wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

ER trauma

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does the "Golden Hour" in trauma care primarily emphasize?

a)

Rapid transport to radiology within 60 minutes

b)

Critical time period after trauma when surgical repair should begin

c)

First hour after traumatic injury during which timely intervention improves survival

d)

Final hour of resuscitation when discharge planning begins

2.

The concept of the Golden Hour is most directly aimed at reducing which type of trauma mortality?

a)

Immediate

b)

Early

c)

Late

d)

Chronic

3.

A trauma system that maximizes rapid assessment and intervention during the Golden Hour is most likely to reduce:

a)

Long-term disability

b)

Infection-related complications

c)

Death from cardiovascular or pulmonary collapse

d)

Sepsis-related organ failure

4.

During the Golden Hour, what is the primary focus of the trauma team?

a)

Completing imaging and full documentation

b)

Performing secondary survey and definitive repair

c)

Identifying and managing life-threatening injuries

d)

Transferring the patient to a rehabilitation facility

5.

Which of the following best explains why the Golden Hour is so critical in trauma care?

a)

It allows for insurance clearance and surgical scheduling

b)

It is the time when inflammatory markers peak

c)

It is associated with the highest risk of sudden deterioration and death

d)

It prevents the need for long-term physical therapy

6.

In the primary survey of trauma, what does the "A" in ABCDE stand for, and what must be assessed first?

a)

Alertness – assess for GCS and mental status

b)

Airway – ensure patency and cervical spine protection

c)

Auscultation – check for breath sounds

d)

Acidosis – identify metabolic derangements

7.

A trauma patient is found unresponsive with gurgling respirations and facial trauma. According to the ATLS primary survey, what is the immediate next step?

a)

Apply high-flow oxygen by non-rebreather mask

b)

Perform a rapid head-to-toe exam

c)

Insert an oropharyngeal airway and stabilize the cervical spine

d)

Obtain a chest X-ray

8.

In trauma evaluation, when should cervical spine stabilization be performed?

a)

Only after the airway is confirmed

b)

After the secondary survey is complete

c)

Concurrently with airway management in any patient with blunt trauma or altered mental status

d)

Only when a fracture is seen on imaging

9.

Which finding during the "B" portion of the primary survey requires immediate intervention?

a)

Bilateral breath sounds with mild crackles

b)

Dullness to percussion in the left lower lung field

c)

Tracheal deviation away from the affected side with absent breath sounds

d)

Wheezing on auscultation

10.

What does the “E” in ABCDE of the primary trauma survey include?

a)

ECG and electrolyte panel

b)

External bleeding and ecchymosis documentation

c)

Exposure with environmental control to prevent hypothermia

d)

Evaluation of the ears, eyes, and extremities

11.

When should the secondary survey be initiated in trauma assessment?

a)

Immediately upon patient arrival

b)

After the resuscitation phase and once the primary survey has identified and managed all life-threatening conditions

c)

After the radiology team performs all imaging

d)

Only if the patient is hemodynamically unstable

12.

What is the main goal of the secondary survey in trauma evaluation?

a)

To determine transport priority

b)

To evaluate laboratory abnormalities

c)

To perform a detailed head-to-toe examination and identify all injuries

d)

To clear the cervical spine with imaging

13.

Which of the following is included in the mnemonic “AMPLE” used during the secondary survey?

a)

Abdominal pain

b)

Medications

c)

Pulmonary function

d)

Electrolytes

14.

During the secondary survey, a trauma patient is log-rolled to inspect the back. What must be done simultaneously during this maneuver?

a)

Neurology should perform a spinal tap

b)

The patient should be extubated

c)

Inline cervical spine stabilization must be maintained

d)

An NG tube should be inserted

15.

In addition to a head-to-toe exam, what else is assessed or repeated during the secondary survey?

a)

Repeat full blood work and imaging

b)

Glasgow Coma Scale is performed only if the primary survey was incomplete

c)

Review of vital signs, quick repeat of primary survey, and patient history

d)

Pelvic X-ray and CT head with contrast

16.

A 2-year-old child presents after a fall with a head injury. The child is vomiting, irritable, and had a brief loss of consciousness. Which clinical tool helps determine whether a head CT is indicated?

a)

APGAR score

b)

PECARN Pediatric Head Injury Rule

c)

GCS Modified for Adults

d)

Pediatric Glasgow Airway Algorithm

17.

