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ASRB 2

Total questions: 140

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which pattern of population dispersion is observed the most frequently in insects?

a)

Clumped

b)

Random

c)

Uniform

d)

None of these

2.

Which is/are density-dependent factors affecting insect population?

a)

Spatial restrictions

b)

Host-parasite reactions

c)

Food restrictions

d)

All of these

3.

Non hexapod blood feeding arthropod is_____

a)

Mosquitoes

b)

Bed bugs

c)

Ticks

d)

Fleas

4.

Communication chemicals that benefits the receiver but disadvantage the producer are known as______

a)

Kairomones

b)

Allomones

c)

Synomones

d)

Apneumones

5.

Degree days or degree hours are the number of days/hours multiplied by the number of ___________ above a threshold temperature.

a)

Weeks

b)

Degrees

c)

Days

d)

hours

6.

They are most active between dawn and dusk.

a)

Crepuscular insects

b)

Diurnal insects

c)

Nocturnal insects

d)

All of these

7.

They are most active during dusk.

a)

Crepuscular insects

b)

Diurnal insects

c)

Nocturnal insects

d)

All of these

8.

Nocturnal insects are most active__________

a)

Between dawn and dusk.

b)

During dusk

c)

During day

d)

Between dusk and dawn.

9.

Insects feeds on the woods would be classified as:

a)

Xylophages

b)

Caprophages

c)

Herbivores

d)

Carnivores

10.

From the following which is/are give the adaptive advantages to the producing organisms?

a)

Repellents

b)

Suppressents

c)

Deterrents

d)

All of these

11.

From the following which is/are give the adaptive advantages to the receiving organisms?

a)

Attractants

b)

Arrestants

c)

Feeding stimulants

d)

All of these

12.

Sometimes immature insects mature precociously and are able to reproduce, this phenomenon is known as ______.

a)

Paedogenesis

b)

Polyembryony

c)

Viviparity

d)

None of these

13.

In which order(s) parthenogenesis types of reproduction is not recorded?

a)

Odonata

b)

Siphonaptera

c)

Dermeptera

d)

All of these

14.

In which order(s) parthenogenesis types of reproduction is recorded?

a)

Odonata

b)

Siphonaptera

c)

Dermeptera

d)

Hemiptera

15.

In which type of reproduction only males are produced?

a)

Thelytoky

b)

Amphitoky

c)

Arrhenotoky

d)

Paedogenesis

16.

In which type of reproduction only females are produced?

a)

Thelytokya

b)

Amphitoky

c)

Arrhenotoky

d)

Paedogenesis

17.

In which type of reproduction individuals of both sexes may be produced?

a)

Thelytoky

b)

Amphitoky

c)

Arrhenotoky

d)

Paedogenesis

18.

The separation of the old cuticle from the new during moulting is known as _________.

a)

Apolysis

b)

Ecdysis

c)

Apophysis

d)

Apomixis

19.

It is a male reproductive organ.

a)

Aedeagus

b)

Vagina

c)

Spermatosis

d)

Spermatheca

20.

In which insect(s), male is eaten by the female after mating?

a)

Katydids

b)

Mantids

c)

Ladybird beetle

d)

Both a and b

21.

Mechanisms that allow insect to survive periods of often extreme cold.

a)

Cryptoprotection

b)

Chill tolerance

c)

Aestivation

d)

Hibernation

22.

Which pair is /are correct?

a)

Cockroach : Aggregation pheromone

b)

Ants : Trail-marking pheromone

c)

Honey bees : Alarm pheromone

d)

All of these

23.

Which is/are reason(s) for insect pest outbreaks?

a)

Monoculture and varietal susceptibility

b)

Pest invasion

c)

Killing of natural enemies and resistance to pesticide in pest

d)

All of these

24.

The study of individual organisms or species in relation to their habitat is known as _______

a)

Autecology

b)

Synecology

c)

Demecology

d)

None of these

25.

Which density-dependent factor restricting increase of insect population?

a)

Quantity of food

b)

Quality of food

c)

Climate

d)

Soil type

26.

