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Information Assurance and Security

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 3hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does network security primarily focus on?

a)

Protecting data at rest

b)

Enhancing software performance

c)

Protecting the CIA of data in motion

d)

Data storage management

2.

Which aspect of information security does network security protect?

a)

User interfaces

b)

Data in storage

c)

Data in motion

d)

Software patches

3.

In which transmission mode is data sent in one direction only?

a)

Half duplex

b)

Full duplex

c)

Simplex

d)

Serial

4.

Which transmission mode allows data to be sent and received, but not simultaneously?

a)

Simplex

b)

Half duplex

c)

Full duplex

d)

Parallel

5.

Which mode allows simultaneous two-way communication?

a)

Simplex

b)

Half duplex

c)

Full duplex

d)

Serial

6.

Which of the following describes a GAN?

a)

Local Area Network

b)

A global collection of WANs

c)

Private company intranet

d)

Small office/home office network

7.

What is the best description of an intranet?

a)

Public access network

b)

Private internal network for authorized users

c)

Inter-company shared data system

d)

E-commerce website

8.

What is the key function of an extranet?

a)

Used for remote gaming

b)

Provides public Wi-Fi access

c)

Allows collaboration between external parties and internal staff

d)

Encrypts internal traffic

9.

Which method uses a dedicated communication path?

a)

Packet switched

b)

Circuit switched

c)

Bus topology

d)

Token ring

10.

Which switching method breaks data into packets sent independently?

a)

Circuit switched

b)

Star switched

c)

Packet switched

d)

Direct connection

11.

What does QoS ensure in network communication?

a)

File compression

b)

Random data transmission

c)

Guaranteed delivery for prioritized applications

d)

Hardware optimization

12.

Which of the following is not a focus of QoS?

a)

Bandwidth control

b)

Preventing jitter

c)

Increasing screen resolution

d)

Managing latency

13.

Which protocol is commonly used for secure data transmission over the internet?

a)

IPSec

b)

SSL

c)

HTTPS

d)

TLS

14.

What layer of the OSI model deals with file encryption and compression?

a)

Application

b)

Presentation

c)

Session

d)

Transport

15.

Which OSI layer assigns session IDs?

a)

Application

b)

Presentation

c)

Session

d)

Transport

16.

Which protocol is used at the transport layer of OSI for connection-oriented communication?

a)

UDP

b)

TCP

c)

IP

d)

HTTP

17.

At which OSI layer are IP addresses used?

a)

Data Link

b)

Network

c)

Transport

d)

Session

18.

The term 'frames' is associated with which OSI layer?

a)

Physical

b)

Transport

c)

Data Link

d)

Network

19.

What is the main function of the Physical Layer in the OSI model?

a)

Data encryption

b)

Data segmentation

c)

Converting data to electrical signals

d)

Assigning IP addresses

20.

Which OSI layer is responsible for user interaction?

a)

Session

b)

Application

c)

Network

d)

Data Link

21.

What does TCP/IP stand for?

a)

Trusted Control Protocol/Internet Program

b)

Transport Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

c)

Total Communication Protocol/Internal Protocol

d)

Time-Control Protocol/Input Protocol

22.

TCP/IP is primarily used in what type of networks?

a)

Private LAN only

b)

Public television networks

c)

Internet and private networks

d)

Cellular networks only

23.

Which layer of the TCP/IP model corresponds to the OSI transport layer?

a)

Network Access

b)

Internet

c)

Host-to-Host

d)

Application

24.

What is a MAC address?

a)

Logical network address

b)

Application identifier

c)

Unique identifier for a NIC

d)

Web address

25.

Which address is used for communication within the same network segment?

a)

IP Address

b)

MAC Address

c)

Subnet Mask

d)

Gateway

26.

What type of address is used to identify devices over a network globally?

a)

MAC Address

b)

Port Address

c)

IP Address

d)

Hostname

27.

