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WorksheetsNWC204 - SU25 - FUCT
Total questions: 445
Worksheet time: 4hrs 1mins
Which of the following is the name for all computers connected to a network that participate directly in network communication?
Servers
Intermediary devices
Hosts
Media
When data is encoded as pulses of light, which media is being used to transmit the data?
Wireless
Fiber-optic cable
Copper cable
Which two devices are intermediary devices? (Choose two)
Hosts
Routers
Servers
Switches
Which connection physically connects the end device to the network?
Port
NIC
Interface
Which connections are specialized ports on a networking device that connect to individual networks?
Port
NIC
Interface
Which type of network topology lets you see which end devices are connected to which intermediary devices and what media is being used?
Physical topology
Logical topology
Which network infrastructure provides access to users and end devices in a small geographical area, which is typically a network in a department in an enterprise, a home, or small business?
Extranet
Intranet
LAN
WAN
Which network infrastructure might an organization use to provide secure and safe access to individuals who work for a different organization but require access to the organization’s data?
Extranet
Intranet
LAN
WAN
Which network infrastructure provides access to other networks over a large geographical area, which is often owned and managed by a telecommunications service provider?
Extranet
Intranet
LAN
WAN
To achieve the goals of network security, there are three primary requirements. These are...
Confidentiality
Integrity
Availability
Scalability
Scalability means
Expands quickly to support new users and applications, without degrading the performance of services that are being accessed by existing users.
Limits the number of affected devices during a failure
Preventing unauthorized access to the management software that resides on them
When designers follow accepted standards and protocols, which of the four basic characteristics of network architecture is achieved?
Fault tolerance
Scalability
Quality of Service (QoS)
Security
Confidentiality, integrity, and availability are requirements of which of the four basic characteristics of network architecture?
Fault tolerance
Scalability
QoS
Security
With which type of policy, a router can manage the flow of data and voice traffic, giving priority to voice communications if the network experiences congestion?
Fault tolerance
Scalability
QoS
Security
Having multiple paths to a destination is known as redundancy. This is an example of which characteristic of network architecture?
Fault tolerance
Scalability
QoS
Security
"Cloud-based applications and services offered in a public cloud are made available to the general population" is a characteristic of
Public clouds
Private clouds
Hybrid clouds
Community clouds
"Cloud-based applications and services offered in a private cloud are intended for a specific organization or entity, such as a government" is a characteristic of...
Public clouds
Private clouds
Hybrid clouds
Community clouds
"A hybrid cloud is made up of two or more clouds (example: part private, part public), where each part remains a distinct object, but both are connected using a single architecture" is a characteristic of...
Public clouds
Private clouds
Hybrid clouds
Community clouds
"A community cloud is created for exclusive use by specific entities or organizations" is a characteristic of...
Public clouds
Private clouds
Hybrid clouds
Community clouds
Powerline networking uses...
existing electrical wiring to connect devices.
existing infrastructure of Wireless WANs.
satellite networking for data communication.
Which feature is a good conferencing tool to use with others who are located elsewhere in your city, or even in another country?
BYOD
Video communications
Cloud computing
Which feature describes using personal tools to access information and communicate across a business or campus network?
BYOD
Video communications
Cloud computing
Which feature contains options such as Public, Private, Custom and Hybrid?
BYOD
Video communications
Cloud computing
Which feature is being used when connecting a device to the network using an electrical outlet?
Smart home technology
Powerline
Wireless broadband
Which feature uses the same cellular technology as a smartphone?
Smart home technology
Powerline
Wireless broadband
Viruses, worms, and Trojan horses...
contain malicious software or code running on a user device.
secretly collects information about the user.
occur on the first day that a vulnerability becomes known.
slow or crash applications and processes on a network device.
captures private information from an organization’s network.
Spyware and adware...
secretly collects information about the user.
attacks user devices or network resources.
slow or crash applications and processes on a network device.
captures private information from an organization’s network
Zero-day attacks...
occur on the first day that a vulnerability becomes known
contain malicious software or code running on a user device
secretly collects information about the user
captures private information from an organization’s network
Threat actor attacks...
attacks user devices or network resources.
slow or crash applications and processes on a network device.
captures private information from an organization’s network
secretly collects information about the user.
Data interception and theft...
secretly collects information about the user
slow or crash applications and processes on a network device
captures private information from an organization’s network
contain malicious software or code running on a user device
Identity theft...
occur on the first day that a vulnerability becomes known.
steals the login credentials of a user in order to access private data.
steals the login credentials of a user in order to access private data.
secretly collects information about the user.
These are the basic security components for a home or small office network, includes...
Antivirus and antispyware - These applications help to protect end devices from becoming infected with malicious software.
Firewall filtering - Firewall filtering blocks unauthorized access into and out of the network. This may include a host-based firewall system that prevents unauthorized access to the end device, or a basic filtering service on the home router to prevent unauthorized access from the outside world into the network.
Dedicated firewall systems - These provide more advanced firewall capabilities that can filter large amounts of traffic with more granularity.
Access control lists (ACL) - These further filter access and traffic forwarding based on IP addresses and applications.
Intrusion prevention systems (IPS) - These identify fast-spreading threats, such as zero-day.
In security solutions, larger networks and corporate networks use as same as home and small office network solutions, but they also have other security requirements, including
Dedicated firewall systems - These provide more advanced firewall capabilities that can filter large amounts of traffic with more granularity.
Access control lists (ACL) - These further filter access and traffic forwarding based on IP addresses and applications.
Intrusion prevention systems (IPS) - These identify fast-spreading threats, such as zero-day attacks.
Virtual private networks (VPN) - These provide secure access into an organization for remote workers.
Which attack slows down or crashes equipment and programs?
Firewall
Virus, worm, or Trojan horse
Zero-day or Zero-hour
Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Denial of Service (DoS)
Which option creates a secure connection for remote workers?
Firewall
Virus, worm, or Trojan horse
Zero-day or Zero-hour
Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Denial of Service (DoS)
Which option blocks unauthorized access to your network?
Firewall
Virus, worm, or Trojan horse
Zero-day or Zero-hour
Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Denial of Service (DoS)
Which option describes a network attack that occurs on the first day that a vulnerability becomes known?
Firewall
Virus, worm, or Trojan horse
Zero-day or Zero-hour
Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Denial of Service (DoS)
Which option describes malicious code running on user devices?
Firewall
Virus, worm, or Trojan horse
Zero-day or Zero-hour
Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Denial of Service (DoS)
During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that software that was installed on a computer was secretly collecting data about websites that were visited by users of the computer. Which type of threat is affecting this computer?
DoS attack
Identity theft
Spyware
Zero-day attack
Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the corporate offices by suppliers, customers and collaborators?
Internet
Intranet
Extranet
Extendednet
A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to access network resources from their personal laptops and smart phones. Which networking trend does this describe?
Cloud computing
Online collaboration
Bring your own device
Video conferencing
What is an ISP?
It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking.
It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network communicate.
It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.
It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different networking devices in one.
In which scenario would the use of a WISP be recommended?
An Internet cafe in a city
A farm in a rural area without wired broadband access
Any home with multiple wireless devices
An apartment in a building with cable access to the Internet
What characteristic of a network enables it to quickly grow to support new users and applications without impacting the performance of the service being delivered to existing users?
Reliability
Scalability
Quality of service
Accessibility
A college is building a new dormitory on its campus. Workers are digging in the ground to install a new water pipe for the dormitory. A worker accidentally damages a fiber optic cable that connects two of the existing dormitories to the campus data center. Although the cable has been cut, students in the dormitories only experience a very short interruption of network services. What characteristic of the network is shown here?
Quality of service (QoS)
Scalability
Security
Fault tolerance
Integrity
What are two characteristics of a scalable network? (Choose two)
Easily overloaded with increased traffic
Grows in size without impacting existing users
Is not as reliable as a small network
Suitable for modular devices that allow for expansion
Offers limited number of applications
Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should take through internetworks?
A router
A firewall
A web server
A DSL modem
Which two Internet connection options do not require that physical cables be run to the building? (Choose two)
DSL
Cellular
Satellite
Dialup
Dedicated leased line
What type of network must a home user access in order to do online shopping?
An intranet
The Internet
An extranet
A local area network
How does BYOD change the way in which businesses implement networks?
BYOD requires organizations to purchase laptops rather than desktops.
BYOD users are responsible for their own network security, thus reducing the need for organizational security policies.
BYOD devices are more expensive than devices that are purchased by an organization.
BYOD provides flexibility in where and how users can access network resources.
An employee wants to access the network of the organization remotely, in the safest possible way. What network feature would allow an employee to gain secure remote access to a company network?
ACL
IPS
VPN
BYOD
What is the Internet?
It is a network based on Ethernet technology.
It provides network access for mobile devices.
It provides connections through interconnected global networks.
It is a private network for an organization with LAN and WAN connections.
What are two functions of end devices on a network? (Choose two)
They originate the data that flows through the network.
They direct data over alternate paths in the event of link failures.
They filter the flow of data to enhance security.
They are the interface between humans and the communication network.
