

41.

What is the chromosome number in human sperm cells?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

92

d)

44

42.

What happens at the end of meiosis II?

a)

Two identical cells are formed

b)

DNA is duplicated

c)

Four unique haploid cells are formed

d)

Crossing over occurs

43.

How does meiosis contribute to evolution?

a)

By producing exact copies of cells

b)

By increasing mutation rates

c)

By increasing genetic variation

d)

By reducing genetic diversity

44.

What is a dominant allele?

a)

An allele that is always recessive

b)

An allele that is only expressed when paired with another dominant

c)

An allele that is expressed when at least one copy is present

d)

An allele that causes mutations

45.

What is the definition of a genotype?

a)

Physical traits

b)

A pair of identical alleles

46.

Which of the following shows a heterozygous genotype?

a)

AA

b)

aa

c)

Aa

d)

A

47.

A phenotype refers to:

a)

The genetic code

b)

The environment's effect on DNA

c)

The physical appearance of a trait

d)

The DNA sequence only

48.

What is a Punnett square used for?

a)

Determining cell cycle stages

b)

Predicting genetic cross outcomes

c)

Cloning DNA

d)

Determining blood type

49.

A frog with genotype SS and GG is crossed with ss and gg. What is the genotype of the offspring?

a)

SS GG

b)

Ss Gg

c)

ss gg

d)

Ss gg

50.

What type of dominance shows both traits equally (like AB blood)?

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Recessive inheritance

d)

Blended dominance

51.

In incomplete dominance, the result is:

a)

Only the dominant allele is seen

b)

A blend of the two alleles

c)

Only the recessive trait is seen

d)

Both traits are equally visible

52.

What term refers to different forms of the same gene?

a)

Alleles

b)

Genotypes

c)

Phenotypes

d)

Chromatids

53.

What does it mean if an individual is homozygous?

a)

They have one dominant and one recessive allele

b)

They carry identical alleles

c)

They have two different alleles

d)

They have no alleles

54.

What are polygenic traits?

a)

Traits with one gene

b)

Traits controlled by multiple genes

c)

Traits inherited from only one parent

d)

Traits caused by mutations

55.

What are pedigrees used for?

a)

Showing phases of mitosis

b)

Mapping DNA

c)

Tracing inheritance through generations

d)

Cloning genes

56.

Gregor Mendel worked with:

a)

Fruit flies

b)

Mice

c)

Pea plants

d)

Humans

57.

A carrier of a sex-linked trait is usually:

a)

A male with two X chromosomes

b)

A female with one affected X chromosome

c)

A male with an affected Y chromosome

d)

Any individual with a dominant trait

58.

What is the shape of a DNA molecule?

a)

Triple helix

b)

Single strand

c)

Double helix

d)

Ladder-like flat ribbon

59.

What are the three parts of a DNA nucleotide?

a)

Phosphate, sugar, lipid

b)

Phosphate, nitrogen base, deoxyribose sugar

c)

Ribose, base, lipid

d)

Hydrogen, carbon, oxygen

60.

Which bases pair together in DNA?

a)

A) A–G, C–T

b)

B) A–C, G–T

61.

What does Chargaff’s rule state?

a)

DNA is made of amino acids

b)

DNA has equal amounts of A and T, and C and G

c)

DNA contains uracil

d)

RNA has more bases than DNA

62.

What holds the nitrogen bases together in the DNA molecule?

a)

Covalent bonds

b)

Ionic bonds

c)

Peptide bonds

d)

Hydrogen bonds

63.

What kind of bond connects the sugar and phosphate in DNA?

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Peptide

64.

Which of the following is a purine?

a)

Cytosine

b)

Uracil

c)

Thymine

d)

Adenine

65.

Which of the following is a pyrimidine?

a)

Guanine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Adenine

d)

Histidine

66.

During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

a)

M phase

b)

G1 phase

c)

G2 phase

d)

S phase

67.

What enzyme unwinds DNA during replication?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Ligase

d)

RNA polymerase

68.

What enzyme adds new bases to a growing DNA strand?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

69.

Which protein keeps the DNA strands separated during replication?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Ligase

c)

Single-stranded binding proteins

d)

Ribosomes

70.

What is the complementary DNA strand for ATGTACCTTA?

a)

TACATGGATT

b)

TACAGUGAAU

c)

TACAATGGAT

d)

TACATGGAAT

71.

Which team was NOT involved in the race to discover DNA’s structure?

a)

Watson and Crick

b)

Avery and MacLeod

c)

Franklin and Wilkins

d)

Pauling’s lab

72.

