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Worksheets

SPAK 2025 BY MJ

Total questions: 499

Worksheet time: 6hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Imagine a place in the cosmos far from all gravitational and frictional influences. Suppose that you visit that place (just suppose) and throw a rock. The rock will

a)

Accelerate

b)

Stay Still

c)

Decelerate

d)

Gradually Stop

e)

Continue to move at a constant speed

2.

A 2-kg object is moving horizontally with a speed of 4 m/s. How much net force is required to keep the object moving at this speed and in this direction?

a)

8N

b)

4N

c)

0N

d)

-4N

e)

-8N

3.

An object floating in space requires a force to set it on motion

a)

True

b)

False

4.

A group of physics teachers are taking some time off for a little putt-putt golf. The 15th hole at the Hole-In-One Putt-Putt Golf Course has a large metal rim that putters must use to guide their ball towards the hole. Mr. S guides a golf ball around the metal rim When the ball leaves the rim, which path (1, 2, or 3) will the golf ball follow?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

5.

A Physics teacher drops a 2kg textbook (weight = 20N) out of a window in frustration. They land in a conveniently placed swimming pool and experience a constant upward force of 20N. Which diagram correctly shows the book's velocity?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

6.

A Physics teacher drops a 2kg textbook (weight = 20N) out of a window in frustration. They land in a conveniently placed swimming pool and experience a constant upward force of 20N.

One of his keen students comments 'Once the book hits the water, the forces are balanced and the book will stop.' Are they correct?

a)

Yes

b)

No

7.

A Physics teacher drops a 2kg textbook (weight = 20N) out of a window in frustration. They land in a conveniently placed swimming pool and experience a constant upward force of 20N.

One of his keen students comments "Upon hitting the water, the box will accelerate upwards because the water applies an upward force.". Are they correct?

a)

Yes

b)

No

8.

A Physics teacher drops a 2kg textbook (weight = 20N) out of a window in frustration. They land in a conveniently placed swimming pool and experience a constant upward force of 20N.

One of his keen students comments "Upon hitting the water, the box will bounce upwards due to the upward force.". Are they correct?

a)

Yes

b)

No

9.

If the forces acting upon an object are balanced, then the object

a)

Is not moving

b)

Must be moving with constant velocity

c)

Must not be accelerating

d)

Could be any of the above

e)

None of the above

10.
The tendency of an object to resist a change in motion is...
a)
inertia
b)
kinetic energy
c)
vector
d)
net force
11.
Objects with greater _________ also have greater inertia.
a)
speed
b)
mass
c)
temperature
d)
friction
12.

Definition: Crest

a)

The highest point of a transverse wave

b)

The lowest point of a transverse wave

c)

The center of a transverse wave

d)

The distance between two points on a wave

13.

Definition: Trough

a)

The center of a wave

b)

The resting position of a wave

c)

The lowest point of a transverse wave

d)

The highest point of a transverse wave

14.

What is the frequency of a wave?

a)

# of oscillations produced in a certain amount of time

b)

The distance the wave oscillates from it's resting position

c)

The lowest point of a transverse wave

d)

Resting point of a wave - no wave movement

15.

What is the amplitude of a wave?

a)

Where there is no wave movement

b)

The distance the wave oscillates from it's resting position

c)

A disturbance that transfers energy from one place to another

d)

The distance between two corresponding parts of a wave

16.

What is a medium?

a)

The lowest point of a transverse wave

b)

The size of a wave

c)

The middle of a wave

d)

Matter through which a wave travels

17.

What type of matter can waves travel through?

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

All of the Above

18.
The number of wavelengths that pass a point each second
a)
frequency
b)
wavelength
c)
pitch
d)
amplitude
19.
When the sound source moves, the frequency changes
ex. police car siren sounding lower pitch after the car passes
a)
pitch
b)
frequency
c)
Doppler Effect
d)
medium
20.

If the wavelength of a wave increased, what would happen to the frequency?

a)

decrease

b)

increase

c)

stay the same

21.

What property of this wave is represented by the letter "A"

a)

amplitude

b)

crest

c)

trough

d)

wavelength

22.
What property of the wave is represented by the letter "B"?
a)
amplitude
b)
crest
c)
trough
d)
wavelength
23.
Which wave in the diagram has the greatest frequency?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
24.

What type of interference is represented in this diagram?

a)

Constructive

b)

Destructive

25.

What type of interference is represented in the diagram?

a)

Constructive

b)

Destructive

26.

Sound waves in musical instruments or tubes create standing waves that enhance which type of interference to make louder sounds?

a)

Constructive

b)

Destructive

27.

What type of interference do noise cancelling headphones use?

a)

Constructive Interference

b)

Destructive Interference

28.
Which organelle is only found in a plant cell? 
a)
nucleus
b)
chloroplast
c)
mitochondria
d)
cell membrane
29.
Where is DNA stored in a cell? 
a)
Lysosomes
b)
Golgi Complex
c)
Ribosomes
d)
Nucleus
30.
What is the fluid inside a cell called? 
a)
Endoplasimic Reticulum
b)
Orange Juice
c)
Water
d)
Cytoplasm
31.
This organelle helps plants keep their rigid structure. 
a)
Cell wall
b)
Cell membrane
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Nucleus
32.
The green pigment in plants is due to the presence of 
a)
chlorophyll
b)
Chlorine
c)
Chlorophyta
d)
chromatophores
33.
When using the microscope, you should always start with this objective lens
a)
low power
b)
high power
34.
Controls what enters and leaves the cell
a)
Cell Membrane
b)
Ribosome
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Vacuole
35.
Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.
a)
food
b)
energy
c)
oxygen
d)
water
36.
Permeable means
a)
things can pass through
b)
the concentration levels are different
c)
it is permanent
d)
things are stuck
37.
If there is 5 percent water inside a cell and 5 percent water outside a cell
a)
more water will move inside the cell
b)
more water will move outside the cell
c)
There will be no movement of water cells
38.
A group of the same type of cells that work together for a purpose are called -
a)
 a tissue
b)
an organ
c)
an organ system
d)
an unicellular organism
39.
A group of different tissues working together is - 
a)
an organ
b)
an organ system
c)
a   prokaryote
d)
a cell
40.
The levels of organization from the simplest to the most complex are
a)
Cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organism
b)
Organisms, organs, tissues, cells, organ systems
c)
Cells, organs, organ systems, tissues, organism
d)
Tissues, cells, organs, organism
41.
Two examples of organ systems in the human body are - 
a)
digestive system and respiratory system
b)
circulatory system and fluid system
c)
blood system and food system
d)
nervous system and stomach system
42.
Which statement is correct?
a)
A group of organs work together to form an organ system
b)
Tissues that have the same function form an organ system
c)
Cell that have the same function form an organ
d)
Organ systems working together form a tissue
43.
Which instrument is credited for helping scientists develop cell theory?
a)
 the microscope
b)
a hand lens
c)
an electronic balance
d)
a thermometer
44.
Which of these can only be found in a plant cell?
a)
 A nucleus
b)
A vacuole
c)
A chloroplast
d)
A mitochondrion
45.
Every organ is made up of one or more: 
a)
Organ Systems
b)
Tissues
c)
Muscles
d)
Bones
46.
Which type of tissue is responsible for the movement of body parts?
a)
Connective
b)
Muscle
c)
Nervous
d)
Epithelial
47.

which is NOT an example of an organelle?

a)

mitochondrion

b)

nucleus

c)

heart

d)

cell membrane

48.
What are the 3 particles that make-up the atom?
a)
protons, neutrons, and isotopes
b)
neutrons, isotopes, and electrons
c)
positives, negatives, and electrons
d)
protons, neutrons, and electrons
49.

What is the number of protons that the element in this image contain?

a)

14

b)

7

c)

15

d)

18

50.

How many neutron are in the atom "K"?

a)

7

b)

2

c)

39

d)

12

51.
Most of the mass in an atom is concentrated in the...
a)
electrons
b)
nucleus
c)
protons
d)
empty space
52.
"C" is the element symbol for which element?
a)
calcium
b)
carbon
c)
chlorine
d)
cadmium
53.

True or False? Neutrons have a negative charge

a)

True

b)

False

54.
If I gain electrons I become
a)
Positive because I've added to my atom
b)
negative because I've added electrons
c)
same because i'm balanced
d)
equal because now I have electrons
55.

The proper formula for magnesium hydroxide:

a)

MgOH

b)

Mg2OH

c)

Mg(OH)2

d)

Mg2OH2

56.

How do the following two elements bond together?

Al3+ O2-

a)

AlO

b)

Al2O3

c)

Al3O6

d)

Al3O2

57.
An ion with a positive charge is a/an 
a)
anion
b)
cation
58.
The rate at which a radioactive element decays is its ____.
a)
quarter life
b)
whole life
c)
wonderful life 
d)
half life
59.

The three types of nuclear radiation in order of increasing penetrating power are

a)

alpha, beta, gamma

b)

alpha, gamma, beta

c)

beta, alpha, gamma

d)

gamma, alpha, beta

60.
What makes something radioactive?
a)
elements with an atomic number above 81
b)
an unstable nucleus
c)
contaminated sewage
d)
It decays over time
61.
An isotope of an element has the same number of _________, but a different number of _________.
a)
Protons, electrons
b)
Protons, neutrons
c)
Electrons, neutrons
62.
How many elements are in C6H12O6?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
63.
Which of the following is a compound?
a)
Co
b)
O2
c)
C
d)
CO2
64.
You know you a chemical reaction has occurred if 
a)
there is a precipitate.
b)
there is a color change.
c)
there is a temperature change.
d)
All of these answers are evidence.
65.
A molecule is made up of
a)
one or more mixtures.
b)
one or more compounds.
c)
one or more atoms.
d)
one or more solutions.
66.
Which scientific law states that an atom cannot be created or destroyed:
a)
Law of Conservation of Matter
b)
Law of Gravity
c)
Law of Conservation of Mass
d)
Law of Motion
67.