Which of the following is the most important consideration when managing a pediatric airway in trauma?

a)

Larger airway diameter requires larger tubes

b)

Vocal cords are lower and less vulnerable

c)

The tongue is proportionally larger and may obstruct the airway

d)

Cricoid cartilage is not present in children under age 5

18.

A 3-year-old trauma patient presents with abdominal bruising and decreased bowel sounds. The caregiver reports a high-speed MVA. What is the next best step?

a)

Observe in ED for 4 hours

b)

Immediate discharge with follow-up

c)

FAST exam to evaluate for internal bleeding

d)

Pelvic binder application

19.

Which of the following is the most appropriate way to calculate fluid resuscitation in a pediatric trauma patient with signs of shock?

a)

10 mL/kg of normal saline bolus

b)

20 mL/kg of isotonic crystalloid bolus

c)

2 L bolus of lactated Ringer's regardless of weight

d)

100 mL/hr maintenance infusion

20.

A child involved in a high-speed collision has a "seatbelt sign" across the lower abdomen. Which of the following injuries must be suspected?

a)

Liver laceration

b)

Pelvic ring fracture

c)

Small bowel injury

d)

Rib fracture

21.

A patient presents with multiple gunshot wounds to the abdomen. Which of the following is the most critical initial step in management?

a)

Obtain abdominal X-ray to locate bullet fragments

b)

Start broad-spectrum antibiotics and send blood cultures

c)

Perform immediate surgical exploration (laparotomy)

d)

Complete a full secondary survey before intervening

22.

A close-range gunshot wound to the chest results in respiratory distress, tracheal deviation, and unilateral absent breath sounds. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Pulmonary contusion

b)

Cardiac tamponade

c)

Tension pneumothorax

d)

Flail chest

23.

Which of the following best explains why high-velocity gunshot wounds are more destructive than low-velocity wounds?

a)

They cause a localized crush injury without affecting adjacent tissue

b)

The increased mass of the bullet causes direct explosion

c)

They create cavitation and energy transfer that damages tissue beyond the bullet path

d)

They only affect soft tissue and do not injure bone

24.

In a suspected spinal GSW, which imaging modality is most appropriate to evaluate for bony injury and bullet trajectory?

a)

FAST ultrasound

b)

MRI with contrast

c)

CT spine

d)

Plain radiographs

25.

When managing a GSW patient in the ED, what is the provider’s legal responsibility regarding the firearm injury?

a)

Only document the wound if law enforcement is present

b)

Collect the bullet for personal storage

c)

Report the gunshot wound to law enforcement according to local/state laws

d)

Refer the patient to forensic pathology before initiating care

26.

A patient presents with a stab wound to the left anterior chest, just lateral to the sternum at the 4th intercostal space. He is hypotensive, tachycardic, and has distended neck veins with muffled heart sounds. What diagnosis should be suspected?

a)

Tension pneumothorax

b)

Cardiac tamponade

c)

Pulmonary contusion

d)

Hemothorax

27.

A patient with a stab wound to the abdomen is hemodynamically stable. The wound appears to penetrate the peritoneal cavity. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

a)

Observe with serial abdominal exams

b)

Immediate operative laparotomy

c)

Local wound exploration and CT abdomen/pelvis with IV contrast

d)

Administer antibiotics and discharge

28.

Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding stab wounds versus gunshot wounds?

a)

Stab wounds are more likely to require surgical intervention

b)

Stab wounds cause greater cavitation injury

c)

Gunshot wounds have a lower risk of vascular injury

d)

Stab wounds cause more localized and predictable injury paths

29.

Which of the following stab wound locations has the highest risk for major vascular injury and hemorrhage?

a)

Forearm

b)

Upper outer thigh

c)

Zone I of the neck (clavicle to cricoid)

d)

Lower back

30.

During a trauma resuscitation, a patient with a stab wound to the left lower chest becomes hypotensive and tachycardic. A FAST exam reveals free fluid in the abdomen. What is the most likely injured organ?

a)

Bladder

b)

Diaphragm with intra-abdominal organ injury

c)

Kidney

d)

Ascending colon

31.