They provide the channel over which the network message travels.
Which access method would be most appropriate if you were in the equipment room with a new switch that needs to be configured?
Console
Telnet/SSH
Aux
Which access method would be most appropriate if your manager gave you a special cable and told you to use it to configure the switch?
Console
Telnet/SSH
Aux
Which access method would be the most appropriate in-band access to the IOS over a network connection?
Console
Telnet/SSH
Aux
Which access method would be the most appropriate if you call your manager to tell him you cannot access your router in another city over the internet and he provides you with the information to access the router through a telephone connection?
Console
Telnet/SSH
Aux
Which IOS mode allows access to all commands and features?
Global configuration mode
Interface subconfiguration mode
Line console subconfiguration mode
Privileged EXEC mode
User EXEC mode
Which IOS mode are you in if the Switch(config)# prompt is displayed?
Global configuration mode
Interface subconfiguration mode
Line console subconfiguration mode
Privileged EXEC mode
User EXEC mode
Which IOS mode are you in if the Switch> prompt is displayed?
Global configuration mode
Interface subconfiguration mode
Line console subconfiguration mode
Privileged EXEC mode
User EXEC mode
Which two commands would return you to the privileged EXEC prompt regardless of the configuration mode you are in? (Choose two)
CTRL+Z
disable
enable
end
exit
What is the command to assign the name "Sw-Floor-2" to a switch?
hostname Sw-Floor-2
host name Sw-Floor-2
name Sw-Floor-2
How is the privileged EXEC mode access secured on a switch?
enable class
secret class
enable secret class
service password-encryption
Which command enables password authentication for user EXEC mode access on a switch?
enable secret
login
secret
service password-encryption
Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords access on a switch?
enable secret
login
secret
service password-encryption
Which is the command to configure a banner to be displayed when connecting to a switch?
banner $ Keep out $
banner motd $ Keep out $
display $ Keep out $
login banner $ Keep out $
What is the structure of an IPv4 address called?
Dotted-binary format
Dotted-decimal format
Dotted-decimal format
How is an IPv4 address represented?
Four binary numbers between 0 and 1 separated by colons.
Four decimal numbers between 0 and 255 separated by periods.
Thirty-two hexadecimal numbers separated by colons.
Thirty-two hexadecimal numbers separated by colons.
What type of interface has no physical port associated with it?
Console
Ethernet
Serial
Switch virtual interface (SVI)
Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?
It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.
It is stored in NVRAM.
It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.
It is automatically saved when the router reboots.
Which two statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two)
All router commands are available.
Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.
The device prompt for this mode ends with the '>' symbol.
Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.
Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.
Which type of access is secured on a Cisco router or switch with the enable secret command?
Virtual terminal
Privileged EXEC
AUX port
Console line
What is the default SVI (Switch Virtual Interface) on a Cisco switch?
VLAN1
VLAN99
VLAN100
VLAN999
When a hostname is configured through the Cisco CLI, which three naming conventions are part of the guidelines? (Choose three)
The hostname should be fewer than 64 characters in length
The hostname should be written in all lower case characters
The hostname should contain no spaces
The hostname should end with a special character
The hostname should begin with a letter
What is the function of the shell in an OS?
It interacts with the device hardware.
It interfaces between the users and the kernel.
It provides dedicated firewall services.
It provides the intrusion protection services for the device.
A router with a valid operating system contains a configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file has an enable secret password but no console password. When the router boots up, which mode will display?
Global configuration mode
Setup mode
Privileged EXEC mode
User EXEC mode
An administrator has just changed the IP address of an interface on an IOS device. What else must be done in order to apply those changes to the device?
Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration file.
Copy the information in the startup configuration file to the running configuration.
Reload the device and type yes when prompted to save the configuration.
Nothing must be done. Changes to the configuration on an IOS device take effect as soon as the command is typed correctly and the Enter key has been pressed.
Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch will lose all content when the device is restarted?
ROM
Flash
NVRAM
RAM
Why would a technician enter the command copy startup-config running-config?
To remove all configurations from the switch
To save an active configuration to NVRAM
To copy an existing configuration into RAM
To make a changed configuration the new startup configuration
Which functionality is provided by DHCP?
Automatic assignment of an IP address to each host
Remote switch management
Translation of IP addresses to domain names
End-to-end connectivity test
Which two functions are provided to users by the context-sensitive help feature of the Cisco IOS CLI? (Choose two)
Providing an error message when a wrong command is submitted
Displaying a list of all available commands within the current mode
Allowing the user to complete the remainder of an abbreviated command with the TAB key
Determining which option, keyword, or argument is available for the entered command
Selecting the best command to accomplish a task
Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch stores the startup configuration file?
RAM
ROM
NVRAM
Flash
To what subnet does the IP address 10.1.100.50 belong if a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 is used?
Hint: Since the netmask is 255.255, keep the first 2 numbers of IPv4
10.1.0.0
10.0.0.0
10.1.100.32
10.1.100.0
What are common elements of communication methods?
Message source (sender)
Message timeout request (sender)
Message destination (receiver)
Channel
Message handler (receiver)
What are common computer network protocol requirements?
Message encoding
Message formatting and encapsulation
Message size
Message timing
Message delivery options
Message timing includes the following...
Flow Control
Response Timeout
Access method
Network Encapsulation
What are types of Message Delivery Options?
Unicast
Multicast
Broadcast
Bincast
Hexcast
What is the process of converting information into the proper form for transmission?
Formatting
Encoding
Encapsulation
Which step of the communication process is concerned with properly identifying the address of the sender and receiver?
Formatting
Encoding
Encapsulation
Which three are components of message timing? (Choose three)
Flow control
Sequence numbers
Access method
Retransmit time
Response timeout
Which delivery method is used to transmit information to one or more end devices, but not all devices on the network?
Unicast
Multicast
Broadcast
BGP and OSPF are examples of which type of protocol?
Network communication
Network security
Routing
Service discovery
Which two protocols are service discovery protocols? (Choose two)
DNS
TCP
SSH
DHCP
What is the purpose of the sequencing function in network communication?
To uniquely label transmitted segments of data for proper reassembly by the receiver
To determine if data is corrupted during transmission
To ensure data flows at an efficient rate between sender and receiver
To guarantee delivery of data
This protocol is responsible for guaranteeing the reliable delivery of information.
TCP
IP
HTTP
Ethernet
Network Communication Protocols...
enable two or more devices to communicate over one or more networks.
secure data to provide authentication, data integrity, and data encryption.
enable routers to exchange route information, compare path information, and then to select the best path to the destination network.
are used for the automatic detection of devices or services (such as DHCP, DNS).
Network Security Protocols
enable two or more devices to communicate over one or more networks.
secure data to provide authentication, data integrity, and data encryption.
enable routers to exchange route information, compare path information, and then to select the best path to the destination network.
are used for the automatic detection of devices or services (such as DHCP, DNS).
Routing Protocols...
enable two or more devices to communicate over one or more networks.
secure data to provide authentication, data integrity, and data encryption.
enable routers to exchange route information, compare path information, and then to select the best path to the destination network.
are used for the automatic detection of devices or services (such as DHCP, DNS).
Service Discovery Protocols...
enable two or more devices to communicate over one or more networks.
secure data to provide authentication, data integrity, and data encryption.
enable routers to exchange route information, compare path information, and then to select the best path to the destination network.
are used for the automatic detection of devices or services (such as DHCP, DNS).
Function of Addressing Protocols...
This identifies the sender and the intended receiver of the message using a defined addressing scheme.
This function contains information used for process-to-process communications between network applications.
This function ensures that data flows at an efficient rate between two communicating devices. TCP provides flow control services.
This function uniquely labels each transmitted segment of data. The receiving device uses the sequencing information to reassemble the information correctly.
Function of reliability protocols is...
This function provides guaranteed delivery mechanisms in case messages are lost or corrupted in transit.
This function ensures that data flows at an efficient rate between two communicating devices. TCP provides flow control services.
This function uniquely labels each transmitted segment of data. The receiving device uses the sequencing information to reassemble the information correctly.
This function contains information used for process-to-process communications between network applications.
Function of flow-control protocols is...
This function ensures that data flows at an efficient rate between two communicating devices. TCP provides flow control services.
This function uniquely labels each transmitted segment of data. The receiving device uses the sequencing information to reassemble the information correctly.
This identifies the sender and the intended receiver of the message using a defined addressing scheme.
This function contains information used for process-to-process communications between network applications.
Function of sequencing protocols is...
This function uniquely labels each transmitted segment of data. The receiving device uses the sequencing information to reassemble the information correctly.
This function is used to determine if data became corrupted during transmission.
This function ensures that data flows at an efficient rate between two communicating devices. TCP provides flow control services.
This function provides guaranteed delivery mechanisms in case messages are lost or corrupted in transit.
Function of error-detection protocols is...
This function is used to determine if data became corrupted during transmission.
This function contains information used for process-to-process communications between network applications.
This function ensures that data flows at an efficient rate between two communicating devices. TCP provides flow control services.