A type of thiourea derivatives that acts as acaricide/insecticide through potent inhibitor of mitochondria ATP synthesis.

a)

Clothianidin

b)

Difenthiuron

c)

Avermectins

d)

Chlorfenapyr

27.

Which compound (s) is/are chitin synthesis inhibitor (s)?

a)

Novaluron

b)

Buprofezin

c)

Lufenuron

d)

All a, b, & c

28.

A type of resistance in which resistant insects may absorb the toxin slower than susceptible insects due to development of barriers against products.

a)

Penetratio resistance

b)

Behavioural resistance

c)

Metabbolic resistance

d)

Altered target site resistance

29.

Which insecticide act as a potent blocker of the GABA regulated chloride channel in neurons?

a)

Fipronil

b)

Etophenprox

c)

Tefluthrin

d)

Fenvalerate

30.

Who discovered insecticidal property of DDT?

a)

Gerhard Schrader

b)

Paul Muller

c)

Geigy

d)

Othnar Zeidler

31.

The carbamates was first invented by____

a)

Gerhard Schrader

b)

Paul Muller

c)

Geigy

d)

Riemschneider

32.

Who discovered the DDT molecule?

a)

Paul Muller

b)

Riemschneider

c)

Othnar Zeidler

d)

Geigy

33.

Who discovered the parathion from Germany during 1944?

a)

Gerhard Schrader

b)

Paul Muller

c)

Geigy

d)

Othnar Zeidler

34.

Which insecticides have been reported to cause resurgence of whiteflies and aphids?

a)

Cypermethrin, Fenvalerate

b)

Endosulphan, DDT

c)

Monocrotophos, Carbaryl

d)

Quinalphos, Chlorpyriphos

35.

Which is the first synthetic pyrethroid?

a)

Allethrin

b)

Deltamethrin

c)

Cypermethrin

d)

Fenvalerate

36.

From the following which insecticide(s) exert quick knock down effect?

a)

Dichlorvos

b)

Methomyl

c)

Cypermethrin

d)

All (a), (b) and (c)

37.

Under which group dimethoate is classify on the basis of chemical nature?

a)

Phosphate

b)

Phosphorothiolate

c)

Phosphorodithiolate

d)

Phosphorothionate

38.

Under which group oxymethyl demeton is classify on the basis of chemical nature?

a)

Phosphate

b)

Phosphorothiolate

c)

Phosphorodithiolate

d)

Phosphorothionate

39.

Which insecticide is systemic insecticide?

a)

Ethion

b)

Indoxacarb

c)

Quinalphos

d)

Spinosad

40.

From the following which pair is incorrect

a)

Quinalphos : Contact insecticide

b)

Imidacloprid : Systemic insecticide

c)

Phosphamidon : Contact insecticide

d)

Dichlorvos : Contact & Fumigant insecticide

41.

From the following which insecticide has longer persistence?

a)

Imidacloprid

b)

Dichlorvos

c)

Azadirectin

d)

NPV

42.

If the acute dermal LD-50 of an insect is 50 mg/kg, then:

a)

One insect can be killed with 50 mg of the product.

b)

50 insects can be killed with 50 mg of the product.

c)

50% of the insects can be killed with 50 mg of the product.

d)

None of these

43.

What is the generally accepted mode of action for organophosphate insecticides?

a)

Chitin inhibitor

b)

Cholinesterase inhibitor

c)

Stomach poison

d)

Respiratory toxin

44.

Compared to first generation pesticides, the newer second and third generation compounds are:

a)

More selective and less persistent

b)

More persistent and less selective.

c)

More toxic and less selective.

d)

None of these.

45.

Which class of chemical insecticides is characterized by a relatively high degree of environmental persistence?

a)

Carbamates

b)

Synthetic pyrethroids

c)

Organophosphates

d)

Chlorinated hydrocarbons

46.

Organophosphate and carbamate insecticides work by disrupting an insect's:

a)

Digestive system

b)

Endocrine system

c)

Nervous system

d)

Respiratory system

47.

Which insecticide is a member of oxadiazine class of insecticide?

a)

Indoxacarb

b)

Fipronil

c)

Chlorfenapyr

d)

Flubendiamide

48.

