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Lubricant Sampling and Analysis Quiz

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When storing lubricant drums outside, it is best to:

a)

Store vertically (with the top surface flat) in the open sunlight

b)

Store at an angle with the openings at the high and low positions

c)

Store horizontally and covered

d)

Cover them with a sheet of plywood

e)

Store them upside down directly on the ground

2.

Lubricant shelf life limits:

a)

Are rigorously controlled by the manufacturer

b)

Get longer over time

c)

Are about 10 years

d)

Vary according to the type of lube and type of storage condition

e)

Can be stored indefinitely

3.

Best practices for top-up oil containers could include:

a)

Closeable galvanized containers

b)

Dedicated and scalable containers, by oil type

c)

Any available container will be satisfactory

d)

Lubricants should be stored at the machinery location, regardless of the cleanliness

e)

Use a funnel which contains a screen in the bottom to catch contaminants

4.

Lubricant refilling best practices should include which of the following:

a)

Use a filter cart to charge (fill) the system with oil, if possible

b)

Refill the equipment while it is operating and hot

c)

A funnel

d)

A funnel if it has been capped (or scaled)

e)

A sealed container with a tube for siphoning

5.

A filter's differential pressure slowly increases over time. What's wrong?

a)

The filter has burst

b)

The filter bypass valve is open

c)

ISO particle counts should be taken

d)

Filter differential pressure does not increase

e)

Nothing, it's removing dirt

6.

The benefit that is achieved with the use of a hard-piped sampling valve (mini-mess) is:

a)

Dead volume is minimized

b)

Flushing is easy to do

c)

Sampling is clean due to the threaded dust cap

d)

There is low risk of leakage

e)

All of the above

7.

Which of the following contributes to poor quality and unreliable oil analysis data?

a)

Sampling from drain ports

b)

Sampling from cold systems

c)

Sampling after an oil change

d)

Sampling after a major top-up volume of oil has been added

e)

All of the above

8.

Sampling a wet sump gearbox with a small oil circulation system should be done where?

a)

Downstream of the pump, upstream of the main pressure-line filter

b)

Downstream of the sump, upstream of the pump (before the pump)

c)

Downstream of the main pressure-line filter

d)

From the sump

e)

From the gearbox drain plug

9.

Sampling for wear metals in a large multi-component circulating system with a reservoir should be done where?

a)

Downstream of the pump, upstream of the main pressure-line filter

b)

Downstream of the reservoir, upstream of the pump (before the pump)

c)

Downstream of the main pressure-line filter

d)

From the return line, downstream of the working parts

e)

From the reservoir

10.

Oil samples from an off-line (kidney-loop) filtration circuit should be taken:

a)

Downstream of the pump, upstream of the filter

b)

Downstream of the reservoir, upstream of the pump (before the pump)

c)

Downstream of the filter

d)

From the sump

e)

From the drain plug

11.

Sampling crankcase oil from an engine should be done:

a)

Through the dipstick hole with a drop-tube

b)

From a valve mounted after the pump and after the filter with the engine running

c)

From a valve mounted after the pump, before the filter with the engine running

d)

From a valve mounted after the pump, before the filter with the engine shut off

e)

From the drain plug

12.

The concentration of wear debris:

a)

Always increases throughout the oil circulating system

b)

Varies throughout the oil circulating system

c)

Always decreases throughout the oil circulating system

d)

Is constant throughout the oil system

e)

Varies with the pressure in the oil system

13.

Live-zone sampling a circulating oil system means:

a)

Always use a live sample pump to take the sample

b)

Take a sample from a static (non-flowing) straight piece of pipe in laminar flow

c)

Take a representative sample from a flow line that contains flowing oil

d)

Take a sample hot

e)

Take a sample from a zone in the system that contains the most wear debris

14.

Which hardware is the best for sampling pressurized lines above 500 psi?

a)

A long dead-leg of piping with a plug at the end

b)

A pressure-regulating valve or a helical coil connected to a mini-mess valve

c)

A capped drain plug

d)

A mini-mess valve located on an elbow

e)

A mini-mess valve located on a straight length of pipe

15.

Vacuum samplers are needed:

a)

On low-pressure lines

b)

From unpressurized sumps

c)

From pressure lines

d)

Answers a and b

e)

All of the above

16.

Sampling non-circulating, splash/bath machine sumps is best done by:

a)

Drain Plug removal

b)

Using a flexible, drop-tube, vacuum sample

c)

Using a flexible, drop-tube, vacuum sample from the bottom of the sump

d)

Obtaining a mid oil level sample from a fixed rigid tube within the sump

e)

These systems should not be sampled

17.