This function provides guaranteed delivery mechanisms in case messages are lost or corrupted in transit.
Function of application-interface protocols is...
This function contains information used for process-to-process communications between network applications.
This function is used to determine if data became corrupted during transmission.
This function uniquely labels each transmitted segment of data. The receiving device uses the sequencing information to reassemble the information correctly.
This function provides guaranteed delivery mechanisms in case messages are lost or corrupted in transit.
UDP and TCP belong to which layer of the TCP/IP protocol?
Application
Transport
Internet
Network access
Which two protocols belong in the TCP/IP model application layer?
EIGRP
DNS
OSPF
ICMP
DHCP
Which protocol operates at the network access layer of the TCP/IP model?
HTTP
IP
DNS
Ethernet
Which of the following are protocols that provide feedback from the destination host to the source host regarding errors in packet delivery? (Choose two)
IPv4
TCP
ICMPv4
IPv6
ICMPv6
A device receives a data link frame with data and processes and removes the Ethernet information. What information would be the next to be processed by the receiving device?
HTTP at the application layer
IP at the internet layer
UDP at the internet layer
TCP at the transport layer
HTML at the application layer
Which services are provided by the internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three)
File Transfer
Address Resolution
Routing Protocols
Messaging
Internet Protocol
True or false. Standards organizations are usually vendor-neutral.
True
False
This standards organization is concerned with the Request for Comments (RFC) documents that specify new protocols and update existing ones.
Internet Society (ISOC)
Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
Internet Architecture Board (IAB)
Internet Research Task Force (IRTF)
This standards organization is responsible for IP address allocation and domain name management.
Internet Society (ISOC)
Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
Internet Architecture Board (IAB)
Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
What types of standards are developed by the Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA)?
Electric wiring and connectors
Radio equipment and cell towers
Video compression and broadband communications
Voice over IP (VoIP) and satellite communications
What is the process of dividing a large data stream into smaller pieces prior to transmission?
Sequencing
Duplexing
Multiplexing
Segmentation
What is the PDU associated with the transport layer?
Segment
Packet
Bits
Frame
What is the PDU associated with the network layer?
Segment
Packet
Bits
Frame
What is the PDU associated with the application layer?
Data
Segment
Packet
Frame
Bit
What is the PDU associated with the data-link layer?
Data
Segment
Packet
Frame
Bit
What is the name of the process of adding protocol information to data as it moves down the protocol stack?
De-encapsulation
Sequencing
Segmentation
Encapsulation
True or false? Frames exchanged between devices in different IP networks must be forwarded to a default gateway.
True
False
True or false? The right-most part of an IP address is used to identify the network that a device belongs to.
True
False
What is used to determine the network portion of an IPv4 address?
Subnet mask
MAC address
Right-most part of the IP address
Left-most part of the MAC address
Which of the following statements are true regarding network layer and data link layer addresses? (Choose three)
Network layer addresses are logical and data link addresses are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits.
Data link layer addresses are physical and network layer addresses are logical.
Network layer addresses are either 32 or 128 bits in length.
Network layer addresses are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits and data link layer addresses are decimal.
Data link layer addresses are 32 bits in length.
What is the order of the two addresses in the data link frame?
Destination MAC, source MAC
Source IP, destination IP
Destination IP, source IP
Destination MAC, source IP
Source MAC, destination MAC
What is the order of the two addresses in the network-layer frame?
Destination MAC, source MAC
Source IP, destination IP
Destination IP, source IP
Destination MAC, source IP
Source MAC, destination MAC
True or False? Data Link addresses are physical so they never change in the data link frame from source to destination.
Which three acronyms/initialisms represent standards organizations? (Choose three)
IANA
IEEE
IETF
TCP/IP
OSI
What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a local area network?
Broadcast
Multicast
Unicast
Allcast
In computer communication, what is the purpose of message encoding?
To convert information to the appropriate form for transmission
To interpret information
To break large messages into smaller frames
To negotiate correct timing for successful communication
Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously?
Duplex
Unicast
Multicast
Broadcast
What are two benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose two)
It assists in protocol design.
It speeds up packet delivery.
It prevents designers from creating their own model.
It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers.
It ensures a device at one layer can function at the next higher layer.
What is the purpose of protocols in data communications?
Specifying the bandwidth of the channel or medium for each type of communication
Specifying the device operating systems that will support the communication
Providing the rules required for a specific type of communication to occur
Dictating the content of the message sent during communication
Which logical address is used for delivery of data to a remote network?
Destination MAC address
Source MAC address
Source IP address
Destination IP address
What is the general term that is used to describe a piece of data at any layer of a networking model?
Frame
Packet
Protocol data unit
Segment
Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two)
POP
BOOTP
ICMP
IP
PPP
Which layer of the OSI model defines services to segment and reassemble data for individual communications between end devices?
Application
Presentation
Session
Transport
Network
Which type of communication will send a message to a group of host destinations simultaneously?
Broadcast
Multicast
Unicast
Anycast
What process is used to receive transmitted data and convert it into a readable message?
Access control
Decoding
Encapsulation
Flow control
What is done to an IP packet before it is transmitted over the physical medium?
It is tagged with information guaranteeing reliable delivery.
It is segmented into smaller individual pieces.
It is encapsulated into a TCP segment.
It is encapsulated in a Layer 2 frame.
What process is used to place one message inside another message for transfer from the source to the destination?
Access control
Decoding
Encapsulation
Flow control
A web client is sending a request for a webpage to a web server. From the perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to prepare the request for transmission?
HTTP, IP, TCP, Ethernet
HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet
Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP
Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP
True or false? The physical layer is only concerned with wired network connections.
The physical layer of the receiving device passes bits up to which higher level layer?
Application
Presentation
Network
Data link
What PDU is received by the physical layer for encoding and transmission?
Frame
Segment
Packet
The physical layer standards address three functional areas..
Physical Components
Encoding
Signaling
Trespassing
What is "encoding" (or line encoding) in physical layer?
Which media uses patterns of microwaves to represent bits?
Copper
Wireless
Fiber-optic
Which media uses patterns of light to represent bits?
Copper
Wireless
Fiber-optic
Which media uses electrical pulses to represent bits?
Copper
Wireless
Fiber-optic
Which of these is the name for the capacity of a medium to carry data?
Bandwidth
Throughput
Goodput
Which of these is a measure of the transfer of bits across the media?
Bandwidth
Throughput
Goodput
Which of the following attaches antennas to wireless devices? It can also be bundled with fiber-optic cabling for two-way data transmission.
UTP
STP
Coaxial
Which of the following counters EMI and RFI by using shielding techniques and special connectors?
UTP
STP
Coaxial
Which of the following is the most common network media?
UTP
STP
Coaxial
Which of the following terminates with BNC, N type and F type connectors?
UTP
STP
Coaxial
Which of the following fiber-optic cable types can help data travel approximately 500 meters?
Multimode
Single-mode
Which of the following fiber-optic cable types use light emitting diodes (LEDs) as a data light source transmitter?
Which of the following fiber-optic cable types use lasers in a single stream as a data light source transmitter?
Multimode
Single-mode
Which of the following fiber-optic cable types is used to connect long-distance telephony and cable TV applications?
Multimode
Single-mode
Which of the following fiber-optic cable types can travel approximately 100 km?
Multimode
Single-mode
Which of the following fiber-optic cable types is used within a campus network?
Multimode
Single-mode
What are standards of Wireless?
Wi-Fi (IEEE 802.11)
Bluetooth (IEEE 802.15)
WiMAX (IEEE 802:16)
Zigbee (IEEE 802.15.4)
True or false. Wireless is not well suited for enterprise networks.
True
False
True or false. Wireless LANs operate in full-duplex allowing all devices to send or receive data at the same time so the number of users does not impact performance.
True
False
Which of the following wireless standards is best suited for industrial and IoT environments?
Zigbee
WiMAX
Wi-Fi
Bluetooth
Which of the following wireless standards is used for Personal Area Networks (PANs) and allows devices to communicate over distances of 1 to 100 meters?
A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?
Presentation layer
Network layer
Physical layer
Data link layer
What type of cable is used to connect a workstation serial port to a Cisco router console port?
Crossover
Rollover
Straight-through
Coaxial
Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?
The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without degrading.
They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection.
They increase the speed at which the data can travel.
They allow for full-duplex connectivity.
Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?
Requiring proper grounding connections
Twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together
Wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
Designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
Avoiding sharp bends during installation
What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling rather than copper cabling?
It is usually cheaper than copper cabling.
It is able to be installed around sharp bends.
It is easier to terminate and install than copper cabling.
It is able to carry signals much farther than copper cabling.
A network administrator is designing a new network infrastructure that includes both wired and wireless connectivity. Under which situation would a wireless connection be recommended?
The end-user device only has an Ethernet NIC.
The end-user device requires a dedicated connection because of performance requirements.
The end-user device needs mobility when connecting to the network.
The end-user device area has a high concentration of RFI.
Which type of UTP cable is used to connect a PC to a switch port?
Console
Rollover
Crossover
Straight-through
What is the definition of bandwidth?