Which insecticide has been found more toxic to pyrethroid resistant population of Helicoverpa armigera.

a)

Fipronil

b)

Indoxacarb

c)

Chlorfenapyr

d)

Flubendiamide

49.

Which insecticide is a second-generation neonicotinoid?

a)

Imidacloprid

b)

Acetamiprid

c)

Thiomethoxam

d)

None of these

50.

Which molecule is produced by actenomycete, Sacchaopolyspora spinosa, under natural fermentation conditions?

a)

Indoxacarb

b)

Novaluron

c)

Spinosad

d)

Abamectin

51.

Which insecticide is useful as foliar, seed treatment, soil drench and stem application?

a)

Imidacloprid

b)

Monocrotophos

c)

Quinalphos

d)

Chlorpyriphos

52.

Which insecticide(s) is/are commercialized neonicotinoid(s)?

a)

Imidacloprid

b)

Clothianidin

c)

Thiacloprid

d)

All of these

53.

The term DT 50 is used for _____

a)

Time for 50% of organism to die

b)

Time for 50% of organism to disappear

c)

Time for 50% of molecule to disappear

d)

None of these

54.

Mechanism of insecticide resistance include (s)_____

a)

Increased behavioural avoidance

b)

Accelerated excretion

c)

Biochemical detoxification

d)

All a, b, & c

55.

The International Code of Conduct on the Distribution and Use of Pesticides was adopted by FAO Council with a focus on _____

a)

Protection of human and environmental health

b)

Risk reduction

c)

Support for sustainable agricultural development by selectively using pesticides as an IPM components

d)

All of these

56.

Recently banned insecticides that was considered as a safe insecticide for pollinators is____

a)

Malathion

b)

Monocrotophos

c)

Endosulfan

d)

DDT

57.

Chemicals used to kill slug and snails is known as_______

a)

Acaricide

b)

Molluscicide

c)

Insecticide

d)

Nematicide

58.

Chemicals used to kill mites is known as_______

a)

Acaricide

b)

Molluscicide

c)

Insecticide

d)

Nematicide

59.

One of the ingredients used in universal antidote is

a)

Acetic acid

b)

Activated Charcoal

c)

Phenol

d)

Glycerin

60.

Insecticide having high LD 50 value indicate

a)

Highly toxic

b)

Less toxic

c)

Neutral

d)

None of these

61.

Which is used as effective sticking and spreading agents?

a)

Coal tar

b)

Phenol

c)

Teepol

d)

Neem oil

62.

When was ‘Insecticide Act’ enforced and effectively implemented in India?

a)

1968

b)

1970

c)

1969

d)

1971

63.

From the following, which institute exempted from phytosanitory restrictions.

a)

IARI

b)

SAUs

c)

State Department of Agriculture

d)

ICAR

64.

From the following, which institute is not exempted from phytosanitory restrictions.

a)

IARI

b)

IVRI

c)

SAUs

d)

Zoological Survey of India

65.

Method of plant protection in which exclusion of all plant materials or commodities are classed as hosts of the insects.

a)

Embargoes

b)

Survey of Pest Status

c)

Controlled Exportation

d)

None of these

66.

When was first legislative Act passed to stop entry of agricultural pests in India?

a)

1906

b)

1968

c)

1914

d)

1972

67.

The first legislative Act passed to stop the entry of which crop pest.

a)

Cotton Boll Weevil

b)

San Jose Scale

c)

Apple Wooly Aphid

d)

Tea Mosquitoes Bug

68.

When ‘Destructive Insects and Pests Act’ was passed in India

a)

1906

b)

1968

c)

1914

d)

1972

69.

A legal restriction to prevent the entry and establishment of plant disease or insect pests in an area where the disease or pest does not exist is referred under_________.

a)

Plant Quarantine

b)

Insecticide Act-1968

c)

Phytosanitation

d)

None

70.

The institute ‘Forest Research Institute’ exempted from phytosanitary restrictions is located at ___________

a)

Dehra Dun

b)

New Delhi

c)

Kolkata

d)

Mukteshwar

71.