Which protocol ensures reliable data transmission?

a)

UDP

b)

TCP

c)

FTP

d)

SMTP

28.

Which protocol is considered connectionless?

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

c)

HTTP

d)

DNS

29.

Which is faster but less reliable: TCP or UDP?

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

c)

Both are equally fast

d)

Depends on the OS

30.

Which protocol is most appropriate for real-time video streaming?

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

c)

FTP

d)

IMAP

31.

Which protocol allows command-line-based remote login and control of remote devices across a network?

a)

FTP

b)

SSH

c)

Telnet

d)

HTTP

32.

What is the primary weakness of Telnet in modern secure environments?

a)

It lacks GUI

b)

It uses too much bandwidth

c)

It transmits data unencrypted

d)

It only runs on Linux

33.

Which protocol retrieves email but removes it from the mail server by default?

a)

SMTP

b)

IMAP

c)

FTP

d)

POP

34.

What distinguishes IMAP from POP in terms of email handling?

a)

IMAP deletes messages upon retrieval

b)

IMAP stores emails only on one device

c)

IMAP allows multi-device synchronization

d)

IMAP is used only for outgoing mail

35.

Which of the following protocols is responsible for sending email?

a)

SMTP

b)

POP

c)

IMAP

d)

SNMP

36.

Which of the following is not an application-layer protocol?

a)

FTP

b)

HTTP

c)

UDP

d)

Telnet

37.

What makes HTTPS secure compared to HTTP?

a)

Use of cookies

b)

Encrypted transport via TLS

c)

Token-based authentication

d)

Statelessness

38.

Which of the following is true about HTTP?

a)

It encrypts all traffic

b)

It requires TLS

c)

It is a connectionless, stateless protocol

d)

It only works with HTTPS

39.

Which TLS predecessor was deprecated due to known vulnerabilities?

a)

SFTP

b)

FTP

c)

SSL

d)

SCP

40.

In a secure HTTPS session, which is not guaranteed by TLS?

a)

Server authentication

b)

End-to-end encryption

c)

Packet switching

d)

Data integrity

41.

Which LAN technology uses a token-passing mechanism to control access?

a)

Ethernet

b)

Token Ring

c)

ARCNET

d)

FDDI

42.

What physical medium offers the highest resistance to electromagnetic interference?

a)

Twisted Pair

b)

Coaxial

c)

Fiber Optic

d)

HDMI

43.

What does IEEE 802.3 define?

a)

Token Ring

b)

Wi-Fi

c)

Ethernet

d)

Bluetooth

44.

Which of the following is a token-bus LAN technology?

a)

ARCNET

b)

Ethernet

c)

Wi-Fi

d)

DSL

45.

FDDI differs from Token Ring mainly in its:

a)

Use of coaxial cables

b)

Use of IP addresses

c)

Use of fiber optics and longer range

d)

Topology

46.

Which WAN technology offers a dedicated and non-shared bandwidth between two sites?

a)

Frame Relay

b)

MPLS

c)

Leased Line

d)

Broadband

47.

A T1 line consists of how many DS0 channels?

a)

12

b)

24

c)

30

d)

32

48.

What is the bandwidth of a T3 line?

a)

2.048 Mbps

b)

34.4 Mbps

c)

44.7 Mbps

d)

1.544 Mbps

49.

Which of the following WAN technologies uses label-switching rather than IP-based routing?

a)

PPP

b)

MPLS

c)

DSL

d)

ISDN

50.

Which cable connection is most commonly used with CSU/DSU for leased line WAN connections?

a)

RJ-11

b)

RJ-45

c)

RJ-48C

d)

DB-9

51.

Which WAN circuit groups frames into a 16-frame multiframe structure instead of using SF or ESF?

a)

T1

b)

T3

c)

E1

d)

E3

52.

What is the correct match between circuit and bandwidth?

a)

E3 – 44.7 Mbps

b)

T3 – 34.4 Mbps

c)

T1 – 2.048 Mbps

d)

E3 – 34.4 Mbps

53.