The speed of bits across the media over a given period of time
The speed at which bits travel on the network
The amount of data that can flow from one place to another in a given amount of time
The measure of usable data transferred over a given period of time
Which statement correctly describes frame encoding?
It uses the characteristic of one wave to modify another wave.
It transmits data signals along with a clock signal which occurs at evenly spaced time durations.
It generates the electrical, optical, or wireless signals that represent the binary numbers of the frame.
It converts bits into a predefined code in order to provide a predictable pattern to help distinguish data bits from control bits.
What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?
Cancellation
Cladding
Immunity to electrical hazards
Woven copper braid or metallic foil
A wireless LAN is being deployed inside the new one room office that is occupied by the park ranger. The office is located at the highest part of the national park. After network testing is complete, the technicians report that the wireless LAN signal is occasionally affected by some type of interference. What is a possible cause of the signal distortion?
The microwave oven
The large number of trees that surround the office
The elevated location where the wireless LAN was installed
The number of wireless devices that are used in the wireless LAN
What is the purpose of the OSI physical layer?
Controlling access to media
Transmitting bits across the local media
Performing error detection on received frames
Exchanging frames between nodes over physical network media
Which characteristic describes crosstalk?
The distortion of the network signal from fluorescent lighting
The distortion of the transmitted messages from signals carried in adjacent wires
The weakening of the network signal over long cable lengths
The loss of wireless signal over excessive distance from the access point
What is indicated by the term throughput?
The guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP
The capacity of a particular medium to carry data
The measure of the usable data transferred across the media
The measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time
The time it takes for a message to get from sender to receiver
Which standards organization oversees development of wireless LAN standards?
IANA
IEEE
ISO
TIA
What is another name for the OSI data link layer?
Layer 1
Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4
The IEEE 802 LAN/MAN data link layer consists of which two sublayers? (Choose two.)
Network Control Protocol
Logical Link Control
Media Access Control
Link Control Protocol
What is the responsibility of the MAC sublayer?
Adds Layer 3 addresses to the frame
Communicates with the network layer (Layer 3)
Provides the method to get the frame on and off the media
Transmits the bits on the media
What is the responsibility of the LLC sublayer?
Adds Layer 3 addresses to the frame
Communicates with the network layer (Layer 3)
Provides the method to get the frame on and off the media
Transmits the bits on the media
What Layer 2 function does a router perform?
Accepts a frame from a medium
De-encapsulates the frame
Re-encapsulates the packet into a new frame
Forwards the new frame appropriate to the medium of that segment of the physical network
The media access control method used depends on which two criteria?
Layer 3 IP protocol
Media sharing
Topology
Transport layer protocol
Type of data
Which organization defines standards for the network access layer (i.e., the OSI physical and data link layers)?
Cisco
IANA
IEEE
IETF
Which topology displays networking device layer IP addresses?
Aerial topology
IP address topology
Logical topology
Physical topology
What kind of network would use point-to-point, hub and spoke, or mesh topologies?
PAN
LAN
WLAN
WAN
Which LAN topology is a hybrid topology?
Bus
Extended star
Ring
Star
Which duplex communication method is used in WLANs?
Full-duplex
Half-duplex
Simplex
Which media access control method is used in legacy Ethernet LANs?
Carrier sense multiple access/collision annoyance
Carrier sense multiple access/collision avoidance
Carrier sense multiple access/collision destruction
Carrier sense multiple access/collision detection
What does the data link layer add to a Layer 3 packet to create a frame? (Choose two)
Flags
Sequence number
Header
Trailer
Which header frame fields are included in Layer 2?
Frame start
Addressing
Type
Control
Error Detection
Which trailer frame fields are included in Layer 2?
Frame stop
Addressing
Type
Control
Error Detection
Data link layer protocols include
Ethernet
802.11 Wireless
Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC)
Frame Relay
Which lists the Layer 2 and Layer 3 address fields in the correct order?
Destination NIC address, source NIC address, source IP address, destination IP address
Source NIC address, destination NIC address, source IP address, destination IP address
Destination NIC address, source NIC address, destination IP address, source IP address
Source NIC address, destination NIC address, destination IP address, source IP address
Which of the following are data link layer protocols? (Choose three)
802.11
Ethernet
IP
PPP
UDP
What identifier is used at the data link layer to uniquely identify an Ethernet device?
IP address
MAC address
Sequence number
TCP port number
UDP port number
What attribute of a NIC would place it at the data link layer of the OSI model?
Attached Ethernet cable
IP address
MAC address
RJ-45 port
TCP/IP protocol stack
Which two engineering organizations define open standards and protocols that apply to the data link layer? (Choose two)
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)
Internet Society (ISOC)
What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical topologies display the IP addressing scheme of each network.
Logical topologies refer to how a network transfers data between devices.
What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?
CSMA/CD (Wired)
Priority ordering
CSMA/CA (Wireless)
Token passing
A technician has been asked to develop a physical topology for a network that provides a high level of redundancy. Which physical topology requires that every node is attached to every other node on the network?
Bus
Hierarchical
Mesh
Ring
Star
Which statement describes the half-duplex mode of data transmission?
Data that is transmitted over the network can only flow in one direction.
Data that is transmitted over the network flows in one direction at a time.
Data that is transmitted over the network flows in one direction to many different destinations simultaneously.
Data that is transmitted over the network flows in both directions at the same time.
Which is a function of the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer?
To define the media access processes that are performed by the hardware
To provide data link layer addressing
To identify which network layer protocol is being used
To accept segments and package them into data units that are called packets
Which data link layer media access control method does Ethernet use with legacy Ethernet hubs?
CSMA/CD
Determinism
Turn taking
Token passing
What are the two sublayers of the OSI model data link layer? (Choose two)
Internet
Physical
LLC
Transport
MAC
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for specifying the encapsulation method used for specific types of media?
What type of physical topology can be created by connecting all Ethernet cables to a central device?
Bus
Ring
Star
Mesh
What are two services performed by the data link layer of the OSI model? (Choose two)
It fragments data packets into the MTU size.
It determines the path to forward packets.
It accepts Layer 3 packets and encapsulates them into frames.
It provides media access control and performs error detection.
It monitors the Layer 2 communication by building a MAC address table.
Although CSMA/CD is still a feature of Ethernet, why is it no longer necessary?
The virtually unlimited availability of IPv6 addresses
The use of CSMA/CA
The use of full-duplex capable Layer 2 switches
The development of half-duplex switch operation
The use of Gigabit Ethernet speeds
Which part of an Ethernet Frame uses a pad to increase the frame field to at least 64 bytes?
EtherType
Preamble
Start of Frame Delimiter
Data field
Which part of an Ethernet frame detects errors in the frame?
Preamble
Start of Frame Delimiter
Frame Check Sequence
Which part of an Ethernet Frame describes the higher-layer protocol that is encapsulated?
EtherType
Preamble
Start of Frame Delimiter
Frame Check Sequence
Which part of an Ethernet Frame notifies the receiver to get ready for a new frame?
Start of Frame Delimiter
Frame Check Sequence
Preamble
Data field
Which data link sublayer controls the network interface through software drivers?
MAC
LLC
Which data link sublayer works with the upper layers to add application information for delivery of data to higher level protocols?
MAC
LLC
What is a function of the MAC sublayer? (Choose three)
Controls access to the media
Checks for errors in received bits
Uses CSMA/CD or CSMA/CA to support Ethernet technology
Communicates between software at the upper layers and the device hardware at the lower layers
Allows multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media
Which OSI layer sends segments to be encapsulated in an IPv4 or IPv6 packet?
Data link layer
Network layer
Transport layer
Session layer
Which layer is responsible for taking an IP packet and preparing it for transmission over the communications medium?
Physical layer
Network layer
Data link layer
Transport layer
What is the term for splitting up an IP packet when forwarding it from one medium to another medium with a smaller MTU?
Encapsulation
Fragmentation
Segmentation
Serialization
Which delivery method does not guarantee that the packet will be delivered fully without errors?
Connectionless
Best effort
Media independent
What are the two most commonly referenced fields in an IPv4 packet header that indicate where the packet is coming from and where it is going? (Choose two.)
Destination IP address
Protocol
TTL
Source IP address
Differentiated Services (DS)
Which statement is correct about IPv4 packet header fields?
The source and destination IPv4 addresses remain the same while travelling from source to destination.
The Time to Live field is used to determine the priority of each packet.
The Total Length and Header Checksum fields are used to reorder a fragmented packet.
The Version field identifies the next level protocol.
Which field is used to detect corruption in the IPv4 header?
Header Checksum
TTL
Protocol
Differentiated Services (DS)
Which field includes common values such as ICMP (1), TCP (6), and UDP (17)?
Header Checksum
Time to Live
Protocol
Differentiated Services (DS)
Which three options are major issues associated with IPv4? (Choose three.)
IP address depletion
Increased network complexity and Internet routing table expansion
Always-active connection
Lack of end-to-end connectivity
Global and political boundaries
Which two options are improvements provided by IPv6 as compared to IPv4? (Choose two.)