Drop-tube vacuum sampling of reservoirs and tanks is best done:

a)

Off the bottom of the tank

b)

Where the oil return line dumps back into the tank

c)

Where the oil suction line pulls oil from the tank

d)

From the top layer of the oil in the tank where water and dirt have settled out

e)

From the middle of the tank

18.

For a typical hydraulic fluid, how full should a sample bottle be filled with hydraulic fluid?

a)

50%

b)

75%

c)

90%

d)

100%

e)

It doesn't matter

19.

Oil sampling frequencies may be affected by:

a)

Machinery age

b)

Machine criticality

c)

Fluid (oil) age

d)

Operating conditions

e)

All of the above

20.

A common sampling frequency for an industrial oil would be:

a)

Every two weeks

b)

Monthly (500 to 1,000 hours)

c)

Quarterly

d)

Six months

e)

Yearly

21.

After some possible initial change, as oil ages, the acid number generally:

a)

Trends down

b)

Trends up

c)

Stays very flat

d)

Oscillates both up and down

e)

None of the above

22.

After some possible initial change, as oil ages, the base number of an oil generally:

a)

Trends down

b)

Trends up

c)

Stays very flat

d)

Oscillates both up as the oil ages and down as makeup oil is added

e)

None of the above

23.

After some possible initial change, as oil ages, the viscosity of an aging oil generally:

a)

Trends down

b)

Trends up

c)

Stays very flat

d)

Oscillates both up and down

e)

None of the above

24.

Upper and lower alarm limits are generally needed on which oil analysis test results:

a)

Acid number

b)

Base number

c)

Viscosity

d)

Fire point

e)

RPVOT

25.

Acid number and base number determinations:

a)

Are reported in the same units, mg of KOH/gram of oil

b)

Are reported in pH units

c)

Are reported in ml of HCL per gram of oil

d)

Are reported in Abs/cm

e)

Are reported as the same number because they are both neutralization numbers

26.

A downward base number trend indicates:

a)

The type of base stock used in the finished oil

b)

The build-up of alkalinity in the used oil

c)

The neutralization of the acids in turbine oils

d)

The depletion of the alkaline detergent additive in engine oils

e)

The base oil density

27.

FTIR can provide reliable information on:

a)

Oxidation and soot

b)

Wear metals

c)

Viscosity and acid number

d)

Particle counts

e)

Oil density

28.

In typical use, atomic emission spectroscopy (AES) (or elemental analysis) has which significant limitation?

a)

It cannot detect the most important wear metals

b)

It can only detect wear debris particles less than approximately 5 microns in size

c)

It can only detect wear debris particles less than 12 microns in size

d)

It can only detect additive elements

e)

It can only detect large iron wear debris

29.

Which is not correct related to oxidation?

a)

Is the reaction of oxygen with water to form acids

b)

Creates acids and sludges

c)

Occurs at all oil temperatures bur becomes significant above 60 degrees C (150 degrees F)

d)

Is the reaction of oil hydrocarbons with oxygen

e)

Shortens oil life

30.

Oxidation stability is not detectable and not monitored with:

a)

Acid number

b)

Karl Fischer

c)

RPVOT

d)

Infra-Red (FTIR) spectroscopy

e)

Voltammetry

31.

Thermal breakdown of lubricants typically:

a)

Occurs at very high temperatures due to hear alone with an absence of oxygen

b)

Is monitored with acid number

c)

May result in thermal cracking of the base oil and a decrease in viscosity

d)

All of the above

e)

Answers a and c

32.

Additive depletion can occur by which of the following mechanisms

a)

Mass transfer and decomposition

b)

Mass transfer (separation)

c)

Hydrotrcating

d)

Hydrolysis and coalescence

e)

All of the above mechanisms

33.

Additive depletion can be monitored with:

a)

Acid number

b)

Atomic emission spectroscopy (AES)

c)

Voltammetry

d)

FTIR

e)

All of the above

34.

Which test is not practical to run on-site as an oil analysis field test?

a)

Viscosity

b)

Particle count

c)

Acid number

d)

Wear metals by atomic emission spectroscopy

e)

Glycol determination

35.

Human sensory (no instrumentation) inspection of machinery can indicate:

a)

Excessive water and foaming

b)

Excessive heat

c)

Highly oxidized, burnt oil

d)

Neither a, b or c

e)

Answers a, b and c

36.

