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Worksheets

MECHANIC 2

Total questions: 126

Worksheet time: 2hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

On A350 Main Hydraulic Power. Which answer is right?

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

2.

Green Hydraulic System Supply to which system?

a)

Nose LDG and Related Door, Main LDG and Related Door, Flight Control

b)

Main LDG and Related Door, Flight Control and RAT Retraction

c)

Main LDG and related Door, AFT Wheel Brake(5, 6, 7, 8), Steering System

3.

Hydraulic System Reservoir is Bootstrap Type? What the mean to pressurized hydraulic reservoir to prevent pump cavitation?

a)

Using Air come from Bleed System

b)

Using outlet Hydraulic Pressure

c)

Using air from GSE

4.

Hydraulic System Accumulator is pre-charge by?

a)

Nitrogen air with pressure relate to temperature

b)

Hallo Filled

c)

Filled Helium and no maintenance during service life

5.

In case of follow, Hydraulic Engine Pump go to standby mode?

a)

Engine Start

b)

Fuel LO Level in Wing Tank and Hydraulic Temperature more than certain threshold

c)

All above

6.

Put the Hydraulic Systems in the Depressurized-for-Maintenance Configuration with the Reservoir Depressurized?

a)

You can manual turn De Press Knot on relate Reservoir

b)

Push De-Press Switch on related GSP

c)

All above

7.

Principle of the De Pressurized Hydraulic Reservoir?

a)

Release Pressure from Reservoir Pressurized Chamber

b)

Connect two Reservoir Chamber together

c)

Non above

8.

How many way to filling hydraulic system?

a)

Two, filling by A/C Hand Pump and Hydraulic Ground Cart

b)

Two, filling by A/C hand Pump and Gravity

c)

Three, filling by A/C hand pump, gravity and hydraulic ground cart

9.

How to bleeding hydraulic reservoir?

a)

Automatic and manually

b)

Automatic only

c)

Manual only

10.

Which component maintain pressurized in side reservoir?

a)

pressure maintaining unit

b)

bootstrap-type reservoir

c)

system accumulator and pressure maintaining unit

11.

To keep hydraulic Temperature in corrected limit, system using heat exchanger for?

a)

Cooling hydraulic fluid and heated fuel

b)

Cooling hydraulic fluid

c)

Cooling fuel and heated hydraulic fluid

12.

Which Hydraulic Flow in hydraulic system was be cooling by fuel?

a)

Return Flow

b)

Engine Driven Pump Case Drain Flow

c)

Supply flow

13.

Which component control hydraulic fluid temperature in hydraulic system?

a)

Temperature control valve and heat exchanger In side wing tank

b)

Temperature control valve and heat exchanger In side Center Tank

c)

Temperature control valve, heat exchanger and Thermal bypass valve

14.

Engine Fire Shut Of valve control by?

a)

Manual

b)

Automatic

c)

Manual and Automatic

15.

De-Pressurization Mode of the Engine Driven Pump can be control by?

a)

Manual

b)

Auto

c)

Manual and auto

16.

When Pilot push ENG GREEN (YELLOW)/SUPPLY Pushbutton in flight?

a)

Fire Shut Of Valve Closed

b)

Fire shut of Valve Closed and can open again in flight by push ENG GREEN(YELLOW)/SUPPLY Pushbutton

c)

Fire shut of Valve Closed and cannot open again in flight

17.

When Fire P/B operate?

a)

Fire Shut Of Valve Closed

b)

Fire shut Of Valve Closed and EDP go to standby mode

c)

Fire Shut Of Valve Closed and Cannot Open again in flight

18.

When UERF logic Detection the HMCA control?

a)

Closed Fire Shut Of Valves

b)

Closed related Fire Shut Of Valve if Hydraulic continuous operation with another engine

c)

Closed related Fire Shut Of Valve and EDP go to standby Mode

19.

When you push GREEN(YELLOW) Pump on Overhead Panel to OFF Position then?

a)

EDP go to Depressurized mode

b)

EDP Disengagement

c)

EDP Pump Stop supply

20.

Hydraulic Electrical Pump can control operate?

a)

On ground

b)

In flight

c)

both

21.

Which purpose of the isolation valve on yellow hydraulic system?

a)

Isolate hydraulic supply to nose landing gear in flight

b)

Isolate hydraulic supply to flight control when cargo door operation

c)

Isolate hydraulic supply to heavy user

22.