The institute ‘Zoological Survey of India’ exempted from phytosanitary restrictions is located at ___________

a)

Dehra Dun

b)

New Delhi

c)

Kolkata

d)

Bengaluru

72.

Which commodities have been totally banned for import

a)

Groundnut, Ginned cotton

b)

Bt cotton, Maize, Coffee

c)

Raw Tobacco, Unginned cotton

d)

Bt maize, Bt brinjal seed

73.

When was Insecticide Act amended?

a)

1972, 1977, 2000

b)

1971, 2000, 2012

c)

1971, 1972, 2003

d)

1972, 1986, 2005

74.

The domestic quarantine is enforced for preventing entry of ____

a)

San jose scale

b)

Sugarcane stem borer

c)

Apple wooly aphid

d)

Banana pseudostem borer

75.

When ‘Prevention of Food Adulteration Act’ was enforced in India?

a)

1939

b)

1968

c)

1954

d)

1972

76.

For which function(s) Government of India has set up a Central Insecticides Laboratory?

a)

To analyze samples of pesticides

b)

To determine toxicity of insecticides

c)

To analyze samples for pesticide residues

d)

All (a), (b) and (c)

77.

Which insecticide has contact, stomach and fumigant action?

a)

Dichlorvos

b)

Monocrotophos

c)

Malathion

d)

Deltamethrin

78.

Insecticides used for seed treatment against sucking pests

a)

Diazinon

b)

Malathion

c)

Chlorpyriphos

d)

Imidacloprid

79.

Root / stem injection of monocrotophos is recommended against____

a)

Mango stem borer

b)

Coconut blck headed caterpillar

c)

Tea mosquito bug

d)

Coffee stem borer

80.

Which insecticide is suitable for whorl application to manage stem borer in maize crop?

a)

Monocrotophos 36 SL

b)

Methyl parathion 2% Dust

c)

Carbofuran 3 G

d)

Azadirectin 5 EC

81.

Source of rotenone pesticide is

a)

Seeds of neem

b)

Roots of Darris

c)

Leaves of tobacco

d)

Roots of Rynia

82.

The International Code of Conduct on the Distribution and Use of Pesticides was adopted by the FAO Council with a focus on _______

a)

Risk reduction

b)

Support for sustainable agricultural development by selectively using pesticides as an IPM components

c)

Protection of human and environmental health

d)

All of these

83.

In preparation of direct application of insecticides, inert possessing low sorptivity and high bulk density are called _

a)

Carriers

b)

Diluents

c)

Stabilizers

d)

Formulators

84.

From the following which fumigant(s) is/ are in gas form at ordinary temperatures?

a)

Methyl bromide

b)

Ethylene dibromide

c)

Ethylene oxide

d)

Both (a) and (c)

85.

From the following which fumigant(s) is/ are in liquid form at ordinary temperatures?

a)

Ethylene dibromide

b)

Carbon tetrachloride

c)

Ethylene dichloride

d)

All (a), (b) and (c)

86.

When was world's worst industrial disaster Bhopal Accident happened?

a)

2 December, 1984

b)

31 December, 1987

c)

2 December, 1981

d)

31 December, 1994

87.

Which molecule(s) has / have properties of insecticide as well as acaricide?

a)

Fenazaquin

b)

Buprofezin

c)

Chlorfenapyr

d)

All of these

88.

Which insecticide inhibits the mitochondrial electron transport chain?

a)

Fenazaquin

b)

Indoxacarb

c)

Buprofezin

d)

Spinosad

89.

Which is the highest pesticide consumer country in the world?

a)

USA

b)

Tiwan

c)

Japan

d)

India

90.

Which crop receives the largest share of pesticides in India as well as world?

a)

Cotton

b)

Sugarcane

c)

Rice

d)

Vegetables

91.

What amount of the insecticide applied to a crop reaches the target pests?

a)

< 1%

b)

> 99%

c)

10-20%

d)

0.0001%

92.

When the LD 50 value of the insecticide is 1-50 then insecticide is ______

a)

Highly toxic

b)

Extremely toxic

c)

Moderately toxic

d)

None of these

93.

