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Worksheets

Airplane Systems

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is absolute altitude?

a)

The altitude read directly from the altimeter

b)

The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface

c)

The height above the standard datum plane

2.

What is true altitude?

a)

The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level

b)

The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface

c)

The height above the standard datum plane

3.

What is density altitude?

a)

The height above the standard datum plane

b)

The pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature

c)

The altitude read directly from the altimeter

4.

What is pressure altitude?

a)

The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error

b)

The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92

c)

The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure

5.

Altimeter setting is value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

a)

Calibrated altitude at field elevation

b)

Absolute altitude at field elevation

c)

True altitude at field elevation

6.

Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?

a)

If the altimeter has no mechanical error

b)

When at sea level under standard conditions

c)

When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92

7.

Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?

a)

At sea level, when the temperature is 0* F

b)

Whe the altimeter has no installation error

c)

At standard temperature

8.

Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?

a)

When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92" Hg

b)

When standard atmospheric conditions exist

c)

When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude

9.

If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate

a)

The actual altitude above sea level

b)

Higher than the actual altitude above sea level

c)

Lower than the actual altitude above sea level

10.

If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate

a)

Lower than the actual altitude above sea level

b)

Higher than the actual altitude above seal level

c)

The actual altitude above sea level

11.

Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?

a)

Air temperature lower than standard

b)

Atmospheric pressure lower than standard

c)

Air temperature warmer than standard

12.

Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?

a)

In colder than standard air temperature

b)

In warmer than standard air temperature

c)

When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude

13.

How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?

a)

Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude

b)

Hhighertemperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is higher than true altitude

c)

Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude

14.

What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?

a)

Maneuvering speed

b)

turbulent or rough-air speed

c)

Never-exceed speed

15.

What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?

a)

55 to 100 kts

b)

55 to 208 kts

c)

55 to 165 kts

16.

What is maximum flaps-extended speed?

a)

65 kts

b)

100 kts

c)

165 kts

17.

Excessively high engine temperatures will

a)

Cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins

b)

Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage

c)

Not appreciably affect an aircraft engine

18.

Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground,will

a)

Increase fuel consumption and may increase power due to the increased heat

b)

Result in damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of cylinder cooling fans

c)

Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage

19.

For internal cooling, air cooled engines are especially dependent on

a)

A properly functioning thermosat

b)

Air flowing over the exhaust manifold

c)

The circulation of lubricating oil

20.

What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?

a)

Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed

b)

Reduce climb speed and increase RPM

c)

Increase climb speed and increase RPM

21.

What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?

a)

Enrich the fuel mixture

b)

increase the RPM

c)

Reduce the airspeed

22.

How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?

a)

The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gage and the propeller control regulates engine RPM

b)

The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gage and the propeller control regulates a constant blade angle

c)

The throttle controls engine RPM as registered on the tachometer and the mixture control regulates the power output

23.

A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to

a)

Avoid high RPM settings with high manifold pressure

b)

Avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM

c)

Always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings

24.

What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?

a)

Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed

b)

permits the pilot to select the blade angle for he most efficient performance

c)

Provides a smoother operation with stable rpm and climates vibrations

25.

One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for

a)

Improved engine performance

b)

Uuniform heat distribution

c)

Balanced cylinder head pressure

26.

If the ignition switch ground wire becomes disconnected, the magneto

a)

Will not operate because the battery is disconnected from the circuit

b)

May continue to fire

c)

Will not operate

27.

The reason a 4-cylinder reciprocating engine continues to run after the ignition switch is positioned to OFF may be a

a)

Fouled spark plug

b)

Wire between the magneto and spark plug in contact with the engine casing

c)

broken magneto ground wire

28.

An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by

a)

The oil level being too low

b)

Operating with a too viscosity oil

c)

Operating with a excessively rich mixture

29.

If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with

a)

The mixture set too rich

b)

Higher-than-normal oil pressure

c)

Too much power and with the mixture set too lean

30.

The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to

a)

Decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density

b)

Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density

c)

increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate gor the decrease in pressure and density of the air

31.

While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?

a)

The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean

b)

There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion

c)

he excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause detonation

32.

Fuel/air is the ratio between the

a)

Volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder

b)

Weight of fuel and weight of air entering the cylinder

c)

Weight of fuel and weight of air entering the carburetor

33.

What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?

a)

The next higher octane aviation gas

b)

The next lower octane aviation gas

c)

Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating

34.

Filling the fuel tanks after the ladt flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will

a)

Force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine

b)

Prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks

c)

Prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks

35.

To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank pumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the

a)

Fuel strainer drain

b)

Lowest point in the fuel system

c)

Fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps

36.

On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the Auxiliary electric driven pump used?

a)

All the time to aid the engine driven fuel pump

b)

In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails

c)

Constantly except in starting the engine

37.

An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would

a)

experience avionics equipment failure

b)

Probably experience failure of the engine ignition system, fuel gauges, aircraft lighting system, and avionics equipment

c)

Probably experience engine failure due to the loss of the engine-driven fuel pump and also experience failure of the ratio equipment, lights, and all instruments that require alternating current

38.

A positive indication on an ammeter

a)

Indicates the aircraft's battery will soon lose its charge

b)

Shows the rate of charge on the battery

c)

Means more current is being drawn from the battery than is being replaced

39.