Inspection of used filter elements:

a)

Is useless

b)

Should only be done by highly trained lab technicians

c)

Can provide useful information about wear debris

d)

Costs too much money

e)

Is difficult because it requires complex instruments

37.

Magnetic plug inspections:

a)

Crudely indicate presence of iron wear

b)

Indicate water contamination

c)

Indicate copper wear rates

d)

Indicate oil circulation rates

e)

Indicate corrosion is occurring

38.

Visually checking the color of a used oil sample can indicates

a)

Oxidation

b)

Soot

c)

Water contamination

d)

A change in base number

e)

Answers a, b and c

39.

The smell of a used oil sample can indicate:

a)

High-temperature thermal failure

b)

Water contamination

c)

High wear debris

d)

A recent oil top-up

e)

Air contamination

40.

Which statement is incorrect regarding filter patch tests for solid contaminants?

a)

Patch tests use very fine micron filters

b)

The patch test is a form of automatic particle counting

c)

Patch tests can be done in-house or in a lab

d)

Patch discoloration can estimate overall particle concentration

e)

The resulting patch can be viewed or weighed to assess the contaminant concentration

41.

A crackle test can only detect water above:

a)

The saturation point, which depends on oil type and temperature

b)

100 ppm

c)

1,000 ppm

d)

10,000 ppm

e)

1%

42.

Water separation from oil (demulsibility):

a)

Can be roughly determined with a kitchen blender

b)

Cannot be determined in the field

c)

Can be determined using a patch test

d)

Is not important enough to worry about with a field test

e)

Can be determined using a calcium hydride kit

43.

Glycol antifreeze field test kits:

a)

Determine glycol by density

b)

Determine glycol by a chemical color change

c)

Determine glycol by FTIR

d)

Determine glycol by viscosity

e)

Determine glycol by a change in smell

44.

The blotter spot test is primarily used to detect:

a)

Silicone sealant

b)

Viscosity increase

c)

Particles, soot and organic insoluble

d)

Air entrainment

e)

Spent additives

45.

Which governing body is responsible for the designation of food-grade lubricants?

a)

USDA

b)

ISO

c)

NSF

d)

NLGI

e)

ASTM

46.

When should the reservoir be cleaned/flushed?

a)

Every time the oil is changed

b)

When the plant is in a shutdown

c)

When the system fluid viscosity changes by 7% or more

d)

When sludge and deposits are detected at the oil drain

e)

When the breather is changed

47.

Which of the following describes microscopic water droplets dispersed in stable suspension in oil?

a)

Dissolved water

b)

Evaporative solution

c)

Emulsified water

d)

Free water

e)

None of the above

48.

Oil Analysis is a key component, along with Ultrasonics, Vibration, and Thermography for which broader maintenance approach?

a)

Reactive Maintenance

b)

Condition-based Maintenance

c)

Interval Based Maintenance

d)

Just-in-time Just-In-Case

49.

Which is typically the cleanest?

a)

New oil from the drum

b)

Oil filtered using 25-micron filters

c)

Waste oil

d)

Oil that just barely meets established cleanliness targets

50.

Not typically considered a contaminant, but the presence of air in its various forms may have an impact on the ability of the lubricant to perform its desired function.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Reducing lubricant usage typically:

a)

Reduces total lubricant costs, reduces labor for housekeeping, and reduces or eliminates some safety issues.

b)

Reduces storage and handling costs, reduces waste oil generation and disposal costs

c)

Reduces labor for housekeeping and minimizes some safety concerns

d)

Both B&C

e)

All of the above

52.

Lube suppliers should supply you with a ________________ to that confirms the quality of the lubricant.

a)

MSDS Sheet

b)

Haz/Mat Code

c)

Certificate of Analysis

d)

Instructions

53.

In the inspection of lubricant storage containers, a leak is found in a drum. What should be done with the drum and why?

a)

Return to supplier - leaking containers are subject to contamination ingression

b)

Fix the leak - put back in storage

c)

Ignore it- someone else will get to it

d)

Put into service immediately

54.

What is the best test for water determination?

a)

Flash point

b)

Acid number

c)

Crackle

d)

Karl Fisher

55.

What information should be placed on all lubricant containers received in the plant?

4 lines
56.

Which of the following would NOT be a procedure when receiving new oil?

a)

Place new drums to the front so they may be used first.

b)

Create a checklist to guard against contamination.

c)

Sample and test all bulk deliveries.

d)

Establish reasonable limits for new oil quality.

