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Worksheets

ATA 32 – LANDING GEAR

Total questions: 57

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Spongy brakes are usually a result of.

a)

Internal leakage.

b)

Air in the system.

c)

External leakage.

2.

Tubeless tyres are stored.

a)

At 15 to 20 P.S.I.

b)

Vertically.

c)

Horizontally maximum of four high with smallest diameter tyre on top.

3.

A restrictor valve.

a)

May be used to slow down undercarriage extension.

b)

Restrict the extent of travel of the undercarriage.

c)

Speed up the flow in one direction.

4.

The function of the oil in a shock absorber is to.

a)

Ensure the separator does not bottom.

b)

Absorb the landing shock.

c)

Damp the rebound.

5.

Fuse plugs in aircraft tyres are.

a)

For overpressure protection.

b)

For over temperature protection

c)

To deflate the tyre before removal.

6.

A red dot / triangle mark on aircraft tyres means.

a)

Military reference.

b)

Breather points.

c)

The light part of the tyre.

7.

On selection of MLG down, the gear extends then begins to retract again. The cause is

a)

A faulty selector valve.

b)

Gear lowered at too high an airspeed.

c)

A faulty actuator.

8.

When fitting a tyre, the red dot should be positioned.

a)

On the other side of the wheel opposite to the charging valve.

b)

Opposite the charging valve.

c)

Adjacent to the charging valve.

9.

A restrictor valve can be used.

a)

To increase the speed of undercarriage retraction.

b)

To increase the speed of the undercarriage extension.

c)

To reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension.

10.

The cam plate in a nose undercarriage is.

a)

To align for nose wheel on nose undercarriage retraction.

b)

For alignment of the nose wheel steering on nose undercarriage

c)

Part of the shimmy damper.

11.

What is tyre creep related to?

a)

Tyre moving around the wheel.

b)

Vertical movement of the tyre.

c)

Horizontal movement of the tyre.

12.

Why is a hydraulic damper fitted to a nose wheel steering system?

a)

To centralise the nose wheel during an up selection.

b)

To centralise the nose leg assembly during an up selection.

c)

To reduce vibration and shimmy.

13.

In an anti-skid system.

a)

Brakes release on rising torque.

b)

Brakes release on falling torque.

c)

Brakes are modulated to give most efficient braking.

14.

A fusible plug fitted to an aircraft wheel prevents.

a)

Tyre bursts due to high temperatures created by excessive braking.

b)

Over inflation of tyres during servicing.

c)

Brakes seizure, if brake stators and rotors weld together under excessive temperatures.

15.

If the shuttle valve was stuck in the normal position.

a)

Neither system will be available.

b)

Normal braking will not be available.

c)

Emergency braking will not be available.

16.

The breaker strip of a tyre is fitted.

a)

Between the tread rubber and the casing piles.

b)

Between the bead and the casing piles.

c)

Between the apex strip and the casing piles.

17.

The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheel will.

a)

Facilitate servicing of the wheel assembly.

b)

Melt at a specified elevated temperature.

c)

Eliminate the need to check air pressure.

18.

Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft tyre is an indication of.

a)

Over-inflation.

b)

Excessive toe-in.

c)

Under-inflation.

19.

On large aircraft, bogie type undercarriages are used to.

a)

Absorb increased landing shock.

b)

Spread the weight over a large area.

c)

Prevent skidding.

20.

Brake deboosters.

a)

Increase the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes.

b)

Assist the operation of the anti-skid unit.

c)

Reduce the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes.

21.

On a main landing gear, what is positive camber?.

a)

Top of wheels closer to fuselage.

b)

Bottom of wheels closer to fuselage.

c)

Front of wheels closer to fuselage.

22.

When the landing gear is locked up, the cockpit indicator shows.

a)

Red light.

b)

No indication.

c)

Green light.

23.

Tyre creep could be caused by.

a)

Overpressure.

b)

Under pressure.

c)

Excessive wear.

24.

Un-mounted tubeless tyres must be stored.

a)

Vertically.

b)

In the manufactures boxes

c)

Horizontally.

25.

When fitting a tyre to a hub, the red spot on the tyre should be in line with.

a)

The valve assembly.

b)

Maker's serial number.

c)

Opposite side to the valve assembly.

26.

On a multi-brake unit with automatic adjusters, brake wear is checked by

a)

Using a go-no go gauge to measure the gap between the cylinder and the thrust plate.

b)

Application of the brakes and checking indicator pin protrusion.

c)

Measuring the protrusion of the indicator pins with the brakes released.

27.

A brake debooster valve is provided for.

a)

Decreasing the pressure and slowly releasing the brakes.

b)

Increasing the pressure and applying the brakes rapidly.

c)

Applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the the brakes quickly.

28.

A green/grey dot marking on aircraft tyre casing represents.

a)

The light part of the tyre.

b)

Military reference.

c)

Breather points.

29.

Vents holes are found on.

a)

Tubed tyres.

b)

Tubeless tyres.

c)

Tubed and tubeless tyres.

30.

The pilot receives an audible warning on the flight deck as the aircraft is descending to land. The most likely reason for this warning is.

a)

The landing gear is not locked down.

b)

The airspeed is too high.

c)

The rate of descent is too high.

31.

A restrictor in the landing gear hydraulic retraction and lowering system is positioned in the.

a)

Landing gear down line.

b)

Landing gear up line.

c)

Return line from the landing gear selector.

32.