Header supports additional fields for complex packets
Increased the IP address space
Standardizes the use of NAT
Supports class-based networks
Uses a simpler header to provide improved packet handling
Which is true of the IPv6 header?
It consists of 20 octets.
It consists of 40 octets.
It contains 8 header fields.
It contains 12 header fields.
Which is true of the IPv6 packet header?
The Hop Limit field replaces the IPv4 Time to Live field.
The Source and Destination IPv6 addresses change while travelling from source to destination.
The Time to Live field replaces the DiffServ field.
The Version field identifies the next header.
Which statement about host forwarding decisions is true?
A host cannot ping itself.
A remote destination host is on the same local network as the sending host.
Local hosts can reach each other without the need of a router.
Routing is enabled on switches to discover the best path to a destination.
Which default gateway statement is true?
A default gateway is required to send packets to other hosts on the local network.
The default gateway address is the IP address of a switch on a remote network.
The default gateway address is the IP address of the router on the local network.
Traffic can only be forwarded outside the local network if there is no default gateway.
Which two commands could be entered on a Windows host to view its IPv4 and IPv6 routing table? (Choose two.)
netroute -l
netstat -r
print route
route print
print net
What is the command used on a Cisco IOS router to view the routing table?
netstart -r
route print
show ip route
show routing table
What does a code of “O” indicate next to a route in the routing table?
A directly connected route
A route with an administrative distance of 0
A gateway of last resort
A route learned dynamically from OSPF
This type of route is also known as a gateway of last resort.
Static route
Remote route
Default route
Directly connected route
Which is a characteristic of static routes?
They are manually configured.
They are advertised to directly connected neighbors.
They are appropriate when there are many redundant links.
They automatically adjust to a change in network topology.
True or False? A router can be configured with a combination of both static routes and a dynamic routing protocol.
True
False
What two functions are provided by ARP? (Choose two.)
Maintains a table of IPv4 address to domain names
Maintains a table of IPv4 to MAC address mappings
Maintains a table of IPv6 to MAC address mappings
Resolves IPv4 addresses to domain names
Resolves IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
Where is the ARP table stored on a device?
ROM
Flash
NVRAM
RAM
Which statement is true about ARP?
An ARP cache cannot be manually deleted.
ARP entries are cached permanently.
ARP entries are cached temporarily.
Which command could be used on a Cisco router to view its ARP table?
arp -a
arp -d
show arp table
show ip arp
What is an attack using ARP?
ARP broadcasts
ARP hopping attacks
ARP poisoning
ARP starvation
Which two ICMPv6 messages are used in SLAAC?
Neighbor advertisement
Neighbor solicitation
Router advertisement
Router solicitation
Which two ICMPv6 messages are used in to determine the MAC address of a known IPv6 address?
Neighbor advertisement
Neighbor solicitation
Router advertisement
Router solicitation
To what type of address are ICMPv6 neighbor solicitation messages sent?
Unicast
Multicast
Broadcast
Which router component holds the routing table, ARP cache, and running configuration file?
RAM
Flash
NVRAM
ROM
What type of information is contained in an ARP table?
Switch ports associated with destination MAC addresses
Domain name to IPv4 address mappings
Routes to reach destination networks
IPv4 address to MAC address mappings
A PC is configured to obtain an IPv4 address automatically from network 192.168.1.0/24. The network administrator issues the arp -a command and notices an entry of 192.168.1.255 ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff. Which statement describes this entry?
This is a static map entry.
This is a dynamic map entry.
This entry refers to the PC itself.
This entry maps to the default gateway.
A cybersecurity analyst believes an attacker is spoofing the MAC address of the default gateway to perform a man-in-the-middle attack. Which command should the analyst use to view the MAC address a host is using to reach the default gateway?
ipconfig /all
route print
netstat -r
arp -a
What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?
It initiates an ARP request.
It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.
It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.
It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.
Which two ICMPv6 messages are used during the Ethernet MAC address resolution process? (Choose two.)
Router solicitation
Router advertisement
Neighbor solicitation
Neighbor advertisement
Echo request
How does the ARP process use an IPv4 address?
To determine the MAC address of the remote destination host
To determine the MAC address of a device on the same network
To determine the amount of time a packet takes when traveling from source to destination
To determine the network number based on the number of bits in the IPv4 address
What is one function of the ARP protocol?
Obtaining an IPv4 address automatically
Mapping a domain name to its IP address
Resolving an IPv4 address to a MAC address
Maintaining a table of domain names with their resolved IP addresses
Which action is taken by a Layer 2 switch when it receives a Layer 2 broadcast frame?
It drops the frame.
It sends the frame to all ports except the port on which it received the frame.
It sends the frame to all ports that are registered to forward broadcasts.
It sends the frame to all ports.
What addresses are mapped by ARP?
IPv4 address to a destination MAC address
Destination IPv4 address to the source MAC address
Destination IPv4 address to the destination host name
Destination MAC address to the source IPv4 address
When an IPv4 packet is sent to a host on a remote network, what information is provided by ARP?
The IPv4 address of the destination host
The IPv4 address of the default gateway
The MAC address of the router interface closest to the sending host
The MAC address of the switch port that connects to the sending host
The ARP table in a switch maps which two types of address together?
Layer 3 address to a Layer 2 address
Layer 3 address to a Layer 4 address
Layer 4 address to a Layer 2 address
Layer 2 address to a Layer 4 address
What is the purpose of ARP in an IPv4 network?
To forward data onward based on the destination IP address
To obtain a specific MAC address when an IP address is known
To forward data onward based on the destination MAC address.
To build the MAC address table in a switch from the information that is gathered
Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask 10.5.4.100 255.255.255.0. What is the network address of Host-A?
10.0.0.0
10.5.0.0
10.5.4.0
10.5.4.100
Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask 172.16.4.100 255.255.0.0. What is the network address of Host-A?
172.0.0.0
172.16.0.0
172.16.4.0
172.16.4.100
Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask 10.5.4.100 255.255.255.0. Which of the following IPv4 addresses would be on the same network as Host-A? (Choose all that apply)
10.5.4.1
10.5.0.1
10.5.4.99
10.0.0.98
10.5.100.4
Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask 172.16.4.100 255.255.0.0. Which of the following IPv4 addresses would be on the same network as Host-A? (Choose all that apply)
172.16.4.99
172.16.0.1
172.17.4.99
172.17.4.1
172.18.4.1
Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask 192.168.1.50 255.255.255.0. Which of the following IPv4 addresses would be on the same network as Host-A? (Choose all that apply)
192.168.0.1
192.168.0.100
192.168.1.1
192.168.1.100
192.168.2.1
Which two statements are correct about private IPv4 addresses? (Choose two.)
Private IPv4 addresses are assigned to devices within an organization’s intranet (internal network).
Internet routers will typically forward any packet with a destination address that is a private IPv4 address.
172.99.1.1 is a private IPv4 address.
Any organization (home, school, office, company) can use the 10.0.0.0/8 address.
Which two statements are correct about public IPv4 addresses? (Choose two.)
Public IPv4 addresses are allowed to be assigned to devices within an organization’s intranet (internal network).
To access a device over the internet, the destination IPv4 address must be a public address.
192.168.1.10 is a public IPv4 address.
Public IPv4 address exhaustion is a reason why there are private IPv4 addresses and why organizations are transitioning to IPv6.
Which organization or group of organizations receives IP addresses from IANA and is responsible for allocating these addresses to ISPs and some organizations?
IETF
IEEE
RIRs
Tier-1 ISPs
Which devices will not forward an IPv4 broadcast packet by default?
Ethernet switch
Router
Windows PC
None of the above. All devices forward IPv4 broadcast packets by default.
Which two situations are the result of excessive broadcast traffic? (Choose two)
Slow network operations
Slow device operations
When devices on all adjacent networks are affected
When the router has to forward an excessive number of packets
What is the prefix length notation for the subnet mask 255.255.255.224?
/25
/26
/27
/28
How many valid host addresses are available on an IPv4 subnet that is configured with a /26 mask?
254
190
192
62
Which subnet mask would be used if 5 host bits are available?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
A network administrator subnets the 192.168.10.0/24 network into subnets with /26 masks. How many equal-sized subnets are created?
1
2
4
8
What subnet mask is represented by the slash notation /20?
255.255.255.248
255.255.224.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?
Each subnet is the same size.
The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.
Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time.
Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional subnets.
Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP address and subnet mask?
To identify the broadcast address of the destination network
To identify the host address of the destination host
To identify faulty frames
To identify the network address of the destination network
How many usable IP addresses are available on the 192.168.1.0/27 network?
256
254
62
30
16
Which subnet mask would be used if exactly 4 host bits are available?
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
Which two parts are components of an IPv4 address? (Choose two.)
Subnet portion
Network portion
Logical portion
Host portion
Physical portion
If a network device has a mask of /26, how many IP addresses are available for hosts on this network?
64
30
62
32
14
What does the IP address 172.17.4.250/24 represent?