Which best describes a chemical reaction?

a)

Products --> Reactants

b)

Reactants --> Products

68.

How is 100,000 as a power of 10?

a)

10^5.

b)

3.1416.

c)

Multiply the number by itself.

69.

What is a proportion?

a)

You invert the divisor and multiply the numerators together and the denominators together.

b)

Convert it to a decimal, move the decimal point two places to the right and add the percent sign.

c)

A Statement of equality between 2 or more ratios.

70.

How do you find the square of a number?

a)

Convert the numbers into scientific notation by using powers of 10.

b)

Multiply the number by itself.

71.

What are two different ways that a ratio may be expressed?

a)

(1) As a fraction (2) By placing a colon between the 2 numbers.

b)

Convert it to a decimal, move the decimal point two places to the right and add the percent sign.

c)

Multiply the decimal by the desired denominator. The result becomes the numerator in the fraction.

72.

Define Pi

a)

3.1416

b)

3.1316

c)

3.1415

73.

What is a common method of making computations involving very large or very small numbers more manageable?

a)

Multiply the decimal by the desired denominator. The result becomes the numerator in the fraction.

b)

Convert the numbers into scientific notation by using powers of 10.

74.

What is meant by the root of a number?

a)

A root is 2 or more equal smaller number that, when multiplied together, equal the specified number.

b)

A root is 3 or less equal smaller numbers that, when multiplied together, equal the specified number.

75.

Describe the result of adding a large positive number and a smaller negative number.

a)

The result is a smaller positive number because you ignore the addition sign and subtract.

b)

The result is a larger positive number because you ignore the subtraction sign and add.

76.

What is the key step that must be performed in order to add or subtract unlike fraction?

a)

you must find the highest common denominator.

b)

you must find the lowest common denominator.

77.

What formula is used to find the area of a rectangle and a triangle

a)

For a rectangle: A=LxW For a triangle A=1/2(BxH)

b)

For a rectangle: A = 1/2(B1+B2) x H, For a triangle A = 1/2(BxH).

78.

How do you change a decimal into the nearest equivalent fraction?

a)

Multiply the decimal by the desired denominator. The result becomes the numerator in the fraction.

b)

Multiply the decimal by the desired numerator. The result becomes the denominator in the fraction.

79.

How do you convert a fraction into a decimal?

a)

Divide the top number by the bottom number.

b)

Divide the bottom number by the top number.

80.

What is the key step that must be performed in order to add or subtract unlike fraction?

a)

you must find the lowest common denominator.

b)

Divide the top number by the bottom number.

c)

You invert the divisor and multiply the numerators together and the denominators together.

81.

How do you divide one fraction by another?

a)

You invert the numerators and multiply the divisor together and the denominators together.

b)

You invert the divisor and multiply the numerators together and the denominators together.

82.

How can you convert a decimal to a percent?

a)

multiply the decimal by 100 and add the percent sign.

b)

multiply the decimal by 10 and add the percent sign.

83.

Factorise completely: b³  ─ 4ab + ab³ ‒ 4b

a)
(a + 1)b(b - 2)(b + 2)
b)
(a - 2)b(b + 1)(b - 1)
c)
(a + 2)b(b - 1)(b + 1)
d)
(a - 1)b(b + 2)(b - 2)
84.

A father and his son can work a piece of land in 10 days. The father can do it alone in  y days while the son alone will take five days longer. The equation which is

a)
1/y + 1/(y + 5) = 1/10
b)
1/y + 1/(y + 2) = 1/15
c)
1/y + 1/(y + 10) = 1/5
d)
1/y + 1/(y - 5) = 1/10
85.

z is partly constant and partly varies inversely as the square of d. When d = 1, z = 11  and when d = 2, z = 5. Find the value of z when d = 4.

a)

3.5

b)
8.5
c)
6.0
d)
9.75
86.

Solve for x and y in the equations below: x² ─ y = 4, x + y = 2 

a)
(1, 3)
b)

(2, 0)

c)
(0, 2)
d)
(-1, 1)
87.

Evaluate (81^¾ ─ 27^⅓) / (3 x 2³)

a)
0
b)
2
c)
-1
d)
1
88.

What are the integral values of x which satisfy the inequality ─1 < 3 ─ 2x ≤ 5?

a)
[-1, 0, 1]
b)
[-2, -1, 0]
c)
[-3, -2, -1]
d)
[2, 3, 4]
89.

If ─2 is the solution of the equation 2x + 1 ─ 3c = 2c + 3x ─ 7, find the value of c

a)
-2
b)
2
c)
1
d)
3
90.

Divide m³ˣ ─26m²ˣ + 156mˣ ─ 216 by m²ˣ ─ 24mˣ + 108

a)
mˣ + 6
b)
mˣ - 2
c)
mˣ + 2
d)
mˣ - 4
91.

Find a positive value of p if the expression 2x² ─ px + p leaves a remainder of 6 when  divided by x ─ p

a)
4
b)
3
c)
2
d)
1
92.

Express in partial fraction (5x ─12)/ (x ─ 2)(x ─ 3)

a)
(2/5)/(x - 2) + (1/5)/(x - 3)
b)
(1/5)/(x - 2) + (4/5)/(x - 3)
c)
(4/5)/(x - 2) + (1/5)/(x - 3)
d)

2/(x - 2) + 3/(x - 3)

93.

For the set of numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 10. The mean, mode, and median  respectively are

a)

5, 4, and 4.5

b)

5, 6 and 5.5

c)

4, 5, and 6.0

d)

4, 5 and 4.5

94.

The mean age of a class of twenty school pupils is 13. If their teacher's age is  included, the mean becomes 14. the age of the teacher is

a)

30

b)

34

c)

33

d)

32

95.

A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror. If the plane mirror is rotated through an  angle α, the reflected ray will be rotated through 

a)
α
b)
c)
d)
α/2
96.

A pin is positioned at 24 cm from a concave mirror of radius 42 cm. The  magnification of the image formed is

a)

7

b)

6

c)
5/6
d)
7/12
97.

An object is placed 20 cm from a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm. The  image is located

a)

8.6 cm behind the mirror

b)
15 cm behind the mirror
c)

8.6 cm in front of the mirror

d)
5 cm in front of the mirror
98.

A ray of light traveling in air is incident at an angle of 60° on the surface of water of  refractive index ⁴/₃. The angle of refraction is

a)
30°
b)
50°
c)
75°
d)
41.41°
99.

A fish is located at the bottom of a pond which is 3 m deep. By how much would the  fish appear to be displaced when viewed directly from above the pond if the  refractive index of water is ⁴/₃?

a)
1.5 m
b)
2.0 m
c)
0.75 m
d)
0.5 m
100.

A body accelerates uniformly from rest at 7 ms⁻², its velocity after traveling a  distance of 14 m is

a)
10 m/s
b)
20 m/s
c)
5 m/s
d)
14 m/s
101.

A fruit drops from the top of a tree 80 m tall. The time it takes the fruit to reach the  ground is

a)
3.2 seconds
b)
4.04 seconds
c)
2.5 seconds
d)
6.8 seconds
102.

A current of 360 mA passes through a conductor for 15 minutes. The quantity of  electricity transported is

a)
450 C
b)
600 C
c)
180 C
d)
324 C
103.

When the solute concentration of a cell is higher than the intracellular solute  concentration , then it is said to be  

a)
isotonic
b)
hypotonic
c)
supersaturated
d)
hypertonic
104.

The net weight of all organisms living in an ecosystem which increases as a result of  its net production is called 

a)
gross primary production
b)
total biomass
c)
ecosystem productivity
d)
net primary production
105.

The study of how a specie population interacts with the environment and its  resulting dynamics is called

a)

autecology

b)

synecology

c)
zoology
d)
biology
106.

The snail and squid belong to the  class

a)
Mollusca
b)
Annelida
c)
Cnidaria
d)
Arthropoda
107.

The organism with a pair of jointed appendages are

a)
Cnidarians
b)
Mollusks
c)
Annelids
d)
Arthropods
108.

The partition of the serially homologous arthropod body plan into discrete region is  known as 

a)

ecdysis

b)
morphogenesis
c)

tagmosis

d)
adaptation
109.

The study of body structures of different species of animals in order to understand  the changes they have undergone is called

a)
biological taxonomy
b)
species morphology
c)
comparative anatomy
d)
anatomical evolution
110.

A microscopic single─celled organism which has neither a distinct nucleus with a  membrane nor other specialized organelles is called

a)
eukaryote
b)
fungus
c)
virus
d)
prokaryote
111.

The terrestrial plants which are neither adapted to particularly dry nor particularly  wet environments are called

a)
xerophytes
b)
hydrophytes
c)
halophytes
d)
mesophytes
112.

Which of these plants exhibits double fertilisation ?

a)
Angiosperms (flowering plants)
b)
Ferns
c)
Mosses
d)
Gymnosperms
113.

The cell responsible for transmission of impulses is called

a)
muscle cell
b)
glial cell
c)
red blood cell
d)
neuron
114.

What does X stands for in the following expression; pH = Log₁₀ [X]

a)
[Cl⁻]
b)
[Na⁺]
c)
[OH⁻]
d)
[H⁺]
115.

The number of atoms in 2.4g of magnesium is

a)
5.94 x 10^22 atoms
b)
3.12 x 10^23 atoms
c)
1.20 x 10^21 atoms
d)
7.50 x 10^22 atoms
116.

Bauxite is the ore of which of the  following metals 

a)
Copper
b)
Aluminum
c)
Iron
d)
Zinc
117.

The purest form of iron is 

a)
stainless steel
b)
carbon steel
c)
wrought iron
d)
cast iron
118.