Frame Relay is designed for:

a)

High-bandwidth video conferencing

b)

Packet-switched cost-effective data transmission

c)

Real-time VoIP only

d)

Dedicated leased line replacement

54.

Which switching method uses dynamic path selection for each packet?

a)

Circuit switching

b)

Packet switching

c)

Token passing

d)

Static routing

55.

Which converged protocol is widely used in process automation systems?

a)

iSCSI

b)

DNP3

c)

SMB

d)

NFS

56.

Which storage protocol uses the TCP/IP stack for transport over IP networks?

a)

Fibre Channel

b)

iSCSI

c)

SMB

d)

FCoE

57.

Which protocol virtualizes and directs traffic through software-defined controllers instead of hardware routing?

a)

MPLS

b)

SDN

c)

TCP/IP

d)

VoIP

58.

Which protocol allows voice calls over internet connections using multimedia content?

a)

HTTP

b)

FTP

c)

VoIP

d)

Telnet

59.

Which wireless technique rapidly changes frequencies based on a code known to sender and receiver?

a)

DSSS

b)

OFDM

c)

FHSS

d)

CSMA

60.

In DSSS, user data is combined with:

a)

WEP keys

b)

A spreading code

c)

IP headers

d)

Network tokens

61.

What is the main benefit of OFDM in modern wireless communication?

a)

Encryption

b)

Fast frequency hopping

c)

Efficient use of multiple narrowband subchannels

d)

Token control

62.

Which 802.11 standard introduced dual-band support and MIMO for higher data rates?

a)

802.11a

b)

802.11g

c)

802.11n

d)

802.11b

63.

Which of the following security protocols is considered obsolete and insecure?

a)

WPA3

b)

WPA2

c)

WEP

d)

TLS

64.

Which Wi-Fi security protocol introduced protection against brute-force dictionary attacks and forward secrecy?

a)

WEP

b)

WPA

c)

WPA2

d)

WPA3

65.

Which wireless tech uses short-range UHF radio waves to transmit data in real time?

a)

Bluetooth

b)

NFC

c)

DSL

d)

Wi-Fi

66.

Bluetooth typically uses which kind of modulation and operates over:

a)

Spread spectrum, long distances

b)

Narrowband, 5GHz

c)

UHF, short-range communication

d)

Infrared, optical line-of-sight

67.

What is a key difference between RFID and traditional barcodes?

a)

RFID is cheaper

b)

RFID requires line-of-sight

c)

RFID works without line-of-sight

d)

Barcodes use encryption

68.

What kind of reader is required for RFID systems?

a)

Barcode scanner

b)

NFC phone

c)

Optical reader

d)

Radio-frequency reader

69.

Which type of RFID system allows data to be updated or rewritten?

a)

Read-only

b)

Passive RFID

c)

Active RFID

d)

Read-write RFID

70.

Which of the following is true about RFID tags?

a)

They require batteries in all types

b)

They can only store fixed codes

c)

Passive RFID tags are powered by the reader's signal

d)

RFID cannot be encrypted

71.

Which OSI layer do repeaters operate in?

a)

Data Link

b)

Physical

c)

Network

d)

Transport

72.

What is the primary function of a hub?

a)

Filters traffic based on MAC

b)

Routes packets based on IP

c)

Broadcasts traffic to all ports

d)

Encrypts communication

73.

Which device connects different network segments and filters traffic based on MAC addresses?

a)

Router

b)

Bridge

c)

Repeater

d)

Hub

74.

Switches operate at which OSI layer?

a)

Network

b)

Data Link

c)

Physical

d)

Application

75.

Which device is a multiport version of a bridge and uses MAC addresses to forward data?

a)

Hub

b)

Repeater

c)

Switch

d)

Firewall

76.

