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Quản Trị Học - Chapter 1

Total questions: 241

Worksheet time: 2hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1. What is the goal of management?

a)

To maximize profits.

b)

To efficiently utilize resources.

c)

To increase market share.

d)

To reduce costs.

2.

2. What is organizational performance?

a)

The measurement of customer satisfaction.

b)

The evaluation of employee morale.

c)

Analysis of how well an organization has performed in relation to its goals.

d)

Assessment of market competition.

3.

What does effectiveness measure in the context of management?

a)

The efficiency of resource utilization.

b)

The alignment between intended and actual goals.

c)

The financial performance of the organization.

d)

The satisfaction levels of employees.

4.

What does efficiency measure in the context of management?

a)

The alignment between intended and actual goals.

b)

The degree to which goals are achieved.

c)

The appropriateness of goals selected by managers.

d)

The utilization of resources to achieve maximum output.

5.

What does effectiveness mean in the context of management?

a)

Utilizing resources efficiently to achieve goals.

b)

Minimizing waste and reducing costs.

c)

Doing things right.

d)

Doing the right thing.

6.

What does efficiency mean in the context of management?

a)

Utilizing resources efficiently to achieve goals.

b)

Minimizing waste and reducing costs.

c)

Doing things right.

d)

Doing the right thing.

7.

According to Frederick Taylor, what does management involve?

a)

Forecasting and planning activities.

b)

Coordinating and controlling activities.

c)

Knowing what needs to be done and ensuring it is done in the best possible manner.

d)

Leading and motivating employees.

8.

What are the key activities involved in management, as described by Henri Fayol?

a)

Planning, organizing, leading, and controlling.

b)

Forecasting, co-ordinating, and commanding.

c)

Forecasting, planning, and coordinating.

d)

Organizing, commanding, and controlling.

9.

According to Peter Drucker, what does management handle?

a)

Business, managers, workers, and work itself.

b)

Planning, organizing, and leading.

c)

Forecasting, coordinating, and controlling.

d)

Commanding, coordinating, and controlling.

10.

How does Gareth Jones define management?

a)

Planning, organizing, leading, and controlling human resources.

b)

Coordinating and controlling resources to achieve goals.

c)

Forecasting, planning, and organizing activities.

d)

Planning, organizing, leading, and controlling human and other resources to achieve goals efficiently and effectively.

11.

Which of the following statements is not a function of planning?

a)

  Identifying appropriate organizational goals

b)

Developing strategies for high-performance

c)

Allocating resources

d)

  Designing job performance

12.

Which of the following is the first step in the planning process?

a)

Allocating resources

b)

Determining strategies

c)

Achieving high-performance

d)

Deciding on organizational goals

13.

What is the primary purpose of the organizing function in management?

a)

Allocating financial resources

b)

Developing an organizational structure

c)

Coordinating collective effort

d)

Goal attainment

14.

Which of the options below does not represent the role of leading function?

a)

Setting a vision

b)

Setting a goal for the company

c)

Providing leadership and support

d)

Motivating subordinates

15.

What are the four steps involved in the controlling function?

a)

Establishing, measuring, comparing, and correcting.

b)

  Planning, organizing, leading, and controlling.

c)

Defining, monitoring, evaluating, and adjusting.

d)

Analyzing, implementing, communicating, and reviewing.

16.

What are the four stages of the control function?

a)

Establishing, measuring, comparing, and correcting.

b)

Planning, organizing, leading, and controlling.

c)

Defining, monitoring, evaluating, and adjusting.

d)

Analyzing, implementing, communicating, and reviewing.

17.

Which category of managerial roles involves interactions and relationships with people both inside and outside the organization?

a)

Interpersonal roles

b)

Informational roles

c)

Decisional roles

d)

Operational roles

18.

Which role of managers involves representing the organization in ceremonial and symbolic functions?

a)

Figurehead role

b)

Leader role

c)

Liaison role

d)

Decisional role

19.

Which role of managers involves guiding and motivating employees to accomplish organizational goals?

a)

Figurehead role

b)

Leader role

c)

Liaison role

d)

Informational role

20.