57.

What happens to the viscosity of an oil as the oil oxidizes?

4 lines
58.

Which list below most closely represents Best Practices in a Lubrication Program?

a)

Ensure all equipment complies with ISO 14-12 standards, continually adjust goals and targets based on results,

b)

Consolidate lubricants without compromising performance, train all plant personnel as lube techs, and set a goal to increase reactive maintenance.

c)

Consolidate lubricants without compromising performance, Set equipment cleanliness as goal to proactive maintenance, Establish an effective oil analysis program for proactive and predictive maintenance, Practice continuous improvement with lubrication program

d)

Consolidate lubricants to match storage room capabilities, Utilize competent personnel for lubrication and provide adequate training, Establish replacement intervals according to outage, Establish procedures that will never have to be changed

59.

Which of the following is not an advantage of manual lubrication?

a)

Easy to apply

b)

Inspection of equipment can be performed

c)

Safety

d)

Low upfront cost

60.

What is trended with the use of a RULER system?

a)

Change in viscosity

b)

Rust & Oxidation additives

c)

Flash point

d)

Changes in anti-oxidant content

61.

The purpose of oil analysis is to monitor?

a)

Fluid properties

b)

Machine condition

c)

Both A&B

d)

None of the above

62.

What is the most difficult form of water to remove?

a)

Emulsified

b)

Free

c)

Hot

d)

Dissolved

63.

What is the most common filter in a hydraulic system?

4 lines
64.

What is the most difficult form of water to remove?

a)

Emulsified

b)

Free

c)

Hot

d)

Dissolved

65.

What is the most common filter in a hydraulic system?

a)

Pressure line

b)

Return line

c)

Offline

d)

Before pump

66.

Which of the following fluids is the cleanest?

a)

16/13/11

b)

17/14/11

c)

20/18/16

d)

23/19/17

67.

An unopened sealed lubricant drum stored outside will not contain any water?

a)

True

b)

False

68.

In reservoir sampling, where should the sample be drawn?

a)

Drain plug

b)

Midpoint of reservoir, near return line

c)

Side

d)

Top

69.

The dynamic clearance of rolling element bearings is higher than the dynamic clearance of journal bearings?

a)

True

b)

False

70.

In regards to oil analysis, which answer is MOST TRUE of TAN?

a)

Total Acid Number and is typically run on engine oils

b)

Total Acid and Nitration and a higher number means the oil is oxidizing

c)

Total Acid Number and decreasing TAN indicates oxidation

d)

Total Acid Number and increasing TAN indicates oxidation

71.

Manual lubrication will always guarantee the proper amount of lubrication is applied when needed?

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Single point grease lubricators are a good alternative to manual lubrication when location of grease fitting is remote and safety is a concern?

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Key objectives in an oil analysis program include all below answers except which one?

a)

Improving asset reliability

b)

Reducing unscheduled downtime

c)

Obtaining maximum and most precise use of lubricants

d)

Verifying the correct lubricant volume

74.

For the ISO 4406-99 Solid contamination code a range number of 16 means there are between 320-640 particles per ml, how many particles per ml would there be for an ISO code of 18?

a)

1300-2500

b)

640-1300

c)

160-320

d)

80-160

75.

The use of transfer containers that are open to the air are considered best practice?

a)

True

b)

False

76.

The cost of excluding particle contamination is than the cost of removing it from the oil once it gets in?

a)

Higher

b)

Lower

77.

Silt-size particles (5 microns and smaller) influence reliability by:

a)

Causing erosion, valve sticking and abrasion

b)

Causing surface softening

c)

Silt is too small and does not affect machine reliability

d)

Doesn't affect reliability because silt will always be removed by the filter system

e)

Doesn't affect reliability because silt particles will settle out in the reservoir

78.

The ISO solid contaminant code:

a)

Is a means to characterize the chemical composition of debris found in the lubricant

b)

is useful as a means to accurately state the concentration of dirt in a lubricant

c)

Is useful as a means to characterize the concentration of solid particles in a lubricant

d)

is the most useful condition-based measure to gauge oil life

e)

Is a means of characterizing the type of solid contaminant

79.

A typical ISO cleanliness code for new oil would be:

a)

9/7/5

b)

14/12/10

c)

21/19/16

d)

27/25/21

e)

32/30/27

80.

With regard to the ISO cleanliness code system:

a)

The higher the value, the dirtier the oil

b)

The higher the value, the cleaner the oil

c)

The target value should be 200 - 400 ppm

d)

The target value should be as high as possible

e)

This is only useful to monitor new oil purchases

81.