What is the main function of a VLAN?

a)

Extend internet access

b)

Encrypt traffic between hosts

c)

Logically isolate devices within the same LAN

d)

Provide VPN tunnels

77.

Which device forwards data between networks based on IP addresses?

a)

Switch

b)

Repeater

c)

Router

d)

Bridge

78.

Which device enforces security rules by allowing or blocking traffic?

a)

Router

b)

Firewall

c)

Switch

d)

Hub

79.

What is the main function of EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)?

a)

Encrypt web traffic

b)

Provide a framework for authentication

c)

Tunnel remote connections

d)

Assign MAC addresses

80.

802.1X is used primarily for:

a)

Wireless mesh routing

b)

Encrypting email

c)

Authenticating users on a network

d)

Establishing VLANs

81.

Which server is commonly involved in 802.1X authentication?

a)

FTP

b)

HTTP

c)

RADIUS

d)

DHCP

82.

Which technology encrypts internet communication to allow secure remote access?

a)

VLAN

b)

VPN

c)

DHCP

d)

NAT

83.

PPP is most commonly used to:

a)

Assign MAC addresses

b)

Secure email

c)

Connect devices over dial-up or telephone networks

d)

Configure firewalls

84.

What does IPSec stand for?

a)

Internet Packet Security

b)

Internet Protocol Security

c)

Internal Protocol Security

d)

Inter-Packet Secure Channel

85.

Which protocol is the successor to SSL and provides secure encrypted connections?

a)

IPsec

b)

HTTPS

c)

TLS

d)

VPN

86.

What is the key difference between SSL and HTTPS?

a)

HTTPS is an application-layer implementation of it

b)

HTTPS replaces SSL

c)

SSL is faster than HTTPS

d)

HTTPS does not use SSL

87.

Which security protocol encrypts HTTP traffic?

a)

FTP

b)

VPN

c)

IPSec

d)

HTTPS

88.

What is the role of xDSL technologies?

a)

Connect firewalls

b)

Provide secure email services

c)

Deliver high-speed internet over telephone lines

d)

Create VLANs

89.

Which DSL variant offers equal upstream and downstream speeds for business use?

a)

ADSL

b)

SDSL

c)

VDSL

d)

xDSL

90.

Which type of DSL is best suited for high-speed downstream and is typically used in homes?

a)

SHDSL

b)

ADSL

c)

SDSL

d)

VDSL2

91.

What does VDSL2 offer over standard VDSL?

a)

Lower latency

b)

Symmetric low-speed data

c)

Longer distances and higher speeds

d)

No support for voice

92.

Which device converts ISP signals for use with routers and internal networks?

a)

Switch

b)

Hub

c)

Modem

d)

Firewall

93.

Remote desktop allows a user to:

a)

Encrypt mobile traffic

b)

View and interact with a remote machine

c)

Run VLANs

d)

Configure switches remotely

94.

What is desktop virtualization?

a)

Encrypts data on a laptop

b)

Emulates an entire desktop environment remotely

c)

Creates multiple VPN tunnels

d)

Screens remote traffic

95.

Application virtualization allows an app to:

a)

Bypass firewalls

b)

Encrypt its data

c)

Run as if it were on the OS, without being installed natively

d)

Use remote IPs

96.

Screen scraping is the process of:

a)

Blocking web traffic

b)

Stealing screen passwords

c)

Extracting visible data from a display

d)

Encrypting screen pixels

97.

Which tool provides real-time messaging between users?

a)

VPN

b)

IM

c)

SSH

d)

DHCP

98.

Remote conferencing involves:

a)

Sending encrypted logs

b)

Connecting VLANs

c)

Audio-video interaction among geographically dispersed users

d)

Network patching

99.

A PDA is best described as:

a)

A network device

b)

A physical desktop machine

c)

A handheld digital organizer

d)

A VPN tunnel

100.

What is a CDN?

a)

Centralized DNS

b)

Content Distribution Network

c)

Certified Data Network

d)

Core DSL Network

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