What is the purpose of protein synthesis?

a)

To break down sugars

b)

To build proteins from DNA instructions

c)

To replicate DNA

d)

To repair damaged cells

73.

Where does transcription take place?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

74.

What is the product of transcription?

a)

DNA

b)

tRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

Protein

75.

Where does translation occur?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Golgi body

76.

What is the role of mRNA?

a)

Carries amino acids

b)

Forms ribosomes

c)

Brings DNA into the cytoplasm

d)

Carries the genetic code from DNA to ribosome

77.

What does tRNA do during translation?

a)

Builds DNA

b)

Translates codons into amino acids

c)

Forms hydrogen bonds

d)

Destroys incorrect proteins

78.

What is the function of rRNA?

a)

Cuts up RNA

b)

Delivers amino acids

c)

Builds ribosomes

d)

Translates mRNA

79.

Which of the following pairs a codon with its anticodon?

a)

DNA with DNA

b)

mRNA with tRNA

c)

rRNA with tRNA

d)

Ribosome with DNA

80.

What amino acid does the DNA sequence AAA code for?

a)

Phenylalanine

b)

Lysine

c)

Asparagine

d)

Glycine

81.

What is a codon?

a)

A three-letter sequence in DNA

b)

A three-base sequence in mRNA

c)

A ribosomal protein

d)

An amino acid chain

82.

What is the start codon?

a)

UAA

b)

AUG

c)

UGA

d)

AAG

83.

What is formed at the end of translation?

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

84.

What is the tRNA anticodon for the mRNA codon UUC?

a)

UUC

b)

AAG

c)

AAC

d)

UUG

85.

What type of bond links amino acids in a protein?

a)

Ionic bond

b)

Hydrogen bond

c)

Peptide bond

d)

Covalent bond

86.

What is genetic engineering?

a)

Breeding only pure animals

b)

Editing DNA to change an organism

c)

Mixing different blood types

d)

Creating identical twins

87.

What tool is used to cut DNA at specific locations?

a)

Polymerase

b)

Ligase

c)

Restriction enzyme

d)

Helicase

88.

What is the function of gel electrophoresis?

a)

Replicates DNA

b)

Separates DNA fragments by size

c)

Injects DNA into cells

d)

Creates mutations

89.

What is recombinant DNA?

a)

DNA from one species

b)

DNA that codes for RNA

c)

DNA combined from two organisms

d)

DNA with no genetic variation

90.

What is a plasmid?

4 lines
91.

What is CRISPR used for?

a)

Copying RNA

b)

Editing genes

c)

Staining cells

d)

Destroying proteins

92.

What is the purpose of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?

a)

To combine two cells

b)

To visualize proteins

c)

To amplify DNA

d)

To make RNA

93.

What organism is often used in genetic engineering to produce insulin?

a)

Yeast

b)

Mice

c)

E. coli

d)

Viruses

94.

What is gene therapy?

a)

Making new DNA

b)

Inserting genes to fix genetic disorders

c)

Curing disease with antibiotics

d)

Creating hybrid animals

95.

What are genetically modified organisms (GMOs)?

a)

Organisms made from viruses

b)

Organisms with artificially altered genes

c)

Organisms with only recessive traits

d)

Organisms that live in labs

96.

Why is DNA fingerprinting useful?

a)

For growing crops

b)

For solving crimes and identifying people

c)

For making insulin

d)

For detecting viruses

97.

Which step is NOT part of cloning an organism?

a)

Donating a somatic cell

b)

Donating an egg cell

c)

Fertilizing with sperm

d)

Inserting the embryo into a surrogate

98.

What is a transgenic organism?

a)

An organism with an extra chromosome

b)

An organism with genes from another species

c)

An organism with a mutation

d)

An organism that cannot reproduce

99.

Which of these is a concern about genetic engineering?

a)

Increased biodiversity

b)

Greater crop yield

c)

Ethical and safety risks

d)

More reliable inheritance

100.

What role does ligase play in DNA technology?

a)

Cuts DNA at restriction sites

b)

Adds RNA primers

c)

Seals DNA fragments together

d)

Denatures proteins

101.

During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?

a)

G2 phase

b)

S phase

c)

M phase

d)

G1 phase

102.

What is the main function of spindle fibers during cell division?

a)

To replicate DNA

b)

To form the nuclear membrane

c)

To produce energy

d)

To separate chromosomes

103.

Which process increases genetic diversity during meiosis?

a)

Crossing over

b)

DNA replication

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Chromosome condensation

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