Which role of managers involves building and maintaining relationships with individuals and groups external to the organization?

a)

Figurehead role

b)

Leader role

c)

Liaison role

d)

Decisional role

21.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three levels of management?

a)

Front-line managers

b)

Middle managers

c)

Top managers

d)

  Operational managers

22.

What is the primary responsibility of first-line managers?

a)

Setting organizational goals

b)

  Formulating strategies

c)

Overseeing day-to-day operations

d)

Ensuring effective communication and coordination

23.

What is the primary role of middle managers?

a)

Overseeing day-to-day operations

b)

Setting organizational goals

c)

  Formulating strategies

d)

Coordinating and implementing plans

24.

What is the primary responsibility of top managers?

a)

Overseeing day-to-day operations

b)

Setting organizational goals

c)

Setting organizational goals

d)

Directly supervising employees

25.

What is the primary focus of conceptual skills?

a)

Analyzing and diagnosing situations

b)

Managing human resources

c)

Performing technical tasks

d)

Coordinating day-to-day operations

26.

What is the primary objective of human skills?

a)

Analyzing and diagnosing situations

b)

Performing technical tasks

c)

  Understanding and influencing human behavior

d)

Coordinating day-to-day operations

27.

What is the primary characteristic of technical skills?

a)

Analyzing and diagnosing situations

b)

Understanding and influencing human behavior

c)

Job-specific expertise in a particular field

d)

Coordinating day-to-day operations

28.

Which of the following skills is necessary for managers to provide guidance and support to their teams?

a)

Technical skills

b)

Conceptual skills

c)

Human skills

d)

Operational skills

29.

What types of skills allow managers to analyze complex situations and understand cause-and-effect relationships?

a)

Technical skills

b)

  Conceptual skills

c)

    Human skills

d)

Communication skills

30.

How do technical, conceptual, and human skills contribute to a manager's effectiveness?

a)

Technical skills alone are sufficient for managerial success.

b)

Conceptual skills are the most important for managerial success.

c)

The combination of technical, conceptual, and human skills enhances a manager's ability to perform effectively.

d)

  Human skills are only relevant for top-level managers.

31.

Management aims to:

a)


Increase market share.

b)


Reduce costs.

c)

Efficiently utilize resources.

d)

Maximize profits.

32.

Organizational performance refers to:

a)

The evaluation of employee morale.

b)


Assessment of market competition.

c)

The measurement of customer satisfaction.

d)


Analysis of how well an organization has performed in relation to its goals.

33.

Effectiveness in management refers to:

a)


The alignment between intended and actual goals.

b)


The financial performance of the organization.

c)

The satisfaction levels of employees.

d)


The efficiency of resource utilization.

34.

Efficiency in management refers to:

a)


The alignment between intended and actual goals.

b)


The degree to which goals are achieved.

c)


The utilization of resources to achieve maximum output.

d)


The appropriateness of goals selected by managers.

35.

In your opinion, what is the response that you consider to be the most precise?:

a)

Planning, organizing, leading, and controlling human and other resources to achieve goals efficiently and effectively.

b)


Planning, organizing, leading, and controlling human resources.

c)

Forecasting, planning, and organizing activities.

d)


Coordinating and controlling resources to achieve goals.

36.

Which tasks involve setting objectives and determining the actions needed to achieve them:

a)

Leading

b)

Organizing

c)

Planning

d)

Controlling

37.

What is the task that involves assigning tasks, grouping activities, and allocating resources within an organization?:

a)

Leading

b)

Organizing

c)

Evaluating

d)

Controlling

38.

Which managerial task involves motivating employees, providing guidance, and inspiring them to achieve organizational goals?:

a)

Leading

b)


Controlling

c)

Planning

d)

Evaluating

39.

Which level of managers is responsible for overseeing the daily activities of non-managerial employees?:

a)

Top managers

b)

First-line managers

c)


Operational managers

d)


Middle managers

40.

Which type of managerial skill involves thinking strategically, analyzing complex situations, and conceptualizing abstract ideas:

a)

Technical skills

b)


Conceptual skills

c)

Operational skills

d)

Human skills

41.

Which personality trait is associated with a manager who is likely to take risks and embrace change in the workplace?

a)

Conscientiousness

b)

Extraversion

c)

Openness

d)

Agreeableness

42.