The valence electrons of the element ₁₃Al are in the

a)
second energy level (n=2)
b)

2s, 2p orbital

c)

3s, 3p orbital

d)
fourth energy level (n=4)
119.

The noble gas used in filling balloons is 

a)
neon
b)
argon
c)
krypton
d)
helium
120.

Aqueous salt which loses its water of crystallisation when exposed to air is  

a)
Sodium carbonate (washing soda)
b)
Magnesium sulfate
c)
Calcium sulfate
d)
Potassium chloride
121.

Neutral atom of argon with atomic number 18 has the  same number of electrons as

a)
Sodium (Na) in its neutral state
b)
Calcium (Ca) in its neutral state
c)
Bromine (Br) in its neutral state
d)
Chlorine (Cl) or Potassium (K) in their neutral states.
122.

When the temperature of 2dm³ of an ideal gas is decreased from 100k to half,  calculate the final volume of the gas

a)
0.5 dm³
b)
1 dm³
c)
2 dm³
d)
4 dm³
123.

Factorise completely: b³  ─ 4ab + ab³ ‒ 4b

a)
(a + 1)b(b - 2)(b + 2)
b)
(a - 2)b(b + 1)(b - 1)
c)
(a + 2)b(b - 1)(b + 1)
d)
(a - 1)b(b + 2)(b - 2)
124.

A father and his son can work a piece of land in 10 days. The father can do it alone in  y days while the son alone will take five days longer. The equation which is

a)
1/y + 1/(y + 5) = 1/10
b)
1/y + 1/(y + 2) = 1/15
c)
1/y + 1/(y + 10) = 1/5
d)
1/y + 1/(y - 5) = 1/10
125.

z is partly constant and partly varies inversely as the square of d. When d = 1, z = 11  and when d = 2, z = 5. Find the value of z when d = 4.

a)

3.5

b)
8.5
c)
6.0
d)
9.75
126.

Solve for x and y in the equations below: x² ─ y = 4, x + y = 2 

a)
(1, 3)
b)

(2, 0)

c)
(0, 2)
d)
(-1, 1)
127.

Evaluate (81^¾ ─ 27^⅓) / (3 x 2³)

a)
0
b)
2
c)
-1
d)
1
128.

What are the integral values of x which satisfy the inequality ─1 < 3 ─ 2x ≤ 5?

a)
[-1, 0, 1]
b)
[-2, -1, 0]
c)
[-3, -2, -1]
d)
[2, 3, 4]
129.

If ─2 is the solution of the equation 2x + 1 ─ 3c = 2c + 3x ─ 7, find the value of c

a)
-2
b)
2
c)
1
d)
3
130.

Divide m³ˣ ─26m²ˣ + 156mˣ ─ 216 by m²ˣ ─ 24mˣ + 108

a)
mˣ + 6
b)
mˣ - 2
c)
mˣ + 2
d)
mˣ - 4
131.

Find a positive value of p if the expression 2x² ─ px + p leaves a remainder of 6 when  divided by x ─ p

a)
4
b)
3
c)
2
d)
1
132.

Express in partial fraction (5x ─12)/ (x ─ 2)(x ─ 3)

a)
(2/5)/(x - 2) + (1/5)/(x - 3)
b)
(1/5)/(x - 2) + (4/5)/(x - 3)
c)
(4/5)/(x - 2) + (1/5)/(x - 3)
d)

2/(x - 2) + 3/(x - 3)

133.

For the set of numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 10. The mean, mode, and median  respectively are

a)

5, 4, and 4.5

b)

5, 6 and 5.5

c)

4, 5, and 6.0

d)

4, 5 and 4.5

134.

The mean age of a class of twenty school pupils is 13. If their teacher's age is  included, the mean becomes 14. the age of the teacher is

a)

30

b)

34

c)

33

d)

32

135.

A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror. If the plane mirror is rotated through an  angle α, the reflected ray will be rotated through 

a)
α
b)
c)
d)
α/2
136.

A pin is positioned at 24 cm from a concave mirror of radius 42 cm. The  magnification of the image formed is

a)

7

b)

6

c)
5/6
d)
7/12
137.

An object is placed 20 cm from a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm. The  image is located

a)

8.6 cm behind the mirror

b)
15 cm behind the mirror
c)

8.6 cm in front of the mirror

d)
5 cm in front of the mirror
138.

A ray of light traveling in air is incident at an angle of 60° on the surface of water of  refractive index ⁴/₃. The angle of refraction is

a)
30°
b)
50°
c)
75°
d)
41.41°
139.

A fish is located at the bottom of a pond which is 3 m deep. By how much would the  fish appear to be displaced when viewed directly from above the pond if the  refractive index of water is ⁴/₃?

a)
1.5 m
b)
2.0 m
c)
0.75 m
d)
0.5 m
140.

A body accelerates uniformly from rest at 7 ms⁻², its velocity after traveling a  distance of 14 m is

a)
10 m/s
b)
20 m/s
c)
5 m/s
d)
14 m/s
141.

A fruit drops from the top of a tree 80 m tall. The time it takes the fruit to reach the  ground is

a)
3.2 seconds
b)
4.04 seconds
c)
2.5 seconds
d)
6.8 seconds
142.

A current of 360 mA passes through a conductor for 15 minutes. The quantity of  electricity transported is

a)
450 C
b)
600 C
c)
180 C
d)
324 C
143.

When the solute concentration of a cell is higher than the intracellular solute  concentration , then it is said to be  

a)
isotonic
b)
hypotonic
c)
supersaturated
d)
hypertonic
144.

The net weight of all organisms living in an ecosystem which increases as a result of  its net production is called 

a)
gross primary production
b)
total biomass
c)
ecosystem productivity
d)
net primary production
145.

The study of how a specie population interacts with the environment and its  resulting dynamics is called

a)

autecology

b)

synecology

c)
zoology
d)
biology
146.

The snail and squid belong to the  class

a)
Mollusca
b)
Annelida
c)
Cnidaria
d)
Arthropoda
147.

The organism with a pair of jointed appendages are

a)
Cnidarians
b)
Mollusks
c)
Annelids
d)
Arthropods
148.

The partition of the serially homologous arthropod body plan into discrete region is  known as 

a)

ecdysis

b)
morphogenesis
c)

tagmosis

d)
adaptation
149.

The study of body structures of different species of animals in order to understand  the changes they have undergone is called

a)
biological taxonomy
b)
species morphology
c)
comparative anatomy
d)
anatomical evolution
150.

A microscopic single─celled organism which has neither a distinct nucleus with a  membrane nor other specialized organelles is called

a)
eukaryote
b)
fungus
c)
virus
d)
prokaryote
151.

The terrestrial plants which are neither adapted to particularly dry nor particularly  wet environments are called

a)
xerophytes
b)
hydrophytes
c)
halophytes
d)
mesophytes
152.

Which of these plants exhibits double fertilisation ?

a)
Angiosperms (flowering plants)
b)
Ferns
c)
Mosses
d)
Gymnosperms
153.

The cell responsible for transmission of impulses is called

a)
muscle cell
b)
glial cell
c)
red blood cell
d)
neuron
154.

What does X stands for in the following expression; pH = Log₁₀ [X]

a)
[Cl⁻]
b)
[Na⁺]
c)
[OH⁻]
d)
[H⁺]
155.

The number of atoms in 2.4g of magnesium is

a)
5.94 x 10^22 atoms
b)
3.12 x 10^23 atoms
c)
1.20 x 10^21 atoms
d)
7.50 x 10^22 atoms
156.

Bauxite is the ore of which of the  following metals 

a)
Copper
b)
Aluminum
c)
Iron
d)
Zinc
157.

The purest form of iron is 

a)
stainless steel
b)
carbon steel
c)
wrought iron
d)
cast iron
158.

The valence electrons of the element ₁₃Al are in the

a)
second energy level (n=2)
b)

2s, 2p orbital

c)

3s, 3p orbital

d)
fourth energy level (n=4)
159.

The noble gas used in filling balloons is 

a)
neon
b)
argon
c)
krypton
d)
helium
160.

Aqueous salt which loses its water of crystallisation when exposed to air is  

a)
Sodium carbonate (washing soda)
b)
Magnesium sulfate
c)
Calcium sulfate
d)
Potassium chloride
161.

Neutral atom of argon with atomic number 18 has the  same number of electrons as

a)
Sodium (Na) in its neutral state
b)
Calcium (Ca) in its neutral state
c)
Bromine (Br) in its neutral state
d)
Chlorine (Cl) or Potassium (K) in their neutral states.
162.

When the temperature of 2dm³ of an ideal gas is decreased from 100k to half,  calculate the final volume of the gas

a)
0.5 dm³
b)
1 dm³
c)
2 dm³
d)
4 dm³
163.

Another Name for moment of couple ?

a)

Torque

b)

cueue

c)

kiln

d)

moment

164.

A device for storing electrical charge is .........

a)

bits

b)

thermometer

c)

capacitor

d)

potentiometer

165.

3x - 9x = 36

find x?

a)

-6

b)

6

c)

3

d)

none of the above

166.

................. is energy by virtue of mass only

a)

Rest energy

b)

potential energy

c)

kinetic energy

d)

momentous energy

167.

In a plant cell, this surrounds the membrane, giving the cell a rigid, boxlike shape.

a)

cell membrane

b)

cell

c)

ribosome

d)

cell wall

168.
This thin layer protects the cell and regulates what substances enter and leave the cell.
a)
cell membrane
b)
cell
c)
cell wall
d)
golgi body
169.

This organelle capture energy from sunlight and use it to produce food for the cell.

a)

cell membrane

b)

chloroplasts

c)

mitochondria

d)

ribosomes

170.

This is the gel-like fluid in which many different organelles are found.

a)

cell membrane

b)

nucleus

c)

organelle

d)

cytoplasm

171.
This structure is a storage area for the cell. Plants usually have one large one.
a)
Lysosome
b)
Vacuole
c)
Ribosome
d)
Golgi Body
172.

