WorksheetsER trauma
Total questions: 65
Worksheet time: 33mins
What does the "Golden Hour" in trauma care primarily emphasize?
Rapid transport to radiology within 60 minutes
Critical time period after trauma when surgical repair should begin
First hour after traumatic injury during which timely intervention improves survival
Final hour of resuscitation when discharge planning begins
The concept of the Golden Hour is most directly aimed at reducing which type of trauma mortality?
Immediate
Early
Late
Chronic
A trauma system that maximizes rapid assessment and intervention during the Golden Hour is most likely to reduce:
Long-term disability
Infection-related complications
Death from cardiovascular or pulmonary collapse
Sepsis-related organ failure
During the Golden Hour, what is the primary focus of the trauma team?
Completing imaging and full documentation
Performing secondary survey and definitive repair
Identifying and managing life-threatening injuries
Transferring the patient to a rehabilitation facility
Which of the following best explains why the Golden Hour is so critical in trauma care?
It allows for insurance clearance and surgical scheduling
It is the time when inflammatory markers peak
It is associated with the highest risk of sudden deterioration and death
It prevents the need for long-term physical therapy
In the primary survey of trauma, what does the "A" in ABCDE stand for, and what must be assessed first?
Alertness – assess for GCS and mental status
Airway – ensure patency and cervical spine protection
Auscultation – check for breath sounds
Acidosis – identify metabolic derangements
A trauma patient is found unresponsive with gurgling respirations and facial trauma. According to the ATLS primary survey, what is the immediate next step?
Apply high-flow oxygen by non-rebreather mask
Perform a rapid head-to-toe exam
Insert an oropharyngeal airway and stabilize the cervical spine
Obtain a chest X-ray
In trauma evaluation, when should cervical spine stabilization be performed?
Only after the airway is confirmed
After the secondary survey is complete
Concurrently with airway management in any patient with blunt trauma or altered mental status
Only when a fracture is seen on imaging
Which finding during the "B" portion of the primary survey requires immediate intervention?
Bilateral breath sounds with mild crackles
Dullness to percussion in the left lower lung field
Tracheal deviation away from the affected side with absent breath sounds
Wheezing on auscultation
What does the “E” in ABCDE of the primary trauma survey include?
ECG and electrolyte panel
External bleeding and ecchymosis documentation
Exposure with environmental control to prevent hypothermia
Evaluation of the ears, eyes, and extremities
When should the secondary survey be initiated in trauma assessment?
Immediately upon patient arrival
After the resuscitation phase and once the primary survey has identified and managed all life-threatening conditions
After the radiology team performs all imaging
Only if the patient is hemodynamically unstable
What is the main goal of the secondary survey in trauma evaluation?
To determine transport priority
To evaluate laboratory abnormalities
To perform a detailed head-to-toe examination and identify all injuries
To clear the cervical spine with imaging
Which of the following is included in the mnemonic “AMPLE” used during the secondary survey?
Abdominal pain
Medications
Pulmonary function
Electrolytes
During the secondary survey, a trauma patient is log-rolled to inspect the back. What must be done simultaneously during this maneuver?
Neurology should perform a spinal tap
The patient should be extubated
Inline cervical spine stabilization must be maintained
An NG tube should be inserted
In addition to a head-to-toe exam, what else is assessed or repeated during the secondary survey?
Repeat full blood work and imaging
Glasgow Coma Scale is performed only if the primary survey was incomplete
Review of vital signs, quick repeat of primary survey, and patient history
Pelvic X-ray and CT head with contrast
A 2-year-old child presents after a fall with a head injury. The child is vomiting, irritable, and had a brief loss of consciousness. Which clinical tool helps determine whether a head CT is indicated?
APGAR score
PECARN Pediatric Head Injury Rule
GCS Modified for Adults
Pediatric Glasgow Airway Algorithm
Which of the following is the most important consideration when managing a pediatric airway in trauma?
Larger airway diameter requires larger tubes
Vocal cords are lower and less vulnerable
The tongue is proportionally larger and may obstruct the airway
Cricoid cartilage is not present in children under age 5
A 3-year-old trauma patient presents with abdominal bruising and decreased bowel sounds. The caregiver reports a high-speed MVA. What is the next best step?
Observe in ED for 4 hours
Immediate discharge with follow-up
FAST exam to evaluate for internal bleeding
Pelvic binder application
Which of the following is the most appropriate way to calculate fluid resuscitation in a pediatric trauma patient with signs of shock?
10 mL/kg of normal saline bolus
20 mL/kg of isotonic crystalloid bolus
2 L bolus of lactated Ringer's regardless of weight
100 mL/hr maintenance infusion
A child involved in a high-speed collision has a "seatbelt sign" across the lower abdomen. Which of the following injuries must be suspected?
Liver laceration
Pelvic ring fracture
Small bowel injury
Rib fracture
A patient presents with multiple gunshot wounds to the abdomen. Which of the following is the most critical initial step in management?