If LD 50 value is >15000 then insecticide is ______

a)

Moderately toxic

b)

Highly toxic

c)

Relatively harmless

d)

Practically nontoxic

94.

The time required for half of the initial deposit to dissipate is referred as_______

a)

I 50

b)

DT 50

c)

RL 50

d)

KD 50

95.

Which insecticide is classified under phosphorodithiolate group?

a)

Dimehtoate

b)

Methyl parathion

c)

Monocrotophos

d)

Methyl-o-demeton

96.

Which insecticide is classified under phosphorothiolate group?

a)

Dimehtoate

b)

Methyl parathion

c)

Monocrotophos

d)

Methyl-o-demeton

97.

Which insecticide is classified under phosphate group?

a)

Dimehtoate

b)

Methyl parathion

c)

Monocrotophos

d)

Methyl-o-demeton

98.

Which insecticide is classified under phosphorothionate group?

a)

Dimehtoate

b)

Methyl parathion

c)

Monocrotophos

d)

Methyl-o-demeton

99.

Which insecticide is/are classified under phenyl carbamate group?

a)

Carbaryl

b)

Carbosulfan

c)

Carbofuran

d)

All of these

100.

Which insecticide is classified under Oxime carbamate group?

a)

Methomyl

b)

Propoxur

c)

Carbaryl

d)

Carbosulfan

101.

Following term(s) is/are related with pesticide residues

a)

MRL

b)

ADI

c)

GAP

d)

All of these

102.

When was the first report of resistance development in insect to an insecticide?

a)

1908

b)

1939

c)

1968

d)

19

103.

The bacterium, Bacillus thuringiensis is extensively used due to its ____

a)

High virulence with narrow host specificity

b)

Low cost

c)

Ease of application

d)

All of these

104.

Genetic manipulation of pest insects is useful in development of_____

a)

Pest resistant variety

b)

Pheromone trap

c)

Sterile insect technique

d)

None of these

105.

Parasitoids that develops on dead or parasitized host is known as_______

a)

Idiobionts

b)

Koinobionts

c)

Symbionts

d)

Exosymbionts

106.

Parasitoids that develops in/on living hosts that will die when the parasitoids are fully developed is known as______

a)

Idiobionts

b)

Koinobionts

c)

Symbionts

d)

Abionts

107.

A chemical released from cotton that attracts Chrysoperla carnea.

a)

Caryophyllene

b)

Gossypol

c)

Gramine

d)

Glucosinolates

108.

Who includes “gene or gene products” in expanded definition of biological control?

a)

World Health Organization

b)

US National Academy of Sciences

c)

Food and Agricultural Organization

d)

NCIPM

109.

The goal of inundative /inoculative release of biological control agents is/are______

a)

Permanent establishment of bioagent in agroecosystem

b)

To prevent damage, when the control due to natural enemies occur too late

c)

To control pest when natural enemies are absent

d)

Both (b) and (c)

110.

Which of the following is effective against Helicoverpa armigera?

a)

Ha Nuclear polyhedral virus

b)

Nematodes

c)

Bacillus papillae

d)

Rickettsia

111.

Which of the following is effective against white grubs?

a)

Ha Nuclear polyhedral virus

b)

Nematodes

c)

Bacillus papillae

d)

Bacillus thurengiensis

112.

Chemicals that can attract the opposite sex of the same species are called_____

a)

Hormone

b)

Pheromone

c)

Kairomone

d)

Synomone

113.

Which organism is considered as universal predator?

a)

Ladybird beetle

b)

Birds

c)

Spider

d)

Frogs

114.

Larva of which predator carries host exuviae and remainants on its back after feeding?

a)

Ladybird beetle

b)

Syrphid fly

c)

Mallada sp.

d)

Chrysoperlla carnea

115.

When parasite attacks on another parasite it is known as _______

a)

Hyperparasitism

b)

Polyparasitism

c)

Multiparasitism

d)

Superparasitism

116.

Coccinellid predators are most active during ________

a)

Bright sunny hours

b)

Cloudy hours

c)

Cusky hours

d)

Night hours

117.