Network address
Multicast address
Host address
Broadcast address
If a network device has a mask of /28, how many IP addresses are available for hosts on this network?
256
254
62
32
14
What is the purpose of the subnet mask in conjunction with an IP address?
To uniquely identify a host on a network
To identify whether the address is public or private
To determine the subnet to which the host belongs
To mask the IP address to outsiders
A network administrator is variably subnetting a network. The smallest subnet has a mask of 255.255.255.224. How many usable host addresses will this subnet provide?
2
6
14
30
62
What is the most important motivating factor for moving to IPv6?
Better performance with IPv6
IPv6 addresses that are easier to work with
Better security with IPv6
Depletion of IPv4 addresses
True or False: 4 out of 5 RIRs no longer have enough IPv4 addresses to allocate to customers on a regular basis.
True
False
Which of the following techniques use native IPv6 connectivity?
Dual stack
Tunneling
Translation
What is the recommended prefix length for most IPv6 subnets?
/32
/48
/64
/128
Which part of a GUA is assigned by the ISP?
Global routing prefix
Global routing prefix and subnet ID
Prefix
RIR prefix
Which type of IPv6 unicast address is not routable between networks?
Unique local address
GUA
Embedded IPv4 address
LLA
True or false? The Subnet ID field in an GUA must borrow bits from the interface ID.
True
False
What type of IPv6 address begins with fe80?
GUA
LLA
Multicast address
None. An IPv6 address must begin with 2001.
True or false? RA messages are sent to all IPv6 routers by hosts requesting addressing information.
True
False
Which dynamic addressing method for GUAs is the one where devices rely solely on the contents of the RA message for their addressing information?
Method 1: SLAAC
Method 2: SLAAC and stateless DHCPv6
Method 3: Stateful DHCPv6
Which dynamic addressing method for GUAs is the one where devices rely solely on a DHCPv6 server for their addressing information?
Method 1: SLAAC
Method 2: SLAAC and stateless DHCPv6
Method 3: Stateful DHCPv6
Which dynamic addressing method for GUAs is the one where devices get their IPv6 configuration in a RA message and request DNS information from a DHCPv6 server?
Method 1: SLAAC
Method 2: SLAAC and stateless DHCPv6
Method 3: Stateful DHCPv6
What are the two methods a device can use to generate its own IPv6 interface ID?
SLAAC
Stateless DHCPv6
Stateful DHCPv6
EUI-64
Randomly generated
True or False? IPv6 was designed with subnetting in mind.
True
False
Which field in an IPv6 GUA is used for subnetting?
Prefix
Network
Global Routing Prefix
Subnet ID
Interface ID
Given a /48 Global Routing Prefix and a /64 prefix, what is the subnet portion of the following address: 2001:db8:cafe:1111:2222:3333:4444:5555
cafe
1111
2222
3333
4444
Given a /32 Global Routing Prefix and a /64 prefix, how many bits would be allocated for the Subnet ID?
8
16
32
48
64
What is the valid most compressed format possible of the IPv6 address 2001:0DB8:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:1234?
2001:DB8:0:AB00::1234
2001:DB8:0:AB::1234
2001:DB8::AB00::1234
2001:DB8:0:AB:0:1234
What is the prefix associated with the IPv6 address 2001:DB8:D15:EA:CC44::1/64?
2001::/64
2001:DB8::/64
2001:DB8:D15:EA::/64
2001:DB8:D15:EA:CC44::/64
What type of address is automatically assigned to an interface when IPv6 is enabled on that interface?
Global unicast
Link-local
Loopback
Unique local
Which IPv6 network prefix is only intended for local links and can not be routed?
2001::/3
FC00::/7
FE80::/10
FF00::/12
What is the purpose of the command ping ::1?
It tests the internal configuration of an IPv6 host.
It tests the broadcast capability of all hosts on the subnet.
It tests the multicast connectivity to all hosts on the subnet.
It tests the reachability of the default gateway for the network.
What is the interface ID of the IPv6 address 2001:DB8::1000:A9CD:47FF:FE57:FE94/64?
FE94
FE57:FE94
47FF:FE57:FE94
A9CD:47FF:FE57:FE94
1000:A9CD:47FF:FE57:FE94
What is the network address for the IPv6 address 2001:DB8:AA04:B5::1/64?
2001::/64
2001:DB8::/64
2001:DB8:AA04::/64
2001:DB8:AA04:B5::/64
Which address type is not supported in IPv6?
Private
Multicast
Unicast
Broadcast
What is indicated by a successful ping to the ::1 IPv6 address?
The host is cabled properly.
The default gateway address is correctly configured.
All hosts on the local link are available.
The link-local address is correctly configured.
IP is properly installed on the host.
What is the most compressed representation of the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0001?
2001:0db8:abcd::1
2001:db8:0:abcd::1
2001:0db8:abcd::0001
2001:0db8:0000:abcd::1
2001:db8::abcd:0:1
What is the minimum configuration for a router interface that is enabled for IPv6?
To have a link-local IPv6 address
To have both an IPv4 and an IPv6 address
To have a self-generated loopback address
To have both a link-local and a global unicast IPv6 address
At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?
Link-local
Unique local
Site local
Global unicast
What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)
An interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host
A global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP
A subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site
A global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator
An interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network
Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:db8:130f::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create /64 subnetworks if interface ID bits are not borrowed?
8
16
80
128
Which type of IPv6 address is not routable and used only for communication on a single subnet?
Global unicast address
Link-local address
Loopback address
Unique local address
Unspecified address
What are Destination Unreachable codes for ICMPv4?
0 - Net unreachable
1 - Host unreachable
2 - Protocol unreachable
3 - Port unreachable
1 - Communication with the destination is administratively prohibited (e.g., firewall)
Some of the Destination Unreachable codes for ICMPv6 are as follows:
0 - No route to destination
1 - Communication with the destination is administratively prohibited (e.g., firewall)
2 - Beyond scope of the source address
3 - Address unreachable
4 - Port unreachable
Which two types of ICMP messages are common to both ICMPv4 and ICMPv6? (Choose two.)
Destination or Service Unreachable
Hostname resolution
IP configuration
Source Unreachable
Time exceeded
Which type of ICMPv6 message would a host send to acquire an IPv6 configuration when booting up?
Neighbor Advertisement (NA) message
Neighbor Solicitation (NS) message
Router Advertisement (RA) message
Router Solicitation (RS) message
A technician is troubleshooting a network where it is suspected that a defective node in the network path is causing packets to be dropped. The technician only has the IP address of the end point device and does not have any details of the intermediate devices. What command can the technician use to identify the faulty node?
tracert
ping
ipconfig /flushdns
ipconfig /displaydns
A user who is unable to connect to the file server contacts the help desk. The helpdesk technician asks the user to ping the IP address of the default gateway that is configured on the workstation. What is the purpose for this ping command?
To obtain a dynamic IP address from the server
To request that gateway forward the connection request to the file server
To test that the host has the capability to reach hosts on other networks
To resolve the domain name of the file server to its IP address
What is a function of the tracert command that differs from the ping command when they are used on a workstation?
The tracert command reaches the destination faster.
The tracert command shows the information of routers in the path.
The tracert command sends one ICMP message to each hop in the path.
The tracert command is used to test the connectivity between two devices.
Which ICMP message is used by the traceroute utility during the process of finding the path between two end hosts?
Redirect
Ping
Time exceeded
Destination unreachable
Which utility uses the Internet Control Messaging Protocol (ICMP)?
RIP
DNS
Ping
NTP
Which protocol is used by IPv4 and IPv6 to provide error messaging?
ICMP
NDP
ARP
DHCP
A network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the ping command on a router. Which symbol will be displayed to indicate that a time expired during the wait for an ICMP echo reply message?
!
.
U
$
Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)
The number of routers between the source and destination device
The IP address of the router nearest the destination device
The average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source
The destination device is reachable through the network
The average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond
A user calls to report that a PC cannot access the internet. The network technician asks the user to issue the command ping 127.0.0.1 in a command prompt window. The user reports that the result is four positive replies. What conclusion can be drawn based on this connectivity test?
The PC can access the network. The problem exists beyond the local network.
The IP address obtained from the DHCP server is correct.
The PC can access the Internet. However, the web browser may not work.
The TCP/IP implementation is functional.
Which command can be used to test connectivity between two devices using echo request and echo reply messages?
netstat
ipconfig
ICMP
ping
What field content is used by ICMPv6 to determine that a packet has expired?
TTL field
CRC field
Hop Limit field
Time Exceeded field
Which protocol provides feedback from the destination host to the source host about errors in packet delivery?
ARP
BOOTP
DNS
ICMP
A network administrator can successfully ping the server at www.cisco.com, but cannot ping the company web server located at an ISP in another city. Which tool or command would help identify the specific router where the packet was lost or delayed?
ipconfig
netstat
telnet
traceroute
What message is sent by a host to check the uniqueness of an IPv6 address before using that address?
Neighbor solicitation
ARP request
Echo request
Router solicitation
Which layer is responsible for establishing a temporary communication session between the source and destination host applications?