An employee who scores low in conscientiousness may struggle with:

a)

Building positive relationships

b)

Decision-making under pressure

c)

Meeting deadlines and staying organized

d)

Providing emotional support to team members

43.

Which personality trait is associated with an individual's level of social interaction and outgoingness?

a)

Extraversion

b)

Agreeableness

c)

Neuroticism

d)

Conscientiousness

44.

Understanding the personality traits of employees can help managers:

a)

Assign tasks that align with employees' personalities and preferences.

b)

Increase decision-making under pressure.

c)

  Create a more assertive work environment.

d)

  Improve their own emotional stability.

45.

Which of the following best describes attitudes?

a)

Long-term and enduring beliefs that guide behavior.

b)

Qualities or behaviors seen as valuable for reaching desired outcomes.

c)

Evaluative judgments about people, events, or objects.

d)

Feelings about coworkers, job tasks, or the organization.

46.

Why is it important for managers to be aware of employees' values and attitudes?

a)

To create tension and conflict within the workplace.

b)

    To align the organization's values with those of the employees.

c)

To avoid promoting positive values and attitudes.

d)

To discourage employee engagement and job satisfaction.

47.

How do instrumental values differ from terminal values?

a)

Instrumental values are long-term and enduring, while terminal values are qualities or behaviors seen as valuable.

b)

Terminal values are the ultimate goals, while instrumental values are the desired end states.

c)

   Instrumental values represent the destination, while terminal values represent the means to achieve that destination.

d)

Terminal values reflect the desired outcomes, while instrumental values are the methods or characteristics.

48.

Which component of emotional intelligence involves recognizing and understanding the emotions of others?

a)

Self-awareness

b)

Self-management

c)

  Social awareness

d)

Relationship management

49.

What is one benefit of emotional intelligence for managers?

a)

Increased job satisfaction

b)

Enhanced decision-making skills

c)

Improved physical health

d)

Higher IQ scores

50.

Which of the following techniques can help managers improve self-awareness?

a)

Mindfulness and meditation

b)

Effective communication

c)

Building relationships

d)

Practicing empathy

51.

The managerial environment is comprised of:

a)

Stable factors that do not change

b)

Unpredictable factors with no influence

c)

Constantly changing factors

d)

Factors that only affect external stakeholders

52.

Which of the following refers to factors, conditions, and elements that influence managerial decision-making and organizational processes?

a)

Internal environment

b)

  External environment

c)

Organizational environment

d)

Managerial environment

53.

Managerial environment includes ………

a)

internal and external environments of an organization.

b)

macro and micro of an organization.

c)

general and task of an organization.

d)

macro and internal of an organization.

54.

How do managers anticipate changes in the managerial environment?

a)

By establishing strong relationships with suppliers.

b)

By utilizing advanced technology systems.

c)

By effectively employing the technique of boundary spanning.

d)

By conducting market research studies.

55.

What is one of the primary responsibilities of managers in the managerial environment?

a)

Implementing employee training programs.

b)

Developing marketing strategies.

c)

Monitoring and influencing the organization's internal and external environments.

d)

Conducting performance evaluations.

56.

How can managers acquire valuable information about the internal environment?

a)

By monitoring global economic conditions

b)

By evaluating the organization's internal operations

c)

By analyzing social and cultural factors

d)

By studying political landscapes

57.

The managerial environment is shaped by:

a)

Economic factors only

b)

Internal factors only

c)

External factors only

d)

Both internal and external factors

58.

The managerial environment affects:

a)

Only the decision-making process

b)

Only the operational efficiency

c)

Only the organizational structure

d)

Managerial decision-making, organizational processes, and overall managerial effectiveness

59.

What is one of the critical roles of managers in promoting organizational adaptability and change management?

a)

Assessing the impact of environmental changes

b)

Monitoring the internal environment

c)

Building relationships with suppliers

d)

Participating in industry conferences

60.

The manager's role in the managerial environment is to monitor boundaries spanning to

a)

link the organization's internal networks with external sources of information.

b)

link between managers and the managerial environment.

c)

link between internal and external environments.

d)

  link the organization's resources.

61.