Epiricania melanoleuca is ______

a)

Lepidopteran predator

b)

Endoparasite

c)

Ectoparsite

d)

Dipteran parasitoid

118.

Which is not larval parasitoid?

a)

Cotesia flavipes

b)

Goniozus indicus

c)

Xanthopimpla stemmator

d)

Stermiopsis inferens

119.

Which is not egg parasitoid?

a)

Goniozus indicus

b)

Tricogramma chilonis

c)

Telenomus sp.

d)

Chelonus blackburni

120.

Which insect stage is parasitized by Xamthopimpla sp.?

a)

Pupa

b)

Egg

c)

Larva

d)

Adult

121.

Which insect stage is parasitized by Epiricania melanoleuca

a)

Pupa

b)

Egg

c)

Larva

d)

Adult

122.

Which bioagent is the most effective against sugarcane pyrilla?

a)

Epiricania melanoleuca

b)

Goniozus indicus

c)

Brumoides suturalia

d)

Cheilomers sexmaculata

123.

Developing resistant or tolerant natural enemies towards pesticides is an example of ______

a)

Conservation

b)

Colonization

c)

Augmentation

d)

Importation

124.

From which country, an exotic weevil, Neochetina bruchi was introduced in India for management of water hyacinth?

a)

USA

b)

Brazil

c)

Australia

d)

Trinidad

125.

Which insect was found effective for the management of congress grass, Parthenium hysterophorus?

a)

Neochetina bruchi

b)

Dactylopius confusus

c)

Zygogramma bicolorata

d)

Teleonemia scrupulosa

126.

Which insect gave effective control of Opuntia vulgaria (Prickly pear) in North and Central India during middle of 19th century?

a)

Neochetina bruchi

b)

Dactylopius ceylonicus

c)

Zygogramma bicolorata

d)

Teleonemia scrupulosa

127.

Water fern, Salvinia molesta was effectively suppressed and controlled by _____

a)

Zygogramma bicolorata

b)

Neochetina bruchi

c)

Cryptobagous salviniae

d)

Dactylopius tementotus

128.

Which order has no member of insect predator?

a)

Coleoptera

b)

Odonata

c)

Hemiptera

d)

Phasmida

129.

Which host insect is highly popular amongst the biocontrol scientist for its utility in mass rearing of many useful bioagents?

a)

Spodoptera litura

b)

Tribolium castaneum

c)

Corcyra cephalonica

d)

Mealy bugs

130.

Economic Threshold Levels (ETLs) are very dynamic and differ based on________

a)

Crop value

b)

Management cost

c)

Degree of injury

d)

All of these

131.

Considering economic pest management, which statement is correct to begin pest management practices?

a)

Farmer should wait until pest densities reach the economic injury level.

b)

When pest appears in the field

c)

Densities of pest reaches economic threshold level

d)

When both pest and its enemies appears in the field

132.

The most recent approaches of insect control is

a)

Biological control

b)

IPM

c)

Chemical control

d)

Mechanical control

133.

National Research Center for Integrated Pest Management is located at____

a)

New Delhi

b)

Kernal

c)

Ludhiana

d)

Hissar

134.

Pheromone trap attracts___

a)

Both male and female

b)

None of these

c)

Female only

d)

Male only

135.

Clipping of young seedling to eliminate of egg mass off

a)

Yellow stem borer

b)

Grass hopper

c)

Stem borer

d)

Brown plant hopper

136.

Erection of bird perches in/near field for insectivores birds is an ideal example of ______

a)

Conservation

b)

Augmentation

c)

Importation

d)

None of these

137.

Which chemical(s) has/have the ability to sterilize insects?

a)

Tepa

b)

Hempa

c)

Apholate

d)

All of these

138.

What is/are the main cause(s) of insect resurgence?

a)

Host favourable to pests

b)

High fecundity of pests

c)

Suppression of natural enemies

d)

All of these

139.

Trapping of rodent is an ideal example of __________

a)

Cultural control

b)

Mechanical control

c)

Natural control

d)

Physical control

140.

Which insect pest control method is/are autocidal method(s)?

a)

Antifeedants

b)

Genetic control

c)

Repellents

d)

Chemostrilants