Application layer
Data link layer
Network layer
Physical layer
Transport layer
Which three are transport layer responsibilities? (Choose three.)
Conversation multiplexing
Identifying frames
Identifying routing information
Segmenting data and reassembling segments
Tracking individual conversations
Which transport layer protocol statement is true?
TCP has fewer fields than UDP.
TCP is faster than UDP.
UDP is a best-effort delivery protocol.
UDP provides reliability.
Which transport layer protocol would be used for VoIP applications?
Session Information Protocol (SIP)
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
VoIP Transfer Protocol
Which transport layer protocol would be used for HTTP and SMTP/IMAP applications?
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
Which transport layer protocol ensures reliable same-order delivery?
ICMP
IP
TCP
UDP
Which TCP header statement is true?
It consists of 4 fields in an 8-byte header.
It consists of 8 fields in a 10-byte header.
It consists of 10 fields in a 20-byte header.
It consists of 20 fields in a 40-byte header.
Which two applications would use the TCP transport layer protocol? (Choose two.)
FTP
HTTP
ICMP
TFTP
VoIP
Which of the following is a stateless best-effort delivery transport layer protocol?
ICMP
IP
TCP
UDP
Which UDP header statement is true?
It consists of 4 fields in an 8-byte header.
It consists of 8 fields in a 10-byte header.
It consists of 10 fields in a 20-byte header.
It consists of 20 fields in a 40-byte header.
Which two applications would use the UDP transport layer protocol? (Choose two.)
FTP
HTTP
ICMP
TFTP
VoIP
Which two fields are the same in a TCP and UDP header? (Choose two.)
Control bits
Destination port number
Sequence number
Source port number
Well-known port number
Assume a host with IP address 10.1.1.10 wants to request web services from a server at 10.1.1.254. Which of the following would display the correct socket pair?
1099:10.1.1.10, 80:10.1.1.254
10.1.1.10:80, 10.1.1.254:1099
10.1.1.10:1099, 10.1.1.254:80
80:10.1.1.10, 1099:10.1.1.254
Which port group includes port numbers for FTP, HTTP, and TFTP applications?
Dynamic ports
Private ports
Registered ports
Well-known ports
Which Windows command would display the protocols in use, the local address and port numbers, the foreign address and port numbers, and the connection state?
Ipconfig /all
Ping
Netstat
Traceroute
Which of the following would be valid source and destination ports for a host connecting to an email server?
Source: 25, Destination: 49152
Source: 80, Destination: 49152
Source: 49152, Destination: 25
Source: 49152, Destination: 80
Which control bit flags are used during the three-way handshake?
ACK and FIN
FIN and RESET
RESET and SYN
SYN and ACK
How many exchanges are needed to end both sessions between two hosts?
One exchange
Two exchanges
Three exchanges
Four exchanges
Five exchanges
What field is used by the destination host to reassemble segments into the original order?
Control Bits
Destination Port
Sequence Number
Source Port
Window Size
What field is used to provide flow control?
Control Bits
Destination Port
Sequence Number
Source Port
Window Size
What happens when a sending host senses there is congestion?
The receiving host increases the number of bytes it sends before receiving an acknowledgment from the sending host.
The receiving host reduces the number of bytes it sends before receiving an acknowledgment from the sending host.
The sending host increases the number of bytes it sends before receiving an acknowledgment from the destination host.
The sending host reduces the number of bytes it sends before receiving an acknowledgment from the destination host.
Why is UDP desirable for protocols that make a simple request and reply transactions?
Flow Control
Low overhead
Reliability
Same-order delivery
Which UDP datagram reassembly statement is true?
UDP does not reassemble the data.
UDP reassembles the data in the order that it was received.
UDP reassembles the data using control bits.
UDP reassembles the data using sequence numbers.
Which of the following would be valid source and destination ports for a host connecting to a DNS server?
Source: 53, Destination: 49152
Source: 1812, Destination: 49152
Source: 49152, Destination: 53
Source: 49152, Destination: 1812
This layer of the OSI model is concerned with the protocols that exchange data between programs running on hosts.
Application
Transport
Network
Physical
MKV, GIF, and JPG standards are associated with which OSI layer?
Application
Presentation
Session
Transport
These three OSI layers define the same functions as the TCP/IP model application layer.
Application
Presentation
Session
Transport
Network
Which two are protocols that belong in the OSI application layer?
PNG
DNS
SMTP
QuickTime
This is a function of the OSI session layer.
Compress and decompress data
Provide an interface between applications
Format data for the application layer
Exchange of information to initiate dialog between peers
True or false? The peer-to-peer networking model requires the implementation of a dedicated server for data access.
True
False
True or false? In a peer-to-peer network environment every peer can function as both a client and a server.
True
False
Which peer-to-peer application allows users to share pieces of many files with each other at the same time?
Hybrid
Gnutella
BitTorrent
Which of the following is a feature of the Gnutella protocol?
Users can share whole files with other users.
Users can share pieces of files with other users.
Users can access an index server to get the location of resources shared by other users.
This message type is used when uploading data files to a web server.
GET
POST
PUT
This protocol is used by a web browser to establish a connection to a web server.
HTTP
SSL
IMAP
SMTP
This protocol is used by a client to send email to a mail server.
POP
SMTP
IMAP
HTTP
Which is a feature of IMAP?
It uploads email messages to a server.
It listens passively on port 110 for client requests.
It downloads a copy of email messages leaving the original on the server.
True or false? HTTP is a secure protocol.
True
False
Which of the following DNS record types is used to resolve IPv6 addresses?
A
NS
AAAA
MX
True or false? A DNS server that receives a request for a name resolution that is not within its DNS zone will send a failure message to the requesting client.
True
False
Which of the following is displayed by the nslookup utility?
The configured default DNS server
The IP address of the end device
All cached DNS entries
Which of the following DNS resource record types resolves authoritative name servers?
NS
A
MX
AAAA
How many connections are required by FTP between client and server?
1
2
3
4
True or false? FTP data transfers take place from client to server (push) and from server to client (pull).
True
False
Which of these ports are used by FTP? (Choose two.)
20
21
25
110
True or false? Resource sharing over SMB is only supported on Microsoft operating systems.
True
False
Which statement correctly relates to a small network?
Small networks are complex.
Small networks require an IT department to maintain.
The majority of businesses are small.
Which factor must be considered when selecting network devices?
color
console connections
cost
elasticity
What is necessary to plan and use when implementing a network?
device names
IP addressing scheme
MAC addressing scheme
printer location
What is required to maintain a high degree of reliability and eliminate single points of failure?
accessibility
expandability
integrity
redundancy
What is required to classify traffic according to priority?
IP addressing scheme
quality of service (QoS)
routing
switching
What are two forms of software programs or processes that provide access to the network? (Choose two.)
antivirus software
application layer services
gaming software
network applications
productivity software
Which two network protocols are used to establish a remote access network connection to a device? (Choose two.)
Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
Remote Connect (RC)
Secure Shell (SSH)
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
Telnet
Which elements are required to scale to a larger network? (Choose two.)
Budget
Device configurations
Increased bandwidth
Network documentation
Windows hosts
Which software installed on key hosts can reveal the types of network traffic flowing through the network?
Linux
MacOS
SSH
Windows
Wireshark
What Windows 10 tool is useful to determine which applications are using network services on a host?
Control panel
Data Usage
File Manager
Windows Defender Firewall
Windows Explorer
A technician is troubleshooting a network problem and has just established a theory of probable causes. What would be the next step in the troubleshooting process?
Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
Establish a plan of action and implement the solution.
Identify the problem.
Test the theory to determine cause.
Verify solution and implement preventive measures.
A technician is troubleshooting a network problem. After troubleshooting, the technician concludes that a switch should be replaced. What should the technician do next?
Email all users to let them know they are replacing a switch.
Escalate the trouble ticket to the manager to approve the change.
Purchase a new switch and replace the defective one.
Resolve the problem.
A technician is using the debug ip icmp privileged EXEC command to capture live router output. Which commands would stop this debug command on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)
debug ip icmp off
no debug debug ip icmp
no debug ip icmp
undebug all
undebug debug ip icmp
A technician has established a remote connection to router R1 to observe debug output. The technician enters the debug ip icmp command then pings a remote destination. However, no output is displayed. Which command would the technician have to enter to display log messages on a remote connection?
monitor debug output
monitor terminal
terminal monitor
terminal monitor debug
Which two traffic types require delay sensitive delivery? (Choose two.)
web
FТР
voice
video
A network technician suspects that a particular network connection between two Cisco switches is having a duplex mismatch. Which command would the technician use to see the Layer 1 and Layer 2 details of a switch port?
show interfaces
show running-config
show ip interface brief
show mac-address-table
Which statement is true about CDP on a Cisco device?
The show cdp neighbor detail command will reveal the IP address of a neighbor only if there is Layer 3 connectivity.
To disable CDP globally, the no cdp enable command in interface configuration mode must be used.
CDP can be disabled globally or on a specific interface.
Because it runs at the data link layer, the CDP protocol can only be implemented in switches.