A 45-year-old male is brought in after a fall. He opens his eyes to pain, speaks incomprehensible words, and withdraws from painful stimuli. What is his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?

a)

9

b)

7

c)

8

d)

6

32.

What GCS score is associated with a severe traumatic brain injury and generally requires intubation?

a)

13–15

b)

9–12

c)

7–10

d)

≤8

33.

Which of the following is true regarding the use of the Glasgow Coma Scale in trauma patients?

a)

It should be measured prior to any airway intervention

b)

It is only useful in pediatric patients

c)

Post-resuscitation GCS is the best predictor of neurological outcome

d)

A GCS score above 12 always rules out intracranial injury

34.

A trauma patient demonstrates decerebrate posturing in response to pain. This finding indicates:

a)

Cortical injury above the thalamus

b)

Injury to the brainstem or midbrain

c)

Lower motor neuron lesion

d)

Isolated cerebellar damage

35.

A GCS motor score of 6 indicates which patient response?

a)

Abnormal flexion (decorticate posture)

b)

Withdrawal to pain

c)

Localizes pain

d)

Obeys commands

36.

A 72-year-old male presents after a ground-level fall. He is on warfarin and has a headache and confusion. A head CT reveals a crescent-shaped hyperdensity. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Epidural hematoma

b)

Subdural hematoma

c)

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

d)

Cerebral contusion

37.

Which of the following signs is most suggestive of a basilar skull fracture in the setting of facial trauma?

a)

Facial swelling and crepitus

b)

Hemotympanum and Battle’s sign

c)

Deviated nasal septum

d)

Pain with jaw movement

38.

A trauma patient with blunt head injury develops rapidly worsening mental status after a lucid interval. CT scan shows a biconvex (lens-shaped) hyperdensity. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Subdural hematoma

b)

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

c)

Diffuse axonal injury

d)

Epidural hematoma

39.

Which of the following facial injuries requires immediate airway assessment and management due to risk of obstruction?

a)

Orbital floor fracture

b)

Mandibular dislocation

c)

Le Fort III midface fracture

d)

Zygomatic arch fracture

40.

A patient with blunt head trauma has equal pupils, no midline shift on CT, but remains comatose. What potentially fatal injury may be present despite normal imaging?

a)

Basilar skull fracture

b)

Diffuse axonal injury (DAI)

c)

Orbital blowout fracture

d)

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

41.

A trauma patient presents with complete paralysis of the lower extremities, loss of sensation below the umbilicus, and preserved upper body function. What level of spinal cord injury is most consistent with this presentation?

a)

C. C3

b)

B. T10

c)

C. L5

d)

D. S1

42.

Which of the following findings is most consistent with neurogenic shock from a high spinal cord injury?

a)

Hypertension and tachycardia

b)

Hypotension and bradycardia

c)

Hypotension and tachypnea

d)

Bradycardia and bounding pulses

43.

What is the proper technique to evaluate a trauma patient for spinal cord injury during the secondary survey?

a)

Flex the neck to assess range of motion

b)

Perform a rectal exam to assess sphincter tone

c)

Remove the cervical collar and palpate deeply

d)

Ask the patient to lift their legs and perform a straight leg raise

44.

Which of the following is true regarding the use of IV corticosteroids in spinal cord injury?

a)

They should be given immediately in all trauma cases

b)

They are most beneficial when administered within 8 hours of injury

c)

They are only used if head trauma is also present

d)

They are contraindicated in cervical spine injuries

45.

A trauma patient cannot move his arms or legs but remains awake and alert. He is breathing shallowly and has a weak cough. What level of spinal cord injury should be suspected?

a)

T6

b)

L1

c)

C4

d)

D7

46.

A patient with a penetrating neck wound has hoarseness, dysphagia, and subcutaneous emphysema. What is the priority in managing this injury?

a)

Administer antibiotics and observe

b)

Secure the airway immediately with intubation or cricothyroidotomy

c)

Perform exploratory neck surgery

d)

Order a barium swallow

47.

A patient presents with blunt chest trauma and paradoxical movement of a portion of the rib cage. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

Flail chest

c)

Hemothorax

d)

Cardiac tamponade

48.

Which of the following findings is most suggestive of a tension pneumothorax in a chest trauma patient?

a)

Muffled heart sounds, bradycardia, hypotension

b)

Absent breath sounds, tracheal deviation, hypotension

c)

Dullness to percussion and hemoptysis

d)

Chest wall bruising and stable vital signs

49.