Obtain abdominal X-ray to locate bullet fragments
Start broad-spectrum antibiotics and send blood cultures
Perform immediate surgical exploration (laparotomy)
Complete a full secondary survey before intervening
A close-range gunshot wound to the chest results in respiratory distress, tracheal deviation, and unilateral absent breath sounds. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Pulmonary contusion
Cardiac tamponade
Tension pneumothorax
Flail chest
Which of the following best explains why high-velocity gunshot wounds are more destructive than low-velocity wounds?
They cause a localized crush injury without affecting adjacent tissue
The increased mass of the bullet causes direct explosion
They create cavitation and energy transfer that damages tissue beyond the bullet path
They only affect soft tissue and do not injure bone
In a suspected spinal GSW, which imaging modality is most appropriate to evaluate for bony injury and bullet trajectory?
FAST ultrasound
MRI with contrast
CT spine
Plain radiographs
When managing a GSW patient in the ED, what is the provider’s legal responsibility regarding the firearm injury?
Only document the wound if law enforcement is present
Collect the bullet for personal storage
Report the gunshot wound to law enforcement according to local/state laws
Refer the patient to forensic pathology before initiating care
A patient presents with a stab wound to the left anterior chest, just lateral to the sternum at the 4th intercostal space. He is hypotensive, tachycardic, and has distended neck veins with muffled heart sounds. What diagnosis should be suspected?
Tension pneumothorax
Cardiac tamponade
Pulmonary contusion
Hemothorax
A patient with a stab wound to the abdomen is hemodynamically stable. The wound appears to penetrate the peritoneal cavity. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Observe with serial abdominal exams
Immediate operative laparotomy
Local wound exploration and CT abdomen/pelvis with IV contrast
Administer antibiotics and discharge
Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding stab wounds versus gunshot wounds?
Stab wounds are more likely to require surgical intervention
Stab wounds cause greater cavitation injury
Gunshot wounds have a lower risk of vascular injury
Stab wounds cause more localized and predictable injury paths
Which of the following stab wound locations has the highest risk for major vascular injury and hemorrhage?
Forearm
Upper outer thigh
Zone I of the neck (clavicle to cricoid)
Lower back
During a trauma resuscitation, a patient with a stab wound to the left lower chest becomes hypotensive and tachycardic. A FAST exam reveals free fluid in the abdomen. What is the most likely injured organ?
Bladder
Diaphragm with intra-abdominal organ injury
Kidney
Ascending colon
A 45-year-old male is brought in after a fall. He opens his eyes to pain, speaks incomprehensible words, and withdraws from painful stimuli. What is his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?
9
7
8
6
What GCS score is associated with a severe traumatic brain injury and generally requires intubation?
13–15
9–12
7–10
≤8
Which of the following is true regarding the use of the Glasgow Coma Scale in trauma patients?
It should be measured prior to any airway intervention
It is only useful in pediatric patients
Post-resuscitation GCS is the best predictor of neurological outcome
A GCS score above 12 always rules out intracranial injury
A trauma patient demonstrates decerebrate posturing in response to pain. This finding indicates:
Cortical injury above the thalamus
Injury to the brainstem or midbrain
Lower motor neuron lesion
Isolated cerebellar damage
A GCS motor score of 6 indicates which patient response?
Abnormal flexion (decorticate posture)
Withdrawal to pain
Localizes pain
Obeys commands
A 72-year-old male presents after a ground-level fall. He is on warfarin and has a headache and confusion. A head CT reveals a crescent-shaped hyperdensity. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Epidural hematoma
Subdural hematoma
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Cerebral contusion
Which of the following signs is most suggestive of a basilar skull fracture in the setting of facial trauma?
Facial swelling and crepitus
Hemotympanum and Battle’s sign
Deviated nasal septum
Pain with jaw movement
A trauma patient with blunt head injury develops rapidly worsening mental status after a lucid interval. CT scan shows a biconvex (lens-shaped) hyperdensity. What is the diagnosis?
Subdural hematoma
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Diffuse axonal injury
Epidural hematoma
Which of the following facial injuries requires immediate airway assessment and management due to risk of obstruction?
Orbital floor fracture
Mandibular dislocation
Le Fort III midface fracture
Zygomatic arch fracture
A patient with blunt head trauma has equal pupils, no midline shift on CT, but remains comatose. What potentially fatal injury may be present despite normal imaging?
Basilar skull fracture
Diffuse axonal injury (DAI)
Orbital blowout fracture
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
A trauma patient presents with complete paralysis of the lower extremities, loss of sensation below the umbilicus, and preserved upper body function. What level of spinal cord injury is most consistent with this presentation?
C. C3
B. T10
C. L5
D. S1
Which of the following findings is most consistent with neurogenic shock from a high spinal cord injury?