Which component generally requires the cleanest oil?

a)

High-pressure hydraulics

b)

Gears

c)

Engines

d)

Turbines

e)

Journal bearings

82.

The best location for a filter to achieve low-cost dirt removal is:

a)

At the suction side of the pump

b)

After the pump in the pressure line

c)

In the return line

d)

In an off-line (kidney-loop) system

e)

No specific location has any advantage

83.

The Beta ratio of a filter:

a)

Is a measure of its dirt-holding capacity

b)

Is a measure of its burst strength

c)

Is a measure of its particle-removal efficiency

d)

Relates only to the price of the filter

e)

Is independent of the particle size

84.

A Beta(3) = 200 filter:

a)

Only removes 3-micron particles

b)

Only removes particles less than 3 microns

c)

Only removes particles greater than 3 microns

d)

Removes some particles less than 3 microns

e)

Removes particles between 3 and 200 microns

85.

A Beta ratio of 200 means that the filter is how efficient?

a)

200%

b)

99.5%

c)

98.7%

d)

90%

e)

50%

86.

Of the following five filters, which is best at removing fine particles?

a)

B(10) = 100

b)

B(10) = 200

c)

B(3) = 200

d)

B(3) = 1,000

e)

B(1000) = 3

87.

It is a good idea to filter new oil before putting it into service when:

a)

The container has been opened without protection by caps and breathers

b)

A high degree of oil cleanliness is required for the machine

c)

Product has been stored for a long time

d)

All of the above

e)

Answers a and b

88.

Depth filters:

a)

Involve a torturous path between fibers with high dir-holding capacity

b)

Are made using square-weave wire cloth

c)

Have pores of inconsistent sizes

d)

Answers a and c

e)

All of the above

89.

Moisture exists in which of the following forms (related to oils):

a)

Free, dissolved, detrained

b)

Dissolved and micro-entrained

c)

Demulsified

d)

Entrained and floating

e)

Dissolved, emulsified and free

90.

What percentage of rolling bearing life can be lost before the oil develops a cloudy appearance due to water?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

90%

e)

Cannot be determined without more information such as the lubricant type

91.

Methods of removing water (moisture) from oil include:

a)

Centrifuge, vacuum dehydration and gravity settling

b)

Passing the oil through a screen

c)

Electrostatic filtration

d)

Using a 3-micron absolute micro-glass filter

e)

Hydrolytic separation

92.

Vacuum dehydration is a good option for drying oil because:

a)

The method also vacuums up small particles

b)

The method maintains a vacuum that prevents buildup of moisture in the future

c)

The method boils the water off at high temperatures

d)

The method removes all three forms of water

e)

All of the above

93.

The most damaging form of water is:

a)

Dissolved

b)

Emulsified

c)

Demulsified

d)

Free

e)

Entrained

94.

Foam and air entrainment:

a)

Are generally not a lubrication problem

b)

Can result in oil starvation and/or impair film strength

c)

Can result in a change in air pressure in the reservoir

d)

Can usually be eliminated by adding more antifoam additive

e)

Are the same thing

95.

When storing lubricant drums outside, it is best to:

a)

Store vertically (with the top surface flat) in the open sunlight

b)

Store at an angle with the openings at the high and low positions

c)

Store horizontally and covered

d)

Cover them with a sheet of plywood

e)

Store them upside down directly on the ground

96.

Lubricant shelf life limits:

a)

Are rigorously controlled by the manufacturer

b)

Get longer over time

c)

Are about 10 years

d)

Vary according to the type of lube and type of storage condition

e)

Can be stored indefinitely

97.

Best practices for top-up oil containers could include:

a)

Closeable galvanized containers

b)

Dedicated and scalable containers, by oil type

c)

Any available container will be satisfactory

d)

Lubricants should be stored at the machinery location, regardless of the cleanliness

e)

Use a funnel which contains a screen in the bottom to catch contaminants

98.

Lubricant refilling best practices should include which of the following:

a)

Use a filter cart to charge (fill) the system with oil, if possible

b)

Refill the equipment while it is operating and hot

c)

A funnel

d)

A funnel if it has been capped (or scaled)

e)

A sealed container with a tube for siphoning

99.

An oil sample shows high silicon and aluminum, with increasing ferrous wear metals. Likely root cause?

a)

Oil oxidation

b)

Abrasive dust ingestion

c)

Internal corrosion

d)

Additive dropout