wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Digestive System Worksheet

Total questions: 79

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main role of the digestive system?

a)

To pump blood around the body

b)

To protect against infections

c)

To break down food and absorb nutrients

d)

To send electrical signals to muscles

2.

What is the function of the mouth in digestion?

a)

Absorbs nutrients

b)

Begins mechanical and chemical digestion

c)

Stores food

d)

Produces bile

3.

What is the main function of the oesophagus?

a)

Absorbs vitamins

b)

Stores food

c)

Transports food to the stomach

d)

Produces digestive enzymes

4.

What does the stomach primarily do?

a)

Absorbs fats

b)

Chemically digests protein

c)

Produces insulin

d)

Filters waste

5.

What is the function of the small intestine?

a)

Absorbs water

b)

Produces bile

c)

Absorbs nutrients

d)

Stores waste

6.

What does the pancreas do in digestion?

a)

Produces bile

b)

Absorbs nutrients

c)

Secretes enzymes

d)

Stores urine

7.

The liver’s role in digestion includes:

a)

Absorbing protein

b)

Producing bile

c)

Breaking down fibre

d)

Storing minerals

8.

The gall bladder:

a)

Filters blood

b)

Stores bile

c)

Secretes hormones

d)

Absorbs glucose

9.

What is the function of the large intestine?

a)

Absorbs water and forms faeces

b)

Breaks down proteins

c)

Produces enzymes

d)

Stores bile

10.

The rectum:

a)

Begins protein digestion

b)

Absorbs nutrients

c)

Stores faeces before excretion

d)

Breaks down fats

11.

The kidneys are mainly responsible for:

a)

Filtering blood and producing urine

b)

Absorbing water from food

c)

Digesting proteins

d)

Secreting digestive juices

12.

The appendix is believed to:

a)

Digest fibre

b)

Play a role in immunity

c)

Absorb water

d)

Store enzymes

13.

Which is the correct order for the journey of food?

a)

Stomach → Mouth → Small intestine → Large intestine

b)

Mouth → Oesophagus → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine → Rectum

c)

Mouth → Stomach → Liver → Rectum

d)

Oesophagus → Small intestine → Mouth → Rectum

14.

What is ingestion?

a)

Breakdown of food

b)

Movement of food

c)

Taking food into the mouth

15.

Movement of food through the digestive tract is called:

a)

Peristalsis

b)

Absorption

c)

Ingestion

d)

Filtration

16.

Mechanical digestion involves:

a)

Enzymes

b)

Acid

c)

Chewing and churning

d)

Hormones

17.

Chemical digestion uses:

a)

Teeth

b)

Muscles

c)

Enzymes and acids

d)

Peristalsis

18.

Where does absorption mainly occur?

a)

Stomach

b)

Mouth

c)

Small intestine

d)

Large intestine

19.

Defecation is:

a)

Absorption of fats

b)

Breakdown of protein

c)

Elimination of undigested waste

d)

Mixing of food with saliva

20.

Which enzyme breaks down carbohydrates in the mouth?

a)

Pepsin

b)

Trypsin

c)

Salivary amylase

d)

Lipase

21.

Pepsin acts in the stomach to digest:

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Fats

22.

Lipase breaks down:

a)

Protein

b)

Fats

c)

Fibre

d)

Sugar

23.

Trypsin is secreted by the pancreas and acts in the:

a)

Mouth

b)

Stomach

c)

Small intestine

d)

Large intestine

24.

Carbohydrates are broken down into:

a)

Amino acids

b)

Fatty acids

c)

Glucose

d)

Glycerol

25.

Proteins are broken down into:

a)

Glucose

b)

Amino acids

c)

Fatty acids

d)

Starch

26.

Fats are broken down into:

a)

Glucose and glycogen

b)

Amino acids and peptides

c)

Fatty acids and glycerol

d)

Water and fibre

27.

What is a balanced diet?

a)

High in sugar and fat

b)

Excludes all carbohydrates

c)

Provides all essential nutrients in the correct proportions

d)

Low in protein and fibre

28.

Glycaemic Index (GI) refers to:

a)

The fat content of food

b)

The carbohydrate content of food

c)

The effect of food on blood glucose levels

d)

The protein content of food

29.