Hypertension and tachycardia
Hypotension and bradycardia
Hypotension and tachypnea
Bradycardia and bounding pulses
What is the proper technique to evaluate a trauma patient for spinal cord injury during the secondary survey?
Flex the neck to assess range of motion
Perform a rectal exam to assess sphincter tone
Remove the cervical collar and palpate deeply
Ask the patient to lift their legs and perform a straight leg raise
Which of the following is true regarding the use of IV corticosteroids in spinal cord injury?
They should be given immediately in all trauma cases
They are most beneficial when administered within 8 hours of injury
They are only used if head trauma is also present
They are contraindicated in cervical spine injuries
A trauma patient cannot move his arms or legs but remains awake and alert. He is breathing shallowly and has a weak cough. What level of spinal cord injury should be suspected?
T6
L1
C4
D7
A patient with a penetrating neck wound has hoarseness, dysphagia, and subcutaneous emphysema. What is the priority in managing this injury?
Administer antibiotics and observe
Secure the airway immediately with intubation or cricothyroidotomy
Perform exploratory neck surgery
Order a barium swallow
A patient presents with blunt chest trauma and paradoxical movement of a portion of the rib cage. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Pulmonary embolism
Flail chest
Hemothorax
Cardiac tamponade
Which of the following findings is most suggestive of a tension pneumothorax in a chest trauma patient?
Muffled heart sounds, bradycardia, hypotension
Absent breath sounds, tracheal deviation, hypotension
Dullness to percussion and hemoptysis
Chest wall bruising and stable vital signs
In penetrating chest trauma, which of the following findings is an indication for emergent thoracotomy?
Chest tube drainage of 50 mL blood
Chest X-ray showing isolated rib fracture
Initial chest tube output >1,500 mL or >200 mL/hr bleeding
Dyspnea relieved with oxygen
A 25-year-old presents after a steering wheel injury. He has distant heart sounds, jugular venous distension, and hypotension. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Tension pneumothorax
Aortic dissection
Cardiac tamponade
Myocardial contusion
A 30-year-old male presents after blunt abdominal trauma from a motorcycle crash. He is hypotensive and unresponsive. FAST exam reveals free fluid in Morrison’s pouch. What is the most appropriate next step?
Abdominal CT with contrast
Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
Emergency laparotomy
Repeat FAST in 30 minutes
Which of the following is the most common intra-abdominal organ injured in blunt trauma?
Kidney
Liver
Spleen
Stomach
A trauma patient presents with a stab wound to the left lower chest. What should you suspect and evaluate for, even if vitals are stable?
Myocardial contusion
Diaphragmatic injury with possible abdominal organ herniation
Pneumothorax with subcutaneous emphysema
Pelvic fracture
A trauma patient has abdominal distension and right lower rib fractures. Which organ is most likely injured?
Liver
Spleen
Pancreas
Kidney
In trauma, which abdominal exam finding warrants immediate surgical exploration, even if vitals are stable?
Guarding
Absent bowel sounds
Penetrating wound with signs of peritoneal violation
Ecchymosis of the flanks
A trauma patient presents with hypotension and an unstable pelvis on exam. What is the immediate next step in management?
CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
Apply a pelvic binder
Foley catheter insertion
Abdominal ultrasound
How much blood can be lost into the pelvis in a severe pelvic fracture?
1–2 liters
2–3 liters
4–6 liters
Over 7 liters
A 28-year-old male with pelvic trauma has blood at the urethral meatus and scrotal ecchymosis. What is the most appropriate next step before Foley placement?
Insert Foley immediately
Perform bedside ultrasound
Perform retrograde urethrogram (RUG)
Order MRI pelvis
Which of the following is the classic X-ray finding in an "open book" pelvic fracture?
Vertical displacement of iliac crest
Fracture through the acetabulum
Widened pubic symphysis and sacroiliac joints
Isolated sacral fracture
What physical exam technique should be avoided in a patient with suspected unstable pelvic fracture?
Checking cap refill
Palpation of iliac crest
Log roll for back exam
Repeated manipulation of the pelvis
A patient presents with a visibly deformed femur after blunt trauma. Dorsalis pedis pulse is absent. What is the first step?
Elevate and ice the extremity
Immediate surgical amputation
Reduce the fracture and reassess distal pulse
Obtain X-ray and await orthopedic consult
What is the maximum time a limb can tolerate ischemia before irreversible damage occurs?
1–2 hours
3–4 hours
5–6 hours
Over 8 hours
Which of the following must be documented in all extremity trauma cases?
Hematocrit and hemoglobin
Range of motion
Pulses, sensation, and motor function
Pain scale and height
Which extremity fracture is most likely to cause compartment syndrome?
Tibial shaft fracture
Proximal humerus fracture
Femoral neck fracture
Distal radius fracture
A patient with a forearm crush injury has severe pain out of proportion, tense swelling, and pain with passive stretch. What is the next step?
Splint and elevate
Start IV fluids and monitor
Measure compartment pressures
Ice the limb and reassess