Wheel speed information is used in auto speed brake systems.

a)

To stow the spoilers automatically when the aircraft has nearly stopped.

b)

To ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight time lapse before spoiler deployment.

c)

To ensure the aircraft is still rolling.

33.

Nose wheel steering in a modern aircraft is by.

a)

Rudder pedals

b)

A separate pilot operated control.

c)

The control column.

34.

When checking the alignment of a main landing gear, check.

a)

Symmetry, tracking, splay.

b)

Symmetry, tracking, twist.

c)

Symmetry, tracking, camber.

35.

With a single oleo leg with a stub axle used, the torque links will.

a)

Keep the wheel in track.

b)

Allow the wheel to shimmy.

c)

Assist the wheel to castor.

36.

Tandem landing gear has

a)

The main gear and tail gear aligned on the longitudinal axis of the aircraft

b)

The main gear and tail gear aligned on the lateral axis of the aircraft

c)

Four or more wheel assemblies on each main gear

37.

The function of the oil in a shock absorber is to

a)

Damp the rebound.

b)

Absorb the landing shock.

c)

Ensure the separator does not bottom.

38.

When fitting a tyre, the red dot should be positioned.

a)

Adjacent to the charging valve.

b)

Opposite the charging valve.

c)

On the other side of the wheel opposite to the charging valve.

39.

A fusible plug fitted to an aircraft wheel prevents.

a)

Over inflation of tyres during servicing.

b)

Tyre bursts due to high temperatures created by excessive braking.

c)

Brakes seizure, if brake stators and rotors weld together under excessive temperatures.

40.

The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheel will.

a)

Facilitate servicing of the wheel assembly.

b)

Eliminate the need to check air pressure

c)

Melt at a specified elevated temperature.

41.

During taxi operations

a)

The air and fluid in the strut combine to smooth out bumps.

b)

The air in the tires and the strut combine to smooth out bumps.

c)

The air in the tires and the fluid in the strut combine to smooth out bumps.

42.

When more than two wheels are attached to a landing gear strut, the attaching mechanism is known as a

a)

Multi wheels.

b)

Bogie

c)

Pontoon.

43.

A typical pneumatic/hydraulic shock strut uses _____ air or _____ combined with hydraulic fluid to absorb and dissipate shock loads.

a)

Nitrogen/Fluid

b)

Compressed/Nitrogen

c)

Compressed/Fluid

44.

The _____ is a fixed structural extension of the upper strut cylinder with bearing surfaces that allow the entire gear assembly to move.

a)

Trunnion

b)

Sleeve

c)

Bracket

45.

To keep the piston and wheels aligned, most shock struts are equipped with

a)

Torque links or torque arms.

b)

Centering cam

c)

Metering tube

46.

Shock strut servicing is accomplished through the high-pressure service valve found at

a)

The middle of the strut's upper cylinder.

b)

The top of the strut's upper cylinder.

c)

The bottom of the strut's lower cylinder.

47.

The proper functioning of a landing gear system and components can be checked by performing _____ test. This is also known as swinging the gear.

a)

Landing gear uplock

b)

Landing gear extension

c)

Landing gear retraction

48.

When the bogie is installed on the aircraft landing gear

a)

More than two wheels are attached to a landing gear strut

b)

Two wheels attached to landing gear strut

c)

One Wheel attached to landing gear strut

49.

To keeps the lower strut cylinder from rotating out of alignment with the longitudinal axis of the aircraft by:

a)

A torque arm or torque links assembly

b)

Some strut assemblies

c)

Anti rotating cylinders

50.

A typical pneumatic/hydraulic shock strut has two chambers:

a)

The upper chamber is filled with hydraulic fluid

b)

The lower chamber is always filled with hydraulic fluid and does not move

c)

The lower chamber is always filled with hydraulic fluid and the upper chamber is filled with compressed air or nitrogen.

51.

When the emergency extension handle is operated:

a)

It releases the landing gear door uplock

b)

It releases the landing gear door down lock

c)

It releases the gear uplock and allow the gear to free-fall to the extended position by gravity

52.

NLG shock strut is compressed the centering cams:

a)

An upper cam is free to mate into a lower cam recess

b)

The centering cams rotate in the upper strut cylinder

c)

The centering cams separate allowing the lower shock strut (piston) to rotate

53.

How a few simple aircraft have nose wheel assemblies steered:

a)

Aircraft are steered by rudder pedals

b)

Aircraft are steered by handle steering

c)

Aircraft are steered during taxi by differential braking

54.

When the shimmy dampers of NLG are activated:

a)

NLG is extended

b)

Inflight while NLG is not compressed

c)

All phases of ground operation while permitting the nose gear steering system to function normally

55.

The typical of aircraft wheel is:

a)

Lightweight, strong, and made from rubber

b)

Lightweight, strong, and made from rubber

c)

Lightweight, strong, and made from aluminum alloy or magnesium alloy

56.

The difference between Radial wheel tire and Bias wheel tire:

a)

The angle of the plies in relation to the direction of rotation of the tire varies between 200 and 700.. The plies in radial tires are laid at a 120°

b)

The Bias tires the angle of the plies in relation to the direction of rotation of the tire varies between 30° and 60° the Bias. The plies in radial tires are laid at a 90°

c)

The angle of the plies in relation to the direction of rotation of the tire varies between 200 and 700.. The plies in radial tires are laid at a 90°

57.

The grooves of the tires are created for:

a)

The tires more stronger at touch down point

b)

Cooling the tires while rolling

c)

Cooling and help channel water from under the tire in wet conditions to increase adhesion to the ground surface.