This is a tiny membrane-bound structure in a cell that carries out a specific function within a cell.

a)

organelle

b)

cell

c)

nucleus

d)

ribosomes

173.

This organelle directs all the cell's activities.

a)

mitochondria

b)

chloroplasts

c)

vacuole

d)

nucleus

174.
Animal and plant cells are both this type of cell.
a)
Eukaryote
b)
Prokaryote
175.

This organelle makes ribosomes.

a)

Nucleus

b)

Michochondria

c)

Nucleolus

d)

Lysosomes

176.

This organelle converts the stored energy in food into usable energy for the cell.

a)

chloroplast

b)

ER

c)

mitochondria

d)

cell membrane

177.

This organelle breaks down worn-out cell parts and digests substances in the cell.

a)

lysosome

b)

centriole

c)

vacuole

d)

nucleus

178.

Unit of specific heat capacity is

a)

J/K

b)

J/KG

c)

J/KGK

d)

JKG/k

179.

Heat is positive, When heat _________the system

a)

given to

b)

given by

180.

Change of state from solid to vapour is called (a)  

181.

The phenomenon of expansion of water when cooled from 4 degree Celsius to 0 degree Celsius is called (a)   expansion.

182.

Atoms become ions by ___

a)

gaining or losing neutrons

b)

nuclear reactions

c)

gaining or losing electrons

d)

gaining or losing protons

183.

Isothermal process are _______process

a)

fast

b)

slow

c)

very fast

d)

very slow

184.

Cations are atoms that have lost electrons, and therefore take on ___

a)

a negative charge

b)

a positive charge

c)

a larger mass number

d)

a smaller mass number

185.

Atoms that gain electrons to become negative are ___

a)

cautions

b)

onions

c)

anions

d)

aniuns

186.

To write a monatomic ion as a formula, you use the chemical symbol of its base element and then add ___

a)

the charge as a subscript

b)

the charge as a superscript

c)

the mass number as a subscript

d)

the atomic number as a superscript

187.

An ionic compound formed from oxygen and calcium would be named ___

a)

oxygen calcide

b)

oxide calcium

c)

calcium oxide

d)

calcide oxygen

188.

The alkali metals and alkaline earth metals react with non-metals, always ___

a)

losing electrons, forming cations

b)

losing electrons, forming anions

c)

gaining electrons, forming cations

d)

gaining electrons, forming anions

189.

Iron, a transition metal, forms cations that can have a charge of either ___

a)

2- or 3-

b)

1- or 4-

c)

2+ or 3+

d)

1+ or 4+

190.

...................... is an effect caused by a vibrating body making another body to vibrate at its natural frequency?

a)

Resonance

b)

Amplitude

c)

Beat effect

d)

Frequency

191.

............. is the difference between the lowest and highest frequency?

a)

frequency difference

b)

beat frequency

c)

Rarefaction

d)

Diffraction

192.

For the hydrogen atom, which series describes electron transitions to the N=1 orbit, the lowest energy electron orbit? Is it the:

a)

Balmer series

b)

Lyman series

c)

Paschen series

d)

Pfund series

193.

For an object moving in uniform circular motion, the direction of the instantaneous acceleration vector is:

a)

tangent to the path of motion

b)

equal to zero

c)

directed radially outward

d)

directed radially inward

194.

In physics, a radian per second is a unit of:

a)

angular velocity

b)

angular displacement

c)

angular acceleration

d)

angular momentum

195.

The potential difference across a 4 ohm resistor is 20 volts. Assuming that all of the energy dissipated by this resistor is in the form of heat, how many joules of heat are radiated in 10 seconds?

a)

2500J

b)

1500J

c)

1000J

d)

2000J

196.

Induced electric currents can be explained using which of the following laws?

a)

Gauss's Law

b)

Faraday's Law

c)

Ohm's Law

d)

Ampere's Law

197.

A virtual image can be formed by one or more of the following single mirrors? Identify them.

a)

plane mirror

b)

concave spherical mirror

c)

convex spherical mirror

d)

all of the above

198.

Karyo means the cell has a ____________.

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria

c)

ribosome

d)

Golgi apparatus

199.

(Blank) is the organ in your head made up of nerves that processes information and controls behaviour.

a)

Forebrain

b)

Midbrain

c)

Brain

d)

Hindbrain

200.

Karyo means the cell has a ____________.

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria

c)

ribosome

d)

Golgi apparatus

201.

(Blank) is the organ in your head made up of nerves that processes information and controls behaviour.

a)

Forebrain

b)

Midbrain

c)

Brain

d)

Hindbrain

202.

(BLANK) is the anterior part of the brain, including the hemispheres and the central brain structures.

a)

Midbrain

b)

Forebrain

c)

Hindbrain

d)

Cerebellum

203.

(BLANK) is directed towards the front, when used in relation to our biology.

a)

Anterior

b)

Posterior

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Forebrain

204.

Another Name for moment of couple ?

a)

Torque

b)

cueue

c)

kiln

d)

moment

205.

A device for storing electrical charge is .........

a)

bits

b)

thermometer

c)

capacitor

d)

potentiometer

206.

3x - 9x = 36

find x?

a)

-6

b)

6

c)

3

d)

none of the above

207.

................. is energy by virtue of mass only

a)

Rest energy

b)

potential energy

c)

kinetic energy

d)

momentous energy

208.

In a plant cell, this surrounds the membrane, giving the cell a rigid, boxlike shape.

a)

cell membrane

b)

cell

c)

ribosome

d)

cell wall

209.
This thin layer protects the cell and regulates what substances enter and leave the cell.
a)
cell membrane
b)
cell
c)
cell wall
d)
golgi body
210.

This organelle capture energy from sunlight and use it to produce food for the cell.

a)

cell membrane

b)

chloroplasts

c)

mitochondria

d)

ribosomes

211.

This is the gel-like fluid in which many different organelles are found.

a)

cell membrane

b)

nucleus

c)

organelle

d)

cytoplasm

212.
This structure is a storage area for the cell. Plants usually have one large one.
a)
Lysosome
b)
Vacuole
c)
Ribosome
d)
Golgi Body
213.

This is a tiny membrane-bound structure in a cell that carries out a specific function within a cell.

a)

organelle

b)

cell

c)

nucleus

d)

ribosomes

214.

This organelle directs all the cell's activities.

a)

mitochondria

b)

chloroplasts

c)

vacuole

d)

nucleus

215.
Animal and plant cells are both this type of cell.
a)
Eukaryote
b)
Prokaryote
216.

This organelle makes ribosomes.

a)

Nucleus

b)

Michochondria

c)

Nucleolus

d)

Lysosomes

217.

This organelle converts the stored energy in food into usable energy for the cell.

a)

chloroplast

b)

ER

c)

mitochondria

d)

cell membrane

218.

This organelle breaks down worn-out cell parts and digests substances in the cell.

a)

lysosome

b)

centriole

c)

vacuole

d)

nucleus

219.

Unit of specific heat capacity is

a)

J/K

b)

J/KG

c)

J/KGK

d)

JKG/k

220.

Heat is positive, When heat _________the system

a)

given to

b)

given by

221.

Isothermal process are _______process

a)

fast

b)

slow

c)

very fast

d)

very slow

222.

Change of state from solid to vapour is called (a)  

223.

The phenomenon of expansion of water when cooled from 4 degree Celsius to 0 degree Celsius is called (a)   expansion.

224.

Atoms become ions by ___

a)

gaining or losing neutrons

b)

nuclear reactions

c)

gaining or losing electrons

d)

gaining or losing protons

225.

Cations are atoms that have lost electrons, and therefore take on ___

a)

a negative charge

b)

a positive charge

c)

a larger mass number

d)

a smaller mass number

226.

Atoms that gain electrons to become negative are ___

a)

cautions

b)

onions

c)

anions

d)

aniuns

227.

To write a monatomic ion as a formula, you use the chemical symbol of its base element and then add ___

a)

the charge as a subscript

b)

the charge as a superscript

c)

the mass number as a subscript

d)

the atomic number as a superscript

228.

An ionic compound formed from oxygen and calcium would be named ___

a)

oxygen calcide

b)

oxide calcium

c)

calcium oxide

d)

calcide oxygen

229.

The alkali metals and alkaline earth metals react with non-metals, always ___

a)

losing electrons, forming cations

b)

losing electrons, forming anions

c)

gaining electrons, forming cations

d)

gaining electrons, forming anions

230.

Iron, a transition metal, forms cations that can have a charge of either ___

a)

2- or 3-

b)

1- or 4-

c)

2+ or 3+

d)

1+ or 4+

231.

...................... is an effect caused by a vibrating body making another body to vibrate at its natural frequency?

a)

Resonance

b)

Amplitude

c)

Beat effect

d)

Frequency

232.

............. is the difference between the lowest and highest frequency?

a)

frequency difference

b)

beat frequency

c)

Rarefaction

d)

Diffraction

233.

For the hydrogen atom, which series describes electron transitions to the N=1 orbit, the lowest energy electron orbit? Is it the:

a)

Balmer series

b)

Lyman series

c)

Paschen series

d)

Pfund series

234.

For an object moving in uniform circular motion, the direction of the instantaneous acceleration vector is:

a)

tangent to the path of motion

b)

equal to zero

c)

directed radially outward

d)

directed radially inward

235.

A Newton is equal to which of the following?

a)

kilogram per meter-second

b)

kilogram-meter per second squared

c)

meter per second squared

d)

kilogram-meter per second

236.

In physics, a radian per second is a unit of:

a)

angular velocity

b)

angular displacement

c)

angular acceleration

d)

angular momentum

237.

The potential difference across a 4 ohm resistor is 20 volts. Assuming that all of the energy dissipated by this resistor is in the form of heat, how many joules of heat are radiated in 10 seconds?

a)

2500J

b)

1500J

c)

1000J

d)

2000J

238.