IF a Hydraulic HP Filter becomes blocked?

a)

Hydraulic Flow will bypass and supply to user

b)

All user will not be supply

c)

Relate hydraulic source will be lose

23.

Engine Driven Pump can declutch from gearbox?

a)

Yes by using PUMP P/B relate in cockpit overhead panel

b)

Yes, on ground only

c)

No

24.

Which mode for Hydraulic Electrical Pump?

a)

Auto, Normal, Abnormal

b)

Auto, manual.

c)

Auto, Manual, Abnormal

25.

Which Indication about Hydraulic Quantity adjusted to relation with temperature and LDG configure?

a)

Hydraulic Quantity Indication on ECAM HYD Page

b)

Indicator on Reservoir

c)

Indicator on Green GSP

26.

The 'RSVR LEVEL LO' indication in amber, when the hydraulic fluid level?

a)

Hydraulic Quantity in reservoir reduce reach LO

b)

Hydraulic quantity in reservoir less than full level 5 litter or more

c)

Hydraulic quantity in reservoir remain 5 litter

27.

Which the necessary condition for Electrical pump operation in normal mode?

a)

Engine not running, A/C On ground

b)

Engine not running

c)

no fault detect by MCPU or CRDC

d)

a and c

28.

When Hydraulic System is pressurized by hydraulic cart, is hydraulic supply to flight control system?

4 lines
29.

When Hydraulic System is pressurized by hydraulic cart, is hydraulic supply to flight control system?

a)

Yes, if turn the manually isolation valve in the Hydraulic Bay

b)

No

c)

Yes, if Push the manifold isolation switch on the GSP

30.

When the EMP is started for cargo door operation or accumulator reflation, you can supply hydraulic pressure to flight control by?

a)

Push the manifold isolation switch on the GSP

b)

Not able to open manifold isolation valve

c)

EMP started will to supply to flight control system

31.

Which Indication about Hydraulic Quantity NOT adjusted to relation with temperature and LDG configure?

a)

Hydraulic Quantity Indication on ECAM HYD Page

b)

Indicator on Reservoir

c)

Indicator on Green GSP

32.

Which type hydraulic can use on A350 A/C?

a)

Sky droll LD 4

b)

Hi Jet V

c)

Both

33.

The ground test for WIPS valve opening time is limited to?

a)

20 seconds

b)

25 seconds

c)

30 seconds

34.

After testing the period time WIPS is inhibited for system distribution cooling down is?

a)

10 minutes

b)

15 minutes

c)

20 minutes

35.

The WIPS application controls the wing anti-ice valve via?

a)

Torque motor(TM)

b)

Solenoid(SOL)

36.

Function of the wing ice protection monitor temperature sensor?

a)

It is used on ground only for overheat detection

b)

It is used in flight only for overheat detection

c)

Its signal is used to control the Torque motor

37.

Closure of the wing ice protection valve is?

a)

Indirectly controlled by the BOMU and directly by the WIPS application through the CRDCs

b)

Directly controlled by the BOMU and indirectly by the WIPS application through the CRDCs

c)

Directly controlled by the BOMU and the WIPS application through the CRDCs

38.

The engine Nacelle Anti-Icing (NAI) protection system prevents ice build-up by using hot bleed air from?

a)

The engine compressor (IP8) bleed port

b)

The engine compressor (HP3) bleed port

c)

Downstream of MPV

39.

Engine NAI systems has two valves, PRSOV and a PRV, in normal operation?

a)

The PRSOV also acts as a backup pressure regulator when the PRV has failed.

b)

The PRV also acts as a backup pressure regulator when the PRSOV has failed.

c)

The PRSOV and PRV act independent depend on engine power setting.

40.

The windows anti icing/defogging system can be operated in?

a)

Two modes: automatic or manual

b)

Only automatic mode

c)

Manual mode can only be activated when automatic mode failed

41.

The WHC regulates the temperature of the cockpit windows based on the temperature value it receives from one of the three temperature sensors. When one the temperature sensor defective?

a)

The related WHC automatically uses data from one of the other sensors.

b)

Manually switch to the other sensor on OMT

c)

Manually switch to the other sensor on the window

42.

Which is the Overheat condition of the cockpit windows?

a)

The temperature of one of the cockpit windows is more than 35 deg.C

b)

The temperature of one of the cockpit windows is more than 42 deg.C

c)

The temperature of one of the cockpit windows is more than 60 deg.C

43.