To keep a battery charged, the alternator voltage output should be

a)

Less than the battery voltage

b)

Equal to the battery voltage

c)

higher than the battery voltage

40.

Which of the following is a true statement concerning electrical systems?

a)

The master switch creates current that is supplied to the electrical system

b)

The airspeed indicator is driven by the electrical system

c)

lights and radios use the electrical system for power

41.

What is a benefit of flying with a glass flight deck?

a)

There is no longer a need to carry paper charts in flight

b)

Situational awareness is increased

c)

Terrain avoidance is guaranteed

42.

What steps must be taken when flying in glass flight decks to ensure safe flight?

a)

Use the moving map for primary means of navigation, use the MFD to check engine systems and weather, back up with supplementary forms of information

b)

Regulary scan each item on the PFD, confirm on the MFD

c)

Regularly scan both inside and outside, use all appropriate checklists, and cross-check with other forms of information

43.

An aircraft which is equipped with an Electronic Flight Display(EFD) can

a)

Compensate for an airman's lack of skill or knowledge

b)

Ooffer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task

c)

improve flight awareness by allowing the pilot to simply watch for alerts

44.

You are flying an aircraft equipped with an electronic flight display and the air data computer fails. What instrument is affected?

a)

ADS-B in capability

b)

Airspeed indicator

c)

Attitude indicator

45.

The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?

a)

Altimeter

b)

Vertical-speed indicator

c)

Airspeed indicator

46.

The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?

a)

Altimeter

b)

Vertical-speed indicator

c)

Airspeed indicator

47.

Altimeter 1 indicates

a)

500 feet

b)

1,500 feet

c)

10,500 feet

48.

Altimeter 3 indicates

a)

9,500 feet

b)

10,950 feet

c)

15,940 feet

49.

Which altimeter(s) indicate(s) more than 10,000 feet?

a)

1,2, and 3

b)

1 and 2 only

c)

1 only

50.

Altimeter 2 indicates

a)

1,500 feet

b)

4,500 feet

c)

14,500 feet

51.

Altimeter 3 indicates

a)

9,500 feet

b)

10,500 feet

c)

4,500 feet

52.

Altimeter 1 indicates

a)

4,500 feet

b)

1,500 feet

c)

500 feet

53.

Which altimeter(s) indicate(s) more than 9,000 feet?

a)

1, 2, and 3

b)

1 and 2 only

c)

3 only

54.

Altimeter 2 indicates

a)

500 feet

b)

1,500 feet

c)

4,500 feet

55.

If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?

a)

70-foot increase indicated altitude

b)

70-foot increase in density altitude

c)

700-foot increase in indicated altitude

56.

If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication

a)

altimeter will indicate. 15" Hg higher

b)

Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher

c)

Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower

57.

A turn coordinator provides an indication of the

a)

movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axes

b)

angle of bank up to but not exceeding 30*

c)

attitude of the aircraft with reference to the longitudinal axis

58.

To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be

a)

set prior to flight on a known heading

b)

calibrated on a compass rose at regular intervals

c)

periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses

59.

The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the

a)

horizon bar to the level-flight indication

b)

horizon bar to the miniature airplane

c)

miniature airplane to the horizon bar

60.

How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator such as the one illustrated

a)

By the direction of deflection of the banking scale (A)

b)

By the direction of deflection of the horizon bar (B)

c)

By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar (B)

61.

Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?

a)

Altimeter

b)

Vertical speed indicator

c)

Airspeed indicator

62.

If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?

a)

The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator

b)

The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator

c)

The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator

63.

Which instruments(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?

a)

Airspeed indicator only

b)

Altimeter only

c)

Airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator

64.

What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?

a)

Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges

b)

Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding

c)

Test each brake and the parking brake

65.

What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?

a)

Never-exceed speed

b)

Maximum structural cruising speed

c)

Maneuvering speed

66.

In the Northern Hemisphere, magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if

a)

an aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading

b)

a left turn is entered from a west heading

c)

an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading

67.

Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the

a)

presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass

b)

difference in the location between true north and magnetic north

c)

magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force

68.

During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?

a)

Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight

b)

As long as the airspeed is constant

c)

during turns if the bank does not exceed 18*

69.

Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by

a)

a northerly turning error

b)

certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft

c)

the difference in location of true north and magnetic north

70.

In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate

a)

a turn momentarily

b)

correctly when on a north or south heading

c)

a turn toward the south

71.

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if

a)

a left turn is entered from a north heading

b)

a right turn is entered from a north heading

c)

an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading

72.

In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when

a)

a left turn is entered from an east heading

b)

a right turn is entered from a west heading

c)

the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading

73.

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left

b)

The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring

c)

The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the airplane

74.

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if

a)

an aircraft is decelerated while on a south heading

b)

an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading

c)

a left turn is entered from a north heading

75.

What is the caution range of the airplane?

a)

0 to 60 kts

b)

100 to 165 kts

c)

165 to 208 kts

76.

The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is

a)

100 kts

b)

165 kts

c)

208 kts

77.

Which marking identifies the never-exceed speed?

a)

Upper limit of the green arc

b)

Upper limit of the white arc

c)

The red radial line