Induced electric currents can be explained using which of the following laws?

a)

Gauss's Law

b)

Faraday's Law

c)

Ohm's Law

d)

Ampere's Law

239.

A virtual image can be formed by one or more of the following single mirrors? Identify them.

a)

plane mirror

b)

concave spherical mirror

c)

convex spherical mirror

d)

all of the above

240.

Karyo means the cell has a ____________.

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria

c)

ribosome

d)

Golgi apparatus

241.

(Blank) is the organ in your head made up of nerves that processes information and controls behaviour.

a)

Forebrain

b)

Midbrain

c)

Brain

d)

Hindbrain

242.

(BLANK) is the anterior part of the brain, including the hemispheres and the central brain structures.

a)

Midbrain

b)

Forebrain

c)

Hindbrain

d)

Cerebellum

243.

(BLANK) is directed towards the front, when used in relation to our biology.

a)

Anterior

b)

Posterior

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Forebrain

244.
Which of the following organisms are LEAST closely related?
a)
organisms that share a domain
b)
organisms that share a family 
c)
organisms that share a genus 
d)
organisms that share a species 
245.
The scientific name for an organism is made from the:
a)
class and family name
b)
genus and species name
c)
domain and kingdom name
d)
kingdom and phylum name
246.
The 8 levels of classification, most broad to most specific.
a)
Domain, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom, Species
b)
Domain, Species, Kingdom, Genus, Phylum, Family, Class, Order
c)
Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
d)
Order, Kingdom, Species, Domain, Phylum, Family, Class, Genus
247.
Cells that do not have a true nucleus are called....
a)
eukaryote
b)
prokaryote
c)
unicellular
d)
multicellular
248.
Organisms are the same ___________ when they can have offspring, then those have more offspring.
a)
Class
b)
Family
c)
Species
d)
Phylum
249.
Which organisms are closely related? 
a)
American badger and leopard
b)
coyote and gray wolf
c)
european otter and leopard
d)
coyote and american badger
250.
A student discovers an arachnid with a segmented abdomen, long legs, and a tail with no stinger. The student uses the dichotomous key below to identify it. Which arachnid has the student found?
a)
Whip Scorpion
b)
Wind Scorpion
c)
Daddy long legs
d)
Scorpion
251.
What is the most primitive organism shown on the cladogram?
a)
chimp
b)
perch
c)
hagfish
d)
salamander
252.
Which kingdom contains members who are prokaryotic?
a)
Archaebacteria and Eubacteria
b)
Archaebacteria and Protista
c)
Eubacteria and Animalia
d)
Eubacteria  and Fungi
253.
Members of this kingdom never have a cell wall
a)
Animalia
b)
Plantae
c)
Archaebacteria
d)
Protista
254.
Which organelle is only found in a plant cell? 
a)
nucleus
b)
chloroplast
c)
mitochondria
d)
cell membrane
255.
Where is DNA stored in a cell? 
a)
Lysosomes
b)
Golgi Complex
c)
Ribosomes
d)
Nucleus
256.
What is the fluid inside a cell called? 
a)
Endoplasimic Reticulum
b)
Orange Juice
c)
Water
d)
Cytoplasm
257.
This organelle helps plants keep their rigid structure. 
a)
Cell wall
b)
Cell membrane
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Nucleus
258.
The green pigment in plants is due to the presence of 
a)
chlorophyll
b)
Chlorine
c)
Chlorophyta
d)
chromatophores
259.
When using the microscope, you should always start with this objective lens
a)
low power
b)
high power
260.
Controls what enters and leaves the cell
a)
Cell Membrane
b)
Ribosome
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Vacuole
261.
Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.
a)
food
b)
energy
c)
oxygen
d)
water
262.
Permeable means
a)
things can pass through
b)
the concentration levels are different
c)
it is permanent
d)
things are stuck
263.
If there is 5 percent water inside a cell and 5 percent water outside a cell
a)
more water will move inside the cell
b)
more water will move outside the cell
c)
There will be no movement of water cells
264.
A group of the same type of cells that work together for a purpose are called -
a)
 a tissue
b)
an organ
c)
an organ system
d)
an unicellular organism
265.
A group of different tissues working together is - 
a)
an organ
b)
an organ system
c)
a   prokaryote
d)
a cell
266.
The levels of organization from the simplest to the most complex are
a)
Cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organism
b)
Organisms, organs, tissues, cells, organ systems
c)
Cells, organs, organ systems, tissues, organism
d)
Tissues, cells, organs, organism
267.
Two examples of organ systems in the human body are - 
a)
digestive system and respiratory system
b)
circulatory system and fluid system
c)
blood system and food system
d)
nervous system and stomach system
268.
Which statement is correct?
a)
A group of organs work together to form an organ system
b)
Tissues that have the same function form an organ system
c)
Cell that have the same function form an organ
d)
Organ systems working together form a tissue
269.
Which instrument is credited for helping scientists develop cell theory?
a)
 the microscope
b)
a hand lens
c)
an electronic balance
d)
a thermometer
270.
Which of these can only be found in a plant cell?
a)
 A nucleus
b)
A vacuole
c)
A chloroplast
d)
A mitochondrion
271.
Every organ is made up of one or more: 
a)
Organ Systems
b)
Tissues
c)
Muscles
d)
Bones
272.
Which type of tissue is responsible for the movement of body parts?
a)
Connective
b)
Muscle
c)
Nervous
d)
Epithelial
273.

which is NOT an example of an organelle?

a)

mitochondrion

b)

nucleus

c)

heart

d)

cell membrane

274.
Some bacteria are metabolically active in hot springs because ____________
a)
their enzymes are insensitive to temperature
b)
they use molecules other than proteins as their main catalysts
c)
their enzymes have high optimal temperatures
d)
they are able to maintain an internal temperature much cooler than that of the surrounding water
275.
Which of these is NOT true?
a)
Enzymes can denature (change shape) when the temperature gets too high.
b)
Enzymes can only be used once in a chemical reaction. 
c)
Extreme pH can denature enzymes.
d)
Enzymes speed up chemical reactions. 
276.
At high temperatures enzyme activity declines because of:
a)
Denaturation
b)
Decreased Kinetic Motion
c)
Increased H-Bonding
d)
Dissociation of Ionic Compounds
277.
Most enzymes have the ending:
a)
-ase
b)
-ose
c)
-ic acid
d)
-ate
278.
When a molecule can occupy the same active site as the substrate, a situation called __________________ can result
a)
Competitive lnhibition
b)
Allosteric Regulation
c)
Non-Competitive Inhibition
d)
Feedback Inhibition
279.
Letter D...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
280.
The graph shows how enzymes affect reactions in cells. Which statement best summarizes the information shown in the graph?
a)
Enzymes increase the energy of the reactants.
b)
Enzymes decrease the energy level of the products.
c)
Enzyme decrease the activation energy of the reaction.
d)
Enzymes reverse the direction of the reaction.
281.

In order to increase the rate of reaction using an enzyme a scientist could.... (Choose all that apply)

a)

Increase the amount of substrate

b)

Decrease the temperature

c)

Increase the temperartue

d)

Introduce a competitive inhibitor

282.
What type of cell is this?
a)
animal
b)
plant
c)
bacteria
d)
algae
283.
Which of these would you not find in an animal cell?
a)
cell membrane
b)
cell wall
c)
nucleus
d)
ribosome
284.
Which of these would you not expect to find in a bacterial cell?
a)
cell wall
b)
cell membrane
c)
nucleus
d)
cytoplasm
285.
Where in a cell does respiration take place?
a)
ribosome
b)
nucleus
c)
mitochondria
d)
cytoplasm
286.

Basic unit of all forms of life

a)

Cell

b)

Nucleus

c)

Prokaryote

d)

Eukaryote

287.

Thin, flexible barrier that surrounds all cells; regulates what enters and leaves the cell

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Cell Membrane

c)

Nucleus

d)

Golgi apparatus

288.

In eukaryotic cells, all cellular contents outside the nucleus; in prokaryotic cells, all of the cell's contents

a)

Centriole

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Cytoskeleton

289.

Cell organelle that stores materials such as water, salts, proteins, and carbohydrates

a)

Centriole

b)

Vacuole

c)

Ribosome

d)

Lysosome

290.

Structure in an animal cell that helps to organize cell division

a)

Nucleus

b)

Nucleolus

c)

Endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Centriole

291.

Organelle found in cells of plants and some other organisms that captures the energy from sunlight and converts it into chemical energy

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Lipid Bilayer

292.

Strong, supporting layer around the cell membrane in some cells

a)

Cytoskeleton

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Cell wall

d)

Nucleus

293.

Which of these is NOT true of organelles(cell parts)?

a)

Organelles perform a certain function for a cell.

b)

Organelles are membrane-enclosed structures in a cell.

c)

Organelles are all the same inside a particular animal.

d)

Organelles are separated from the other parts of the cell.

294.

Which of these is NOT a unique structure to plant cells?

a)

cell wall

b)

central vacuole

c)

chloroplas

d)

nucleus

295.
Which of the following is the smallest unit of life that can carry out all life functions?
a)
the mitochondria
b)
the vacuoles
c)
the nucleus
d)
the cell
296.
What is the function of the cell nucleus found in both plant and animal cells?
a)
to produce energy
b)
to control cell activity
c)
to remove waste products
d)
to allow molecules to enter the cell
297.

All cells need energy (ATP) to function. Which cell organelle is responsible for producing energy in the cell? "The Powerhouse"

a)

chloroplasts

b)

mitochondria

c)

nucleus

d)

vacuoles

298.

Where do new cells come from?

a)

other cells

b)

nucleus

c)

Golgi body

d)

macrophages

299.
Directs all cell activities through the DNA located there.
a)
Lysosomes
b)
Nucleus
c)
ribosomes
d)
Mitochondria
300.