Changeover valve is used to isolate leak on?

a)

NLG shock absorber

b)

MLG shock absorber

c)

Both NLG & MLG shock absorbers

44.

When changeover valve is operated?

a)

You can do oil and gas servicing as normal.

b)

You can only do oil servicing

c)

You can only do gas servicing

45.

The LDG extension and retraction system is supplied by which hydraulic system?

a)

Yellow hydraulic system for both NLG and MLG

b)

Green hydraulic system for both NLG and MLG

c)

Yellow hydraulic system for NLG and Green for MLG

46.

LGCIS 1 and LGCIS 2 use?

a)

The same proximity sensors

b)

Their own proximity sensors

c)

Some of proximity sensors are used for both LGCIS

47.

When the aircraft have rolled out with one main wheel fully deflated?

a)

Re-inflate the wheel to maximum pressure and measure the tire pressure again the next day.

b)

Replace the wheel before A/C departure.

c)

Replace wheel and the adjacent wheel.

48.

The BRK system is supplied by which hydraulic system?

a)

The forward group (brakes 1 to 4) is supplied by the Yellow hydraulic system. The rear group (brakes 5 to 8) is supplied by the Green hydraulic system.

b)

The forward group (brakes 1 to 4) is supplied by the Green hydraulic system. The rear group (brakes 5 to 8) is supplied by the Yellow hydraulic system.

c)

All the brakes are supplied by either Yellow or Green hydraulic systems depend on brake mode.

49.

When the active BRAKES CTL channel changeover?

a)

After each landing gear extension.

b)

After each flight.

c)

Right after the LDG control select to UP position

50.

The Brakes Control System (BRAKES CTL) controls?

a)

The normal, the alternate braking modes.

b)

The normal, the alternate and the emergency braking modes

c)

The normal, the alternate, the emergency and the parking braking modes

51.

The nose wheel steering system is supplied by which hydraulic system?

a)

Green hydraulic system

b)

Yellow hydraulic system

c)

Independent hyd

52.

The nose wheel steering system is supplied by which hydraulic system?

a)

Green hydraulic system

b)

Yellow hydraulic system

c)

Independent hydraulic system

53.

The flight crew system consists of:

a)

The oxygen storage,

b)

The oxygen distribution,

c)

The oxygen control and indicating.

d)

All of above.

54.

The flight crew oxygen system supplies the flight crew members with oxygen in case of:

a)

Loss of cabin pressure altitude.

b)

Emission of smoke.

c)

Emission of toxic gas.

d)

All of above

55.

When working on gaseous oxygen system, you must:

a)

Stop all refueling, all repairs on fuel and hydraulic systems, all procedures that use flammable material such as cleaning and de-icing materials.

b)

Do not operate external lightings,

c)

Do not operate HF system and carry out maintenance on HF system,

56.

Which component control and monitor the Crew oxygen system?

a)

No controller

b)

Control and monitor by Oxygen System control and Monitoring applications

c)

Monitor by SDAC

57.

Two Bleed Air System (BAS) applications

a)

Changeover After each flight or after failure

b)

Changeover Only after failure

c)

They work simultaneously

58.

The cross bleed valve is

a)

Electrically controlled, operated independently by two electrical motors.

b)

Solenoid controlled and pneumatically operated

c)

Electrically controlled, operated by one electrical motor.

59.

When the XBLEED selector is in the AUTO position, it will be closed automatically in case

a)

Both Engine Bleed Air System (EBAS) are operative in normal configuration, without APU bleed air

b)

Air is supplied from the HP ground cart

c)

No bleed air is available.

60.

When all APU and ENGINEs bleed airs are available

a)

APU bleed having priority over engine bleed air.

b)

APU bleed will supply bleed air only if the X BLEED selector is selected OPEN

c)

APU bleed will supply bleed air only if the ENG BLEED pushbuttons are selected OFF

61.

The HPGC supply symbol (white GND and green triangle) comes into view in ENG BLEED page only when

a)

The A/C is on ground (input from LGERS) and there is no APU nor ENG bleed air supply

b)

The bleed ducts are pressurized (pressure above 20 psi).

c)

All of above

62.

Engine Bleed Air System (EBAS) is used for:

a)

Bleed air pressure regulation (including HP/Intermediate Pressure (IP) transfer) and bleed air temperature regulation

b)

System monitoring and protections.

c)

All of above

63.

Location of the Precooler (PCE)

a)

On the pylon

b)

Right above engine core

c)

On the wing

64.