RDA stands for:

a)

Ready Digestive Action

b)

Recommended Daily Allowance

c)

Regulated Dietary Amount

d)

Required Daily Analysis

30.

Macronutrients include:

a)

Vitamins and minerals

b)

Enzymes and hormones

c)

Carbohydrates, proteins, fats

d)

Water and fibre

31.

Micronutrients are needed:

a)

In large amounts

b)

Only during digestion

c)

In small amounts for health

d)

Only for athletes

32.

Carbohydrates provide:

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

Energy

c)

Cell repair

d)

Hormone production

33.

Which food is a good source of fat?

a)

White rice

b)

Cheese

c)

Chicken breast

d)

Carrots

34.

Proteins help with:

a)

Digestion

b)

Energy storage

c)

Growth and repair

d)

Vitamin production

35.

Simple carbohydrates:

a)

Provide slow energy release

b)

Are found in whole grains

c)

Are broken down quickly

d)

Are high in fibre

36.

Complex carbohydrates are found in:

a)

Cakes and biscuits

b)

Soft drinks

c)

White bread

d)

Brown rice and oats

37.

Why is fibre important?

a)

Builds muscle

b)

Helps digestion and prevents constipation

c)

Increases cholesterol

d)

Builds bone strength

38.

HDL cholesterol is considered:

a)

Bad cholesterol

b)

Good cholesterol

c)

Harmful fat

d)

A type of protein

39.

Trans fats are:

a)

Natural fats from plants

b)

Healthy for the heart

c)

Artificial and harmful

d)

Found in fruits

40.

Omega-3 fats are found in:

a)

Fried food

b)

White bread

c)

Oily fish and flaxseeds

d)

Butter

41.

Complete proteins contain:

a)

Only some amino acids

b)

No amino acids

c)

All essential amino acids

d)

No nutrients

42.

Incomplete proteins are usually found in:

a)

Animal products

b)

Dairy products

c)

Plant-based sources

d)

Meat and fish

43.

What does the energy balance equation compare?

a)

Vitamins vs. minerals

b)

Calories consumed vs. calories burned

c)

Water intake vs. sweat rate

d)

Protein vs. carbohydrate intake

44.

If someone consumes more calories than they burn, they will likely:

a)

Lose weight

b)

Gain weight

c)

Stay the same weight

d)

Burn more muscle

45.

What is Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)?

a)

Energy used during exercise

b)

Energy required to digest food

c)

Energy needed to maintain body functions at rest

d)

Energy burned while walking

46.

Which method is commonly used to estimate BMR?

a)

BMI calculator

b)

Harris-Benedict equation

c)

Glycaemic Index chart

d)

Skinfold test

47.

Which activity burns the most calories per hour on average?

(a)  

48.

Energy expenditure increases with:

a)

Decreased heart rate

b)

Sleeping longer

c)

Increased intensity and duration of activity

d)

Eating more fibre

49.

Which of the following is NOT needed to assess a client’s nutritional needs?

a)

Age and gender

b)

Blood type

c)

Physical activity level

d)

Health conditions

50.

To assess hydration needs, what would you consider?

a)

Hair colour and weight

b)

Exercise intensity and environment

c)

Favourite drinks

d)

Clothing choice

51.

Which is a reliable source for UK healthy eating guidelines?

a)

Wikipedia

b)

The Eatwell Guide (NHS)

c)

YouTube influencers

d)

Unverified blogs

52.

Which of the following would provide evidence-based nutrition information?

a)

Friends and family

b)

TikTok creators

c)

British Nutrition Foundation

d)

Online supplement shops

53.

Which of the following reflects healthy eating advice?

a)

Skip breakfast daily

b)

Eat 5 portions of fruit and vegetables per day

54.

A balanced plate should include:

a)

Only protein

b)

Equal portions of meat and sugar

c)

A mix of carbohydrates, protein, vegetables, and healthy fats

d)

Fast food and fizzy drinks

55.

Which of the following is a health risk of poor nutrition?

a)

Improved concentration

b)

Increased energy

c)

Obesity and heart disease

d)

Stronger immune system

56.