Because they share similar structures, cells all carry out the same function.

a)

True

b)

False

301.

Bonding in diamond is

a)

covalent

b)

ionic

c)

dipole

d)

metallic

302.

Ionic Solids Have

a)

a low melting point

b)

a moderate melting point

c)

a high melting point

d)

none of these

303.

The bond between ice molecules is

a)

ionic

b)

covalent

c)

a hydrogen

d)

metallic

304.

Ionic bonds are mainly formed in

a)

inorganic compounds

b)

metals

c)

organic compounds

d)

none of these

305.

The bond between ice molecules is

a)

ionic

b)

covalent

c)

a hydrogen

d)

metallic

306.

How many basic crystal systems are possible ?

a)

Four

b)

Five

c)

Six

d)

Seven

307.

How many types of Bravis lattices are possible in crystals ?

a)

7

b)

14

c)

8

d)

5

308.

The number of lattice points in a primitive cell is

a)

4

b)

2

c)

8

d)

1

309.

The percentage of total volume occupied by the particles in a bbc structure is

a)

32

b)

68

c)

50

d)

74

310.

The fcc structure is often called

a)

cubic close packed

b)

hexagonal close packed

c)

the garaphite structure

d)

the diamond structure

311.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

312.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

313.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

314.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

315.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

316.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

317.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

318.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

319.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

320.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

321.

Which homolgous series contains a C=C double bond?

a)

alkanes

b)

alkenes

c)

alcohols

d)

carboxylic acids

322.

Which homolgous series contains only C-C single bonds?

a)

alkanes

b)

alkenes

c)

alcohols

d)

carboxylic acids

323.

Which type of polymerisation uses only one monomer?

a)

addition polymerisation

b)

condensation polymerisation

324.

Which type of polymerisation uses two different monomers, both contain a functional group at each end?

a)

addition polymerisation

b)

condensation polymerisation

325.

What is made when a dicarboxylic acid reacts with a diol?

a)

a polyamide

b)

a polyester

c)

an evaporation polymer

d)

a condensation polymer

326.

-COOH is the functional group for...

a)

alcohols

b)

esters

c)

carboxylic acids

d)

amides

327.

-COO is the functional group for...

a)

alcohols

b)

esters

c)

carboxylic acids

d)

amides

328.

-OH is the functional group for...

a)

alcohols

b)

esters

c)

carboxylic acids

d)

amides

329.

An alcohol can be __________________ to form a carboxylic acid

a)

oxidised

b)

reduced

c)

polymerised

d)

broken down

330.

Alcohols can be oxidised by...

a)

combustion

b)

freezing

c)

decomposition

d)

addition

331.

Acidified potassium dichromate is an example of...

a)

an alkali

b)

a reducing agent

c)

a fuel

d)

an oxidising agent

332.

Name this carboxylic acid

a)

ethanoic acid

b)

prpoanoic acid

c)

butyl butanoate

d)

butanoic acid

333.

Name this ester

a)

ethyl ethanoate

b)

propyl ethanoate

c)

methyl ethanoate

d)

ethyl methanoate

334.

What catalyst is used in making esters?

a)

sodium hydroxide

b)

iron

c)

sulfuric acid

d)

lithium oxide

335.

alkene + ? --> alcohol

a)

hydrogen

b)

oxygen

c)

water

d)

carbon dioixde

336.

alcohol + ? --> carboxylic acid

a)

hydrogen

b)

oxygen (oxidising agent)

c)

water

d)

carbon dioixde

337.

carboxylic acid + ? --> ester

a)

water

b)

alkene

c)

alcohol

d)

alkane

338.

Name the polymer formed from this monomer

a)

chloroethene

b)

chloroethane

c)

dichloroethene

d)

dichloroethane

339.

Name the monomer that forms this polymer

a)

ethane

b)

ethanol

c)

ethene

d)

methene

340.

True or false? A catalyst is required for the hydration of ethene.

a)

True

b)

False

341.
30 m/sec, East. Scalar or Vector
a)
Scalar
b)
Vector
c)
Neither
342.
What is a magnitude?
a)
A numeric value.
b)
A direction.
343.
A scalar is a magnitude _____.
a)
With direction.
b)
Without direction.
344.
Wind blowing at 20 mph.Vector or scalar?
a)
Scalar
b)
Vector
345.
30 m/sec, East. Scalar or Vector
a)
Scalar
b)
Vector
c)
Neither
346.
A deer running 15 meters per second due west.Vector or scalar?
a)
Scalar
b)
Vector
347.
Distance and direction of an object's change in position from a starting point
a)
displacement
b)
distance
c)
motion
d)
reference point
348.
 Amy runs 2 miles south, then turns around and runs 3 miles north. What is displacement?
a)
5 miles
b)
1 mile 
c)
2 miles south
d)
1 mile north 
349.
Which of the following is always positive?
a)
vector
b)
scalar
c)
direction
d)
magnitude
350.
Which of the following may you do to a vector without changing it?
a)
Add a nonzero vector to a vector.
b)
Multiply a vector by a scalar other than 1.
c)
Rotate a vector through any angle other than 360 degrees.
d)
Move the vector without changing its orientation.
351.
The _______ of two or more vectors is the sum of the vectors.
a)
components
b)
scalar
c)
resultant
d)
magnitude
352.
Distance
a)
Vector
b)
Scalar
353.
Length
a)
Vector
b)
Scalar
354.
Displacement
a)
Vector
b)
Scalar
355.
Which one of the following is not the property of a vector quantity?
a)
Unit
b)
Magnitude
c)
Location
d)
Direction
356.
Which symbol is used to show vector quantities?
a)
Circle
b)
Line
c)
Arrow
d)
Triangle
357.
Sara walks from Point A to Point B. Which is true?
a)
Distance and displacement are EQUAL
b)
Distance is less than displacement
358.
Find the distance Sara walks from A to B,  B to C then C to D?
a)
11m
b)
3m
c)
5m
359.

Michael walks in the following order: from Point A, to Point B, and finally to Point C. Which is true?

a)

Distance and displacement are EQUAL

b)

Distance is less than displacement

c)

Displacement is less than distance.

360.

Juan walks in the following order: from Point A, to Point B, to Point C, and stops at Point D. Which is true?

a)

Distance and displacement are EQUAL

b)

Distance is less than displacement

c)

Displacement is less than distance.

361.

Which driver has an equal distance and displacement at B?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

362.

Which of the below units is equivalent to kgms-1 ?

a)

Ns-1

b)

Nms

c)

Ns

d)

J/s

363.

A stationary ball is hit by an average force 50N at time of 0.03s. What is the impulse experienced by the body?

a)

1.5Nm

b)

1.5Ns

c)

0.0006Nm

d)

0.0006Ns

364.

The maximum displacement of a body from its equilibrium position is called

a)

period

b)

frequency

c)

displacement

d)

amplitude

365.

A body of mass 3kg moves with a velocity

10m/s. Calculate the momentum of the body.

a)

30kgm/s

b)

3.33kgm/s

c)

0.3kgms

d)

0.03kgms

366.

To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction is called Newton’s

a)

First law of motion

b)

Second law of motion

c)

Third law of motion

d)

Conservation of linear momentum

367.

What is the unit of pressure in SI system of units?

a)

Pa

b)

W

c)

J

d)

Atm

368.

The magnitude of the force required to make an object of mass, m move with speed, v in a circular path of radius, r is given by the expression.

a)

mr/v

b)

mr2/v

c)

mv2/r

d)

mv/r2

369.

A footballer taking a penalty kick applies a force of 100N

for 0.03s on a ball of mass 150g. The ball moves off

with a speed of what?

a)

10m/s

b)

20m/s

c)

30m/s

d)

40m/s

370.

Which of the following is a vector quantity

a)

mass

b)

speed

c)

density

d)

momentum

371.

The time rate of change of momentum is called

a)

weight

b)

gravity

c)

force

d)

impulse

372.

If the value of a certain quantity is recorded as (4±0.36), the maximum percentage error is ___

a)

4 %

b)

9 %

c)

11 %

d)

15 %

373.

If two vectors are anti-parallel then θ = _____

a)

0o

b)

 90o

c)

 180o

d)

360o

374.

For a particle having a uniform circular motion, which of the following is constant _____.

a)

speed

b)

Acceleration

c)

Velocity

d)

Displacement

375.

If two resistors of 2.1Ω and 5.3Ω are connected in series, then the resultant resistance is

a)

8.4 Ω

b)

7.3 Ω

c)

7.4 Ω

d)

5.2 Ω

376.

Magnetic meridian is the plane _____.

a)

perpendicular to the magnetic axis of Earth

b)

perpendicular to geographic axis of Earth

c)

passing through the magnetic axis of Earth

d)

passing through the geographic axis Earth

377.

The loss of strength of the signal while propagating through the channel is known as_____.

a)

Range

b)

Bandwidth     

c)

Attenuation    

d)

Noise

378.

A small device having hundreds of diodes and transistors, performing the work of a large number of electronic circuits is called _____.

a)

LED

b)

IC

c)

Solar cell

d)

None of tese

379.

If the value of a certain quantity is recorded as (5±0.45), the maximum percentage error is _____.

a)

4%

b)

9 %

c)

11 %

d)

15 %

380.

If two vectors are parallel then θ = _____.

a)

0o

b)

 90o

c)

180o    

d)

360o

381.

An object thrown from a moving bus is on example of_____.

a)

Uniform circular motion

b)

Rectilinear motion

c)

Projectile motion

d)

Motion in one dimension

382.

. If two resistors of 9.1Ω and 5.3Ω are connected in series, then the resultant resistance is  _____.

a)

18.4 Ω

b)

15.3 Ω

c)

14.4 Ω

d)

11.2Ω

383.