The fan air flow exiting the PCE is vented to

a)

The engine core zone and is subsequently vented overboard.

b)

Overboard through pylons outlets

c)

None of above

65.

On the BLEED page which valve are not displayed

a)

FAV and OPSOV

b)

MPV and OPSOV

c)

HPV and FAV

66.

In case of overpressure ( the MPV does not operate correctly), the ENGINE BLEED system protection is ensured by

a)

Backup a pneumatic protection is done by the overpressure shut-off valve

b)

Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated the overpressure shut-off valve

c)

Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated the fan air valve

67.

When A/C inflight, at normal configuration, which valve ensure ENGINE BLEED system temperature regulation

a)

Manifold Pressure Valve (MPV)

b)

HP Bleed Valve (HPV)

c)

Fan Air Valve (FAV)

68.

The functions of the overheat detection system (OHDS) are:

a)

Leak detection and leak isolation

b)

Leak detection and leak location

c)

Leak detection, leak isolation and leak location

69.

How many pressure sources for potable water pressurization?

a)

Bleed air or compressed air ground cart

b)

Bleed air or compressed air ground cart or A potable water pump

c)

Bleed air or compressed air ground cart or electrical compressor

70.

Can you work on the toilet waste system and the portable system at the same time?

a)

Yes, the two systems are independent.

b)

No, it can cause the contamination to the portable water system

c)

No, you can not use water car and waste car at the same time.

71.

Can you set the water quantity at FAP at any time?

a)

Only when PWSP access door is closed

b)

Only when PWSP access door is opened

c)

Only when A/C is energized and fill-mode was not started at the PWIP.

72.

Which level you can preselection on FAP?

a)

The value in steps of 10% of the total potable-water quantity, between 30% and 100%.

b)

The value in steps of 25% of the total potable-water quantity.

c)

The value in steps of 20% of the total potable-water quantity.

73.

When water from faucet in LAV can not stop, what should you do?

a)

You can disconnect the water line to the faucet and INOP the LAV.

b)

Let the water flow because it flow small water.

c)

Close the SOV and deactivate the LAV.

74.

When water form faucet in LAV can not stop and we close the SOV,

a)

Water flows from faucet stop so we can use toilet in that LAV normally.

b)

All the water supply to that LAV stop and the LAV is considered inoperative.

c)

Water stops flowing to faucet and still supply to toilet line.

75.

What is aircraft configuration to refill the water tank

4 lines
76.

What is aircraft configuration to refill the water tanks?

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

77.

When does the vacuum generator operate?

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

78.

The function of the Inert Gas System (IGS) is to decrease the oxygen concentration in the

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

79.

The function of the Air Separation Modules (ASMs)

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

80.

The air that goes into the IGGS(Inert Gas Generation System) comes from:

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

81.

The IGGS operates

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

82.

Temperature Isolation Valve(TIV)

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

83.

Which valve has mechanical visual position-indicator

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

84.

Where are the IGGS pallets located

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

85.

The IGGS starts to operate

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

86.

What is true regarding the APU Starter/Generator supply?

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

87.

What is the APU Starter/Generator duty cycle?

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

88.

What is the ECB location?

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

89.

From where is the APU emergency shutdown can be manually initiated?

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

90.

What is true regarding the APU start modes?

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

91.

In which case does the 'FAULT' light illuminate on APUMaster Switch?

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

92.

What is true regarding APU maintenance?

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

93.

If the advisory'OIL LVL LO' is pulsing on APU page:

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

94.

In case of high oil temperature or low oil pressure:

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

95.

The APU low fuel pressure switch is:

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

96.

What is true regarding the APU shutdown?

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

97.

The cockpit door can be kept electrically unlocked for maintenance

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

98.

The cockpit door strikes are immediately de-energized to unlock the door when decompression is sensed

a)

A

b)

B1

c)

B2

99.

The status cockpit door 'closed and locked' on the cockpit door panel

4 lines
100.

By pressure sensors integrated in CDLCU (cockpit door locking control unit).

4 lines
101.

The status cockpit door "closed and locked" on the cockpit door panel.

4 lines
102.

Sent from micro-switch that attached to each electrical strike.

4 lines
103.

Based on voting logic of status of three electrical strikes.

4 lines
104.

Sent from the switch in center strike.

4 lines
105.

Decompression Deceleration Device decrease the speed of the cockpit door movement when cockpit door is opened rapidly.

4 lines
106.