Long-term unhealthy eating may lead to:

a)

Reduced disease risk

b)

Higher fitness levels

c)

Type 2 diabetes

d)

Lower blood pressure

57.

Why is steaming vegetables better than deep-frying?

a)

Adds more sugar

b)

Increases calorie content

c)

Preserves nutrients

d)

Makes them crunchier

58.

Healthy food preparation includes:

a)

Using lots of salt and butter

b)

Choosing whole, unprocessed ingredients

c)

Eating out daily

d)

Cooking with saturated fats

59.

How many portions of fruit and vegetables are recommended daily?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

5

60.

The recommended number of servings of grains per day is usually:

a)

1–2

b)

3–8 depending on age/activity

c)

9–12 for everyone

d)

None – grains are discouraged

61.

Dairy servings per day for most adults should be:

a)

0–1

b)

2–3

c)

5–6

d)

6–8

62.

Protein servings (meat, beans, etc.) recommended per day:

a)

1–2

b)

2–3

c)

5–6

d)

7–9

63.

How should fats, oils, and sweets be consumed?

a)

As the main source of calories

b)

In large quantities daily

c)

Sparingly and in small amounts

d)

Not at all

64.

What is the relationship between nutrition, physical activity, body composition, and health?

a)

Nutrition only affects mental health

b)

Poor nutrition and low activity lead to improved body composition

c)

Balanced nutrition and regular activity help maintain healthy body composition and reduce disease risk

d)

Physical activity is unrelated to nutrition

65.

What information is commonly found on food labels?

a)

Calorie content, ingredient list, serving size

b)

Recipes for cooking

c)

Workout plans

d)

Expiration of fitness equipment

66.

What does a red traffic light label indicate on food packaging?

a)

The food is high in fat, sugar or salt

b)

The food is low in nutrients

c)

The food is organic

d)

The food contains no allergens

67.

Which of the following provides reliable nutrition advice?

a)

Qualified dietitians and nutritionists

b)

Social media influencers

c)

Unregulated blogs

d)

TV advertisements

68.

What is the recommended method for calculating the % of calories from nutrients?

a)

Divide grams of nutrient by 100

b)

Multiply grams by calorific value, divide by total calories, then multiply by 100

c)

Use BMI

d)

Count calories per serving only

69.

Which of the following is outside the professional scope of a personal trainer?

a)

Encouraging balanced meals

b)

Recommending safe hydration strategies

c)

Diagnosing medical conditions or prescribing diets

d)

Discussing general dietary guidelines

70.

What are some potential health risks of popular or extreme diets?

a)

Improved fitness

b)

Stable energy levels

c)

Nutrient deficiencies

d)

Enhanced immune function

71.

Which group may be at higher risk of nutritional deficiencies?

a)

Healthy adults

b)

Teenagers

c)

Sedentary office workers

d)

People following restricted diets (e.g. vegan, elderly, athletes)

72.

What is gluconeogenesis?

a)

The breakdown of protein into glucose

b)

The process of converting glucose into fat

c)

The formation of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources

d)

Burning fat during exercise

73.

What does SMART stand for in goal setting?

a)

Simple, Measurable, Active, Realistic, Timed

b)

Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound

c)

Safe, Motivated, Actionable, Reasonable, Timed

d)

Specific, Motivational, Accurate, Realistic, Timed

74.

Which stage of the trans-theoretical model involves active behaviour change?

a)

Pre-contemplation

b)

Maintenance

c)

Contemplation

d)

Action

75.

Which vitamin is fat-soluble?

a)

Vitamin B

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Vitamin H

76.

Which vitamin is known for being an antioxidant?

a)

Vitamin E

b)

Vitamin K

c)

Vitamin B12

d)

Vitamin D

77.

What is the calorific value per gram of fat?

a)

4 kcal

b)

7 kcal

c)

9 kcal

d)

2 kcal

78.

Why is hydration important during exercise?

a)

To avoid hunger

b)

To increase body fat

c)

To regulate temperature and maintain performance

d)

To reduce water weight only

79.

What is an example of an isotonic sports drink?

a)

Plain water

b)

Highly concentrated sugar drink

c)

A drink with similar salt/sugar concentration as the body

d)

A caffeine-free herbal tea