Inside a bar magnet, the magnetic field lines _____.

a)

are not present

b)

are parallel to the cross sectional area of the magnet

c)

are in the direction from N pole to S pole

d)

are in the direction from S pole to N pole

384.

The maximum distance between a source and a destination up to which the signal can be received is called _____.

a)

Range

b)

Bandwidth

c)

Attenuation

d)

Noise

385.

A semiconductor device that changes its resistance when light is incident on it is called _____.

a)

Photo diode

b)

Photo resistor

c)

Solar cell

d)

None of these

386.

A bag contains 5 black, 4 white, and x red marbles. If the probability of picking a red marble is 2/5, find the value of x.

a)

8

b)

10

c)

4

d)

6

387.

What is the probability of picking the letter 'T' from the word OBSTRUCTION?

a)

1/11

b)

2/11

c)

3/11

d)

4/11

388.

The result of rolling a fair die 150 times is summarized in a table. If the number 5 appeared 15 times, what is the probability of obtaining a 5?

a)

3/10

b)

1/5

c)

1/6

d)

1/10

389.

The probability of a student passing any examination is 2/3. If the student takes three examinations, what is the probability that he will not pass any of them?

a)

2/3

b)

4/9

c)

8/27

d)

1/27

390.

The table below shows the distribution of marks of students in a test: Marks: 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Number of students: 3 4 1 0 4 5 2 1 What is the probability of passing the test if the pass mark is 5?

a)

3/5

b)

2/5

c)

7/20

d)

1/5

391.

A bag contains 5 black balls and 3 red balls. Two balls are picked at random without replacement. What is the probability that a black and a red ball are picked?

a)

15/28

b)

13/28

c)

5/14

d)

3/14

392.

The probabilities that events A and B occur are P(A) = 1/5 and P(B) = 1/3. If P(A and B) = 1/15, what is the probability of A or B occurring?

a)

2/15

b)

3/4

c)

7/15

d)

1/15

393.

The probabilities that a man and his wife live for 80 years are 2/3 and 3/5 respectively. What is the probability that at least one of them lives up to 80 years?

a)

2/15

b)

3/15

c)

7/15

d)

13/15

394.

A student has a 2/3 chance of passing a Physics test. If he takes 3 tests, what is the probability that he passes exactly 2 of them?

a)

2/27

b)

3/27

c)

4/27

d)

12/27

395.

A die is tossed once. What is the probability of getting a number greater than 4?

a)

1/6

b)

1/3

c)

1/2

d)

2/3

396.

In how many ways can the letters of the word ACCEPTANCE be arranged?

a)

10! / (2!2!3!)

b)

10! / (2!3!)

c)

10! / (2!2!)

d)

10!

397.

Find the number of ways of selecting 6 out of 10 subjects for an examination.

a)

128

b)

216

c)

215

d)

210

398.

In how many ways can a delegation of 3 be chosen from 5 men and 3 women, if at least 1 man and 1 woman must be included?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

30

d)

40

399.

In how many ways can 9 people be seated if 3 chairs are available?

a)

720

b)

504

c)

336

d)

210

400.

In how many ways can a committee of 2 women and 3 men be chosen from 6 men and 5 women?

a)

100

b)

200

c)

30

d)

50

401.

A final examination requires that a student answer any 4 out of 6 questions. In how many ways can this be done?

a)

15

b)

20

c)

30

d)

45

402.

In how many ways can five people sit round a circular table?

a)

24

b)

60

c)

12

d)

120

403.

How many different 4-digit numbers can be formed from the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 if no digit is repeated?

a)

120

b)

60

c)

20

d)

5

404.

In how many ways can 3 boys and 2 girls be selected from 5 boys and 4 girls?

a)

60

b)

40

c)

20

d)

10

405.

A committee of 3 is to be formed from 4 men and 3 women. How many committees can be formed if at least one woman is included?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

406.

Which of the following is not a measure of dispersion?

a)

Range

b)

Mean deviation

c)

Mean

d)

Standard deviation

407.

Which of the following is not a measure of dispersion?

a)

Mode

b)

Mean deviation

c)

Range

d)

Interquartile range

408.

Find the variance of a group of data whose standard deviation is 12.34, to the nearest whole number.

a)

150

b)

151

c)

152

d)

153

409.

Calculate the standard deviation of the following scores: 5, 4, 6, 7, and 8.

a)

√2

b)

√3

c)

2

d)

3

410.

The mean of ten positive numbers is 16. When another number is added, the mean becomes 18. Find the eleventh number.

a)

3

b)

16

c)

38

d)

30

411.

The mean of the numbers 13, 16, x, 18, 21, 2x, 35 is 22. Find the value of x.

a)

16

b)

17

c)

23

412.

Which of the following is not a measure of dispersion?

a)

Mode

b)

Mean deviation

c)

Range

d)

Interquartile range

413.

Calculate the standard deviation of the following scores: 5, 4, 6, 7, and 8.

a)

√2

b)

√3

c)

2

d)

3

414.

Find the variance of a group of data whose standard deviation is 12.34, to the nearest whole number.

a)

A. 150

b)

B. 151

c)

C. 152

d)

D. 153

415.

Which of the following is not a measure of dispersion?

a)

Mode

b)

Mean deviation

c)

Range

d)

Interquartile range

416.

What is the mean of the data: t, 2t - 1, t - 2, 2t - 1, 4t, and 2t + 2?

a)

2t

b)

2t - 1

c)

(2/3)t + 1

d)

2t - (1/3)

417.

Find the median of the numbers: 4, 1, 4, 1, 0, 4, 4, 2, and 0.

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

4

418.

Find the mean deviation of the numbers: 2, 4, 5, and 9.

(a)  

419.

How many students were absent for at least four days?

a)

180

b)

120

c)

110

d)

40

420.

The numbers 5, 8, 6, and k occur with frequencies 3, 2, 4, and 1 respectively. If the mean is 6, find k.

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

421.

Find the median of class intervals: 1–5, 6–10, 11–15, 16–20, 21–25, 26–30, 31–35, 36–40 Frequencies: 2, 4, 5, 2, 3, 2, 1, 1

a)

11.5

b)

12.5

c)

14.0

d)

14.5

422.

The mean of ten positive numbers is 16. When another number is added, the mean becomes 18. Find the eleventh number.

a)

3

b)

16

c)

38

d)

30

423.

The mean of the numbers 13, 16, x, 18, 21, 2x, and 35 is 22. Find the value of x.

a)

16

b)

17

c)

23

d)

25

424.

Calculate the standard deviation of: 5, 4, 6, 7, and 8.

a)

√2

b)

√3

c)

2

425.

Find the variance of a group of data with standard deviation 12.34 (to nearest whole number).

a)

150

b)

151

c)

152

d)

153

426.

Calculate the relative molecular mass of sodium tetraoxosulphate(VI). [Na = 23, H = 1, S = 32, O = 16]

(a)  

427.

Calculate the concentration in g/dm3 of a solution containing 0.01moldm3 of K2CO3. [K = 39, C = 12, O = 16]

a)

0.47

b)

0.67

c)

1.38

d)

1.40

428.

A gas occupies 100cm3at 380mmHg and 310K. What is its volume in cm3 at s.t.p?

a)

30

b)

44

c)

170

d)

210

429.

Calculate the mass in grams of 0.4 mole of carbon atom. (C = 12)

a)

0.40

b)

4.80

c)

11.60

d)

12.00

430.

What volume of 0.40 mol/dm3 H2SO4 will be required to neutralize 20cm3 of 0.10mol/dm3 NaOH solution?

H2SO4 + 2NaOH → Na2SO4 + 2H2O

a)

3.5

b)

2.55

c)

2.5

d)

1.45

431.

The oxidation state of copper in CuCl2 is

a)

+3

b)

+2

c)

+1

d)

-1

432.

How many moles are there in 10g of sodium trixonitrate(V)? [Na = 23, N = 14, O = 16]

a)

1.12

b)

1.00

c)

0.12

d)

0.11

433.

Calculate the percentage of water of crystallisation in FeSO4.7H2O. [ Fe = 56, S = 32, O = 16, H = 1]

a)

56.30

b)

45.30

c)

32.20

d)

27.80

434.

Organic compounds A and B have molecular formula CH3CH2OH and CH3OCH3 respectively. It can be deduced that both

a)

are alkanals

b)

are alkanols

c)

are isomers

d)

have the same structural formula

435.

What is the solubility n moldm-3 of 20g of CuSO4 dissolved in 100g of water at 1800C? [CuSO4 = 159.4]

a)

0.01

b)

0.13

c)

0.25

d)

1.25

436.

2H2 + O2 → 2H2O. From the equation above, how many moles of hydrogen is required to produce 10 moles of water?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

10

437.

0.1 Faraday of electricity was passed through a solution of copper(II) tetraoxosulphate(IV). Calculate the mass in grams of copper deposited at the cathode. [Cu = 64]

a)

3.2

b)

6.4

c)

16.00

d)

32.00

438.

Calculate the mass of hydrogen chloride gas formed when 14.2g of chlorine reacts with excess hydrogen. [Cl = 35.5, H = 1]

a)

14.2

b)

14.6

c)

29.2

d)

29.6

439.

A given gas occupies 250cm3 at 850mmHg. At what pressure in mmHg will be the volume be doubled?

a)

250

b)

425

c)

760

d)

1100

440.

Calculate the mass in grams of 0.2 mole of carbon atom. [C = 12]

a)

60

b)

24

c)

2.4

d)

1.2

441.

What is the molecular formula of a hydrocarbon that contains 36g of carbon with vapour density of 22? [C = 12, H = 1]

a)

C2H4

b)

C2H6

c)

C3H6

d)

C3H8

442.

What mass in grams of sodium trioxocarbonate(IV) salt will be dissolved in 1000cm3 of water to produce a concentration of 0.1M? [Na = 23, C = 12, O = 16]

a)

6.4

b)

10.6

c)

20.6

d)

106.0

443.