When shear pin of the device break to activate brake assembly.

4 lines
107.

Both of above.

4 lines
108.

Cabin Decompression and Evacuation Panel integrated in cockpit door will open into the direction of the cockpit when rapid cabin decompression occurred.

4 lines
109.

For evacuation of the cockpit when cockpit door is blocked.

4 lines
110.

Both of above.

4 lines
111.

The escape hatch can be.

a)

Opened from inner side only

b)

Opened/Closed from outside and inside

c)

Opened/Closed from inner side and Opened from outside

112.

The passenger door bumper absorbs the movement of the door while it opens or closes.

4 lines
113.

Opens the door in emergency operation.

4 lines
114.

Stops the door to prevent it from crashing on A/C skin.

4 lines
115.

The passenger door cannot be opened in flight due to.

a)

The design profile of guide roller brackets and door stop fittings to prevent the relative movement between guide rollers and guide roller brackets as well as door stop fittings and door frame stop fittings under cabin pressure.

b)

Under cabin pressure the guide roller brackets lock the guide roller from moving away.

c)

Under cabin pressure the door stop fittings cannot move away from door frame stop

116.

When the door moved away from the door-frame.

a)

The inner and outer handles cannot operate due to the anti-lowering lever fully locks the internal door mechanism.

b)

The inner handle can be operated.

c)

The slide selector lever can be operated.

117.

When the Slide Selector Lever moves to the DISARMED position.

a)

The girt bar disengages from the floor fittings.

b)

The girt bar stays connected to the fuselage floor fittings.

c)

The girt bar disengage from the slide pack.

118.

Checking the DEOA (Damper and Emergency Operation Actuator) serviceable by.

a)

Checking a pressure gauge installed on the cylinder in green band.

b)

Checking a pressure gauge installed on the cylinder and checking indication on FAP.

c)

Checking the bottle pressure status on FAP.

119.

After the passenger door open in emergency mode.

a)

The door can be closed after acting on safety exhaust plug to release pressure in DEOA (Damper and Emergency Operation Actuator).

b)

The DEOA can be charged with gas on wing for serviceability.

c)

Both of above

120.

The latched and locked of cargo door is checking by.

a)

Eight locking cam windows show green painted surface.

b)

An aft hook indicator flag does not protrude.

c)

Both of above.

121.

The EMP run automatically when the cargo door is unlatched.

a)

When the cargo door is unlatched, the EMP run 30s for bleeding hydraulic.

b)

When door unlatched and the toggle switch on the CDOP (cargo door operation panel) moves away from "NEUTRAL/DOOR STOP" position.

c)

Both of above.

122.

At starting of cargo door normal closure.

a)

Hydraulic pressure is sent to the actuator extension chamber.

b)

Hydraulic pressure is sent to both chambers of actuator to prevent the free fall of cargo door.

c)

Hydraulic pressure is sent to actuator retraction chamber.

123.

For cargo door operation, if EMP( electric motor pump) fail to run automatically.

a)

Always two staffs need for cargo door operation, one at cargo door operation panel, one at hydraulic yellow service panel to pressurize system.

b)

One staff at cargo door operation panel is enough, you can start EMP manual from cockpit.

c)

Cargo door can only be opened manually with an Hydraulic Auxiliary Pump (HAP) through a gearbox and with the aid of a hand pump handle installed in two parts (crank and extension lever) on the two hydraulic Ground Service Panels (GSPs) (Yellow and Green).

124.

The red warning light on DIP( door indication panel) will flash.

a)

When the A/C on ground and pressure inside A/C is 2.5 mbar higher than pressure outside.

b)

When the A/C on ground, pressure inside A/C is 2.5 mbar higher than pressure outside, the slide lever is in the disarmed position.

c)

When the A/C on ground, parking brake on, pressure inside A/C 2.5 mbar higher than pressure outside, the slide lever is in the disarmed position.

125.

When CPCS does not get the closed and latched signal from bulk cargo door.

a)

The pressurization of A/C is inhibited.

b)

The pressurization of A/C will be prevented on ground only.

c)

The pressurization of A/C has no affection.

126.

The indication 'SLIDE ARMED' at the DIP ( door indication panel )comes on when.

a)

A/C on ground and slide lever is armed.

b)

A/C on ground, slide lever is armed; the door operation handle lifted a few degrees.

c)

A/C on ground, slide lever is armed, parking brake is on, and the door operation handle is moved to start lifting the door.