In penetrating chest trauma, which of the following findings is an indication for emergent thoracotomy?

a)

Chest tube drainage of 50 mL blood

b)

Chest X-ray showing isolated rib fracture

c)

Initial chest tube output >1,500 mL or >200 mL/hr bleeding

d)

Dyspnea relieved with oxygen

50.

A 25-year-old presents after a steering wheel injury. He has distant heart sounds, jugular venous distension, and hypotension. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Tension pneumothorax

b)

Aortic dissection

c)

Cardiac tamponade

d)

Myocardial contusion

51.

A 30-year-old male presents after blunt abdominal trauma from a motorcycle crash. He is hypotensive and unresponsive. FAST exam reveals free fluid in Morrison’s pouch. What is the most appropriate next step?

a)

Abdominal CT with contrast

b)

Diagnostic peritoneal lavage

c)

Emergency laparotomy

d)

Repeat FAST in 30 minutes

52.

Which of the following is the most common intra-abdominal organ injured in blunt trauma?

a)

Kidney

b)

Liver

c)

Spleen

d)

Stomach

53.

A trauma patient presents with a stab wound to the left lower chest. What should you suspect and evaluate for, even if vitals are stable?

a)

Myocardial contusion

b)

Diaphragmatic injury with possible abdominal organ herniation

c)

Pneumothorax with subcutaneous emphysema

d)

Pelvic fracture

54.

A trauma patient has abdominal distension and right lower rib fractures. Which organ is most likely injured?

a)

Liver

b)

Spleen

c)

Pancreas

d)

Kidney

55.

In trauma, which abdominal exam finding warrants immediate surgical exploration, even if vitals are stable?

a)

Guarding

b)

Absent bowel sounds

c)

Penetrating wound with signs of peritoneal violation

d)

Ecchymosis of the flanks

56.

A trauma patient presents with hypotension and an unstable pelvis on exam. What is the immediate next step in management?

a)

CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis

b)

Apply a pelvic binder

c)

Foley catheter insertion

d)

Abdominal ultrasound

57.

How much blood can be lost into the pelvis in a severe pelvic fracture?

a)

1–2 liters

b)

2–3 liters

c)

4–6 liters

d)

Over 7 liters

58.

A 28-year-old male with pelvic trauma has blood at the urethral meatus and scrotal ecchymosis. What is the most appropriate next step before Foley placement?

a)

Insert Foley immediately

b)

Perform bedside ultrasound

c)

Perform retrograde urethrogram (RUG)

d)

Order MRI pelvis

59.

Which of the following is the classic X-ray finding in an "open book" pelvic fracture?

a)

Vertical displacement of iliac crest

b)

Fracture through the acetabulum

c)

Widened pubic symphysis and sacroiliac joints

d)

Isolated sacral fracture

60.

What physical exam technique should be avoided in a patient with suspected unstable pelvic fracture?

a)

Checking cap refill

b)

Palpation of iliac crest

c)

Log roll for back exam

d)

Repeated manipulation of the pelvis

61.

A patient presents with a visibly deformed femur after blunt trauma. Dorsalis pedis pulse is absent. What is the first step?

a)

Elevate and ice the extremity

b)

Immediate surgical amputation

c)

Reduce the fracture and reassess distal pulse

d)

Obtain X-ray and await orthopedic consult

62.

What is the maximum time a limb can tolerate ischemia before irreversible damage occurs?

a)

1–2 hours

b)

3–4 hours

c)

5–6 hours

d)

Over 8 hours

63.

Which of the following must be documented in all extremity trauma cases?

a)

Hematocrit and hemoglobin

b)

Range of motion

c)

Pulses, sensation, and motor function

d)

Pain scale and height

64.

Which extremity fracture is most likely to cause compartment syndrome?

a)

Tibial shaft fracture

b)

Proximal humerus fracture

c)

Femoral neck fracture

d)

Distal radius fracture

65.

A patient with a forearm crush injury has severe pain out of proportion, tense swelling, and pain with passive stretch. What is the next step?

a)

Splint and elevate

b)

Start IV fluids and monitor

c)

Measure compartment pressures

d)

Ice the limb and reassess