When alkynes are hydrogenated with two molecules of hydrogen gas, they produce compounds with general molecular formula

a)

CnH2n

b)

CnH2n + 1

c)

CnH2n + 2

d)

CnH2n - 1

444.

Which of the following is a by - product of solvay process?

a)

CaCl2

b)

CaO

c)

CO2

d)

H2O

445.

In an electrochemical series, which of the following anions will discharged the least?

a)

Cl-

b)

Br-

c)

NO3-

d)

F-

446.

Which of the following is not a property of longitudinal waves?

a)

Compression

b)

Refraction

c)

Polarization

d)

Diffraction

447.

The maximum displacement of particles from their equilibrium position is called

a)

Wave velocity

b)

Period

c)

Frequency

d)

Amplitude

448.

The characteristics of waves which enables one to differentiate a high note from low note

a)

Loudness

b)

Pitch

c)

Intensity

d)

Tone

449.

If V is the velocity of a wave, ƛ its wavelength and T its period, the V, ƛ and T are related by the expression

a)

ƛ = VT

b)

ƛ = V/T2

c)

T2= ƛv

d)

V=ƛT

450.

Transverse and longitudinal waves travelling in the same direction in a medium differ essentially in their

a)

Wavelength

b)

Amplitude

c)

Frequency

d)

Direction of vibration of the particle of the medium

451.

A wave of wavelength 0.3m travels 900m in 3.0s, calculate its frequency

a)

300Hz

b)

900Hz

c)

270Hz

d)

1000Hz

452.

A progressive wave equation is represented by Y = A sin (150πt - πx/4). If the phase difference of a progressive wave is 450, the value of x in the equation is

a)

2cm

b)

1cm

c)

4cm

d)

3cm

453.

Determine the distance between consecutive antinodes XX if the wavelength is 60cm

a)

15cm

b)

30cm

c)

60cm

d)

120cm

454.

--------- involves the change in the direction of waves when they bounce off a barrier

a)

Refraction

b)

Reflection

c)

Diffraction

d)

Interference

455.

Which of the following is not correct? Simple examples of first order lever are:

a)

Crowbar

b)

Claw hammer

c)

Plier

d)

Wheel barrow

456.

Which one of the following is an example of third class lever

a)

Knife

b)

Crowbar

c)

Forearm

d)

Plier

457.

A lever whose effort is between the fulcrum and the load is called-----

a)

First class lever

b)

Second class lever

c)

Third class lever

d)

Wheel and axle

458.

The velocity ratio of an inclined plane whose angle of inclination is 300 is---

a)

0.5

b)

5.0

c)

2.0

d)

3.0

459.

In which of the following machine is the effort applied between the load and the fulcrum?

a)

Claw hammer

b)

Plier

c)

Tongs

d)

Nut cracker

460.

A machine, with velocity ratio 2, raises a load of 200N through a vertical distance of 2m and the amount of work required by the machine is 400J. What is the efficiency of the machine?

a)

100%

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

12.5

461.

In a machine, the mechanical advantage is equal to the velocity ratio when:

a)

Load = effort

b)

Velocity ratio = 1

c)

Efficiency is 100%

d)

Friction in the machine is zero

462.

Calculate the frequency of radio wave of wavelength 600m if the velocity of all e.m.f are in space is 3 x 108m/s

a)

0.01MHz

b)

0.5MHz

c)

5MHz

d)

500MHz

463.

A plane inclined at an angle of 300to the horizontal has an efficiency of 50%. The force parallel to the plane required to push a load of 120N uniformly up the plane is?

a)

150N

b)

120N

c)

30N

d)

45N

464.

A wheel and axle has radii 80cm and 10cm respectively. If the efficiency of the machine is 0.85, an applied force of 1200N to the wheel will raise a load of

a)

8.0N

b)

6.8N

c)

8160N

d)

9600N

465.

Calculate the velocity ratio of a screw jack of pitch 0.3cm if the length of the Tommy bar is 21cm

a)

1/140π

b)

14π

c)

70π

d)

140π

466.

Which of the following value on the absolute scale of temperature is the ice point?

a)

0k

b)

32k

c)

100k

d)

273k

467.

Which one of the following is NOT an example of wind instrument

a)

Clarinet

b)

Guitars

c)

Saxophone

d)

Pipe organ

468.

A man 1.8m tall stands 3m away from a pinhole camera, if the distance between the pinhole and the screen of the camera is 0.3m, calculate the height of the image of the man produced by the camera

a)

18m

b)

0.18m

c)

27m

d)

0.32m

469.

A ray of light makes an angle of 350 with a plane mirror. What is the angle of reflection

a)

700

b)

350

c)

550

d)

650

470.

An object is placed between two mirrors which are inclined at an angle of 1200 and facing each other. Determine the number of images observed in the two mirrors

a)

15

b)

12

c)

3

d)

2

471.

Which of the following property is a consequence of superposition of waves?

a)

Reflection

b)

Refraction

c)

Interference

d)

Polarization

472.

Which of the following statements about wave motion is correct?

a)

Transverse wave do not require a medium for propagation

b)

Longitudinal waves vibrate perpendicular to direction of wave

c)

Electromagnetic waves are transverse waves

d)

All mechanical waves are longitudinal waves

473.

A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of 300. Calculate the angle which the reflected ray makes with the surface of the mirror.

a)

1200

b)

600

c)

900

d)

1800

474.

The image in a pin hole camera is always

a)

Enlarged

b)

Upright

c)

Inverted

d)

Blurred

475.

An object is placed between two mirrors which are inclined at an angle of 900 while facing each other. The number of images formed by the two mirrors are

a)

6

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

476.

The distance between two points in phase on a progressive wave is 5cm. if the speed of the wave is 0.2m/s, calculate its period.

a)

25s

b)

0.22s

c)

0.25s

d)

33s

477.

The distance between two successive crests of a water wave is 1m. If a particle on the surface of the water wave makes two complete vertical oscillations in one second, calculate the speed of the wave

a)

20m/s

b)

2.0m/s

c)

25m/s

d)

1m/s

478.

Radio wave has a velocity of 3 x 108m/s. A radio station sends out a broadcast on a frequency of 800 KHz. The wavelength of the broadcast is

a)

375m

b)

267m

c)

240m

d)

26.7m

479.

A ray of light strikes a plane mirror at a glancing angle of 500. Calculate the angle between the incident and reflected rays.

a)

550

b)

700

c)

800

d)

650

480.

An object is placed in front of two plane mirrors inclined at an angle of Ɵ0. If the total number of images formed is 7, find the value of Ɵ

a)

300

b)

450

c)

510

d)

900

481.

Calculate the position of an object placed in front of a convex mirror having a focal length of 12cm such that an image is formed 6cm away from the mirror.

a)

4.0cm

b)

3.0cm

c)

12.0cm

d)

9.0cm

482.

-------- represents the centre of the sphere of which the mirror forms a part.

a)

Radius of curvature

b)

Centre of curvature

c)

Pole

d)

Principal axis

483.

Which of the following best defines a penumbra

a)

A place where anular eclipse occurs

b)

A place of dark shadows

c)

A place of grey shadows

d)

The centre of the moon

484.

A road sign is an example of --------

a)

Transparent object

b)

Luminous object

c)

Translucent object

d)

Non-luminous object

485.

Loudness of sound depends on

a)

Frequency

b)

Intensity

c)

Overtones

d)

Harmonics

486.

Consider the reaction represented by the following equation: 147N + 42He 178O + 11Z. Z represents

a)

a proton

b)

an electron

c)

a beta particle

d)

helium nucleus

487.

The type of bond formed when 6X and 17Y combine is

a)

metallic

b)

ionic

c)

hydrogen

d)

covalent

488.

If metal M forms a chloride MCl2, then the formula for its trioxocarbonate(IV)salt would be

a)

M3(CO3)2

b)

M(CO3)2

c)

M2CO3

d)

MCO3

489.

How many atoms are contained in 0.6g Na? [Na = 23, Avogadro constant = 6.02 x1023]

a)

1.57 x 1023

b)

1.57 x 1022

c)

3.7 x 1023

d)

3.7 x 1022

490.

Which of the following neutralization reactions will have the same enthalpy change?

I. CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O

II. HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O

III. HCl + NH4OH → NH4Cl + H2O

IV. HNO3 + NaOH → NaNO3 + H2O

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

II and IV only

491.

The following gases decolorize bromine water except

a)

C2H6

b)

C2H4

c)

C3H6

d)

C2H2

492.

The smallest unit of a polymer is a

a)

dissaccaharide

b)

monomer

c)

dimer

d)

monosaccharide

493.

The process by which protein is converted to amino acid is

a)

polymerization

b)

hydrolysis

c)

hydrogenation

d)

cracking

494.

The production of biogas from the fermentation of waste materials is an example

a)

combustion

b)

incineration

c)

refining

d)

recycling

495.

Alkanoates can be represented as

a)

RCH2OH

b)

RCONH2

c)

RCOOR

d)

RCOOH

496.

Pollution of rivers by domestic waste causes

a)

scarcity of nutrients

b)

an increased level of sediment

c)

increased presence of heavy metals

d)

reduced level of dissolved oxygen

497.

The final product obtained when starch is hydrolysed using a dilute mineral acid is

a)

fructose

b)

glucose

c)

maltose

d)

sucrose

498.

The relative molecular mass of a compound with empirical formula CH2O is [H = 1, C = 12, O = 16]

a)

42

b)

45

c)

126

d)

180

499.

Consider the following reaction equation: CH2 = CH2 + H2 → CH3CH3

An important industrial application of the principle is the

a)

reforming of crude oil

b)

cracking of crude oil

c)

hardening of vegetable oil

d)

fractional distillation of vegetable oil