What factor should be considered in the design of a small network when devices are being chosen?
cost of devices
redundancy
traffic analysis
ISP
A user is unable to reach the website when typing http://www.cisco.com in a web browser, but can reach the same site by typing http://72.163.4.161. What is the issue?
default gateway
DHCP
DNS
TCP/IP protocol stack
Where are Cisco IOS debug output messages sent by default?
memory buffers
vty lines
Syslog server
console line
Which element of scaling a network involves identifying the physical and logical topologies?
traffic analysis
network documentation
device inventory
cost analysis
What mechanism can be implemented in a small network to help minimize network latency for real-time streaming applications?
QoS
PoE
AAA
ICMP
Which process failed if a computer cannot access the internet and received an IP address of 169.254.142.5?
IP
DNS
DHCP
HTTP
A small company has only one router as the exit point to its ISP. Which solution could be adopted to maintain connectivity if the router itself, or its connection to the ISP, fails?
Activate another router interface that is connected to the ISP, so the traffic can flow through it.
Have a second router that is connected to another ISP.
Purchase a second least-cost link from another ISP to connect to this router.
Add more interfaces to the router that is connected to the internal network.
When should an administrator establish a network baseline?
when the traffic is at peak in the network
when there is a sudden drop in traffic
at the lowest point of traffic in the network
at regular intervals over a period of time
Which network design consideration would be more important to a large corporation than to a small business?
Internet router
firewall
low port density switch
redundancy
A newly hired network technician is given the task of ordering new hardware for a small business with a large growth forecast. Which primary factor should the technician be concerned with when choosing the new devices?
devices with a fixed number and type of interfaces
devices that have support for network monitoring
redundant devices
devices with support for modularity
What type of traffic would most likely have the highest priority through the network?
FTP
instant messaging
voice
SNMP
A network technician is investigating network connectivity from a PC to a remote host with the address 10.1.1.5. Which command, when issued on a Windows PC, will display the path to the remote host?
trace 10.1.1.5
traceroute 10.1.1.5
tracert 10.1.1.5
ping 10.1.1.5
Which component is designed to protect against unauthorized communications to and from a computer?
security center
antimalware
antivirus
firewall
Which command will block login attempts on RouterA for a period of 30 seconds if there are 2 failed login attempts within 10 seconds?
RouterA(config)# login block-for 10 attempts 2 within 30
RouterA(config)# login block-for 30 attempts 2 within 10
RouterA(config)# login block-for 2 attempts 30 within 10
RouterA(config)# login block-for 30 attempts 10 within 2
What is the purpose of the network security accounting function?
to require users to prove who they are
to determine which resources a user can access
to keep track of the actions of a user
to provide challenge and response questions
What type of attack may involve the use of tools such as nslookup and fping?
access attack
reconnaissance attack
denial of service attack
worm attack
Which example of malicious code would be classified as a Trojan horse?
malware that was written to look like a video game
malware that requires manual user intervention to spread between systems
malware that attaches itself to a legitimate program and spreads to other programs when launched
malware that can automatically spread from one system to another by exploiting a vulnerability in the target
What is the difference between a virus and a worm?
Viruses self-replicate but worms do not.
Worms self-replicate but viruses do not.
Worms require a host file but viruses do not.
Viruses hide in legitimate programs but worms do not.
Which attack involves a compromise of data that occurs between two end points?
denial-of-service
man-in-the-middle attack
extraction of security parameters
username enumeration
Which type of attack involves an adversary attempting to gather information about a network to identify vulnerabilities?
reconnaissance
DoS
dictionary
man-in-the-middle
What is the purpose of the network security authentication function?
to require users to prove who they are
to determine which resources a user can access
to keep track of the actions of a user
to provide challenge and response questions
Which firewall feature is used to ensure that packets coming into a network are legitimate responses to requests initiated from internal hosts?
stateful packet inspection
URL filtering
application filtering
packet filtering
When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?
exec-timeout 30
service password-encryption
banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$
login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60
What feature of SSH makes it more secure than Telnet for a device management connection?
confidentiality with IPsec
stronger password requirement
random one-time port connection
login information and data encryption
What is the advantage of using SSH over Telnet?
SSH is easier to use.
SSH operates faster than Telnet.
SSH provides secure communications to access hosts.
SSH supports authentication for a connection request.
What is the role of an IPS?
detecting and blocking of attacks in real time
connecting global threat information to Cisco network security devices
authenticating and validating traffic
filtering of nefarious websites
A user is redesigning a network for a small company and wants to ensure security at a reasonable price. The user deploys a new application-aware firewall with intrusion detection capabilities on the ISP connection. The user installs a second firewall to separate the company network from the public network. Additionally, the user installs an IPS on the internal network of the company. What approach is the user implementing?
attack based
risk based
structured
layered
What is an accurate description of redundancy?
configuring a router with a complete MAC address database to ensure that all frames can be forwarded to the correct destination
configuring a switch with proper security to ensure that all traffic forwarded through an interface is filtered
designing a network to use multiple virtual devices to ensure that all traffic uses the best path through the internetwork
designing a network to use multiple paths between switches to ensure there is no single point of failure
A network administrator is upgrading a small business network to give high priority to real-time applications traffic. What two types of network services is the network administrator trying to accommodate? (Choose two.)
voice
video
instant messaging
FTP
SNMP
What is the purpose of a small company using a protocol analyzer utility to capture network traffic on the network segments where the company is considering a network upgrade?
to identify the source and destination of local network traffic
to capture the Internet connection bandwidth requirement
to document and analyze network traffic requirements on each network segment
to establish a baseline for security analysis after the network is upgraded
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is testing connectivity to a remote device with the IP address 10.1.1.1. What does the output of this command indicate?
Connectivity to the remote device was successful.
A router along the path did not have a route to the destination.
A ping packet is being blocked by a security device along the path.
The connection timed out while waiting for a reply from the remote device.
A network engineer is analyzing reports from a recently performed network baseline. Which situation would depict a possible latency issue?
a change in the bandwidth according to the show interfaces output
a next-hop timeout from a traceroute
an increase in host-to-host ping response times
a change in the amount of RAM according to the show version output
A user reports a lack of network connectivity. The technician takes control of the user machine and attempts to ping other computers on the network and these pings fail. The technician pings the default gateway and that also fails. What can be determined for sure by the results of these tests?
The NIC in the PC is bad.
The TCP/IP protocol is not enabled.
The router that is attached to the same network as the workstation is down.
Nothing can be determined for sure at this point.
A network engineer is troubleshooting connectivity issues among interconnected Cisco routers and switches. Which command should the engineer use to find the IP address information, host name, and IOS version of neighboring network devices?
show version
show ip route
show interfaces
show cdp neighbors detail
An employee complains that a Windows PC cannot connect to the Internet. A network technician issues the ipconfig command on the PC and is shown an IP address of 169.254.10.3. Which two conclusions can be drawn? (Choose two.)
The PC cannot contact a DHCP server.
The DNS server address is misconfigured.
The default gateway address is not configured.
The PC is configured to obtain an IP address automatically.
The enterprise network is misconfigured for dynamic routing.
On which two interfaces or ports can security be improved by configuring executive timeouts? (Choose two.)
Fast Ethernet interfaces
console ports
serial interfaces
vty ports
loopback interfaces
When configuring SSH on a router to implement secure network management, a network engineer has issued the login local and transport input ssh line vty commands. What three additional configuration actions have to be performed to complete the SSH configuration? (Choose three.)
Set the user privilege levels.
Generate the asymmetric RSA keys.
Configure the correct IP domain name.
Configure role-based CLI access.
Create a valid local username and password database.
What is considered the most effective way to mitigate a worm attack?
Change system passwords every 30 days.
Ensure that all systems have the most current virus definitions.
Ensure that AAA is configured in the network.
Download security updates from the operating system vendor and patch all vulnerable systems.
Which statement describes the ping and tracert commands?
Tracert shows each hop, while ping shows a destination reply only.
Tracert uses IP addresses; ping does not.
Both ping and tracert can show results in a graphical display.
Ping shows whether the transmission is successful; tracert does not.
A network technician is troubleshooting an issue and needs to verify the IP addresses of all interfaces on a router. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?
show ip interface brief
nslookup
ipconfig getifaddr en0
show ip route
A support technician needs to know the IP address of the wireless interface on a MAC. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?
ipconfig getifaddr en0
copy running-config startup-config
show interfaces
show ip nat translations
Only employees connected to IPv6 interfaces are having difficulty connecting to remote networks. The analyst wants to verify that IPv6 routing has been enabled. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?
show running-config
show interfaces
copy running-config startup-config
show ip nat translations
An administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues and needs to determine the IP address of a website. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?
nslookup
show ipv6 route
show ipv6 interface
copy startup-config running-config
What is a characteristic of UDP?
UDP datagrams take the same path and arrive in the correct order at the destination.
Applications that use UDP are always considered unreliable.
UDP reassembles the received datagrams in the order they were received.
UDP only passes data to the network when the destination is ready to receive the data.