1.     Which internal forces in an organization have a direct impact on its operations, culture, and performance?(3.2)

a)

Organizational structure, external environment, and stakeholder relationships

b)

Organizational culture, human resources, and leadership and management

c)

Organizational goals and strategies, internal communication, and organizational resources

d)

Processes and systems, customer relationships, and technological advancement

62.

Which internal force in an organization defines the formal arrangement of roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships?

a)

Organizational Culture

b)

  Human Resources

c)

Organizational Structure

d)

Processes and Systems

63.

What influences employee behavior, decision-making, and overall organizational performance?

a)

Organizational Resources

b)

Internal Communication

c)

Organizational Goals and Strategies

d)

Organizational Culture

64.

Which internal force encompasses the skills, knowledge, experience, and attitudes of the people working for the organization?

a)

Organizational Structure

b)

Human Resources

c)

Stakeholder Relationships

d)

Leadership and Management

65.

What governs the established procedures, workflows, and systems within an organization?

a)

Organizational Goals and Strategies

b)

Internal Communication

c)

Processes and Systems

d)

Organizational Resources

66.

Which internal force refers to the channels and methods used for sharing and exchanging information within the organization?

a)

Organizational Culture

b)

Stakeholder Relationships

c)

Internal Communication

d)

Leadership and Management

67.

What represents the tangible and intangible assets that an organization possesses?

a)

Processes and Systems

b)

Organizational Goals and Strategies

c)

Organizational Resources

d)

Organizational Structure

68.

Who is responsible for guiding and directing the organization?

a)

Human Resources

b)

Organizational Culture

c)

Leadership and Management

d)

Stakeholder Relationships

69.

Which internal force represents the desired outcomes and the plans adopted to achieve them?

a)

Organizational Goals and Strategies

b)

Processes and Systems

c)

Stakeholder Relationships

d)

Internal Communication

70.

What is crucial for organizational success and involves leveraging strengths, addressing weaknesses, fostering a positive culture, and aligning resources and processes?

a)

Internal Communication

b)

Organizational Structure

c)

Organizational Goals and Strategies

d)

Understanding and managing the internal environment

71.

1.     Which of the following best describes the global environment?(3.3)

a)

Internal forces and conditions that impact organizational performance.

b)

External forces and conditions that impact organizational performance.

c)

  Internal forces and conditions that impact global markets.

d)

External forces and conditions that impact global markets.

72.

What do economic forces include?

a)

Suppliers and competitors

b)

Demographic factors and population characteristics

c)

Inflation rates and exchange rates

d)

Industry deregulation and government stability

73.

What role do distributors play within the task environment?

a)

They provide input resources to organizations.

b)

They control market access for organizations.

c)

They compete with organizations for customers.

d)

They influence government laws and regulations.

74.

Which of the following forces arise from the government?

a)

Political and legal forces

b)

Economic forces

c)

Sociocultural forces

d)

Technological forces

75.

The general environment includes which of the following forces?

a)

Suppliers, customers, distributors, and competitors

b)

Political, economic, sociocultural, technological, legal, and natural-environmental forces

c)

Raw materials, components, and production processes

d)

Industry-specific forces and market trends

76.

Which forces arise from a country's social structure and national culture?

a)

Political and legal forces

b)

Economic forces

c)

Sociocultural forces

d)

Technological forces

77.

How do technological forces impact business operations?

a)

They facilitate quick responses to changes and customer demands.

b)

They control market access for organizations.

c)

They provide input resources to organizations.

d)

  They influence government laws and regulations.

78.

Which environment consists of the forces and conditions that directly affect an organization's ability to acquire inputs and distribute outputs?

a)

General environment

b)

  Task environment

c)

Macroenvironment

d)

Microenvironment

79.

What do natural-environmental forces encompass?

a)

Changes in government laws and regulations

b)

Advancements in technology

c)

  Legislation for environmental protection and clean initiatives

d)

Demographic factors and population characteristics

80.

Which of the following statement is wrong for understanding the global environment crucial for organizations?

a)

To comply with government regulations.

b)

To identify key customers and produce desired goods and services.

c)

To analyze market trends and competition.

d)

To analyze the financial situation of the organization.

81.

1) What is the purpose of boundary spanning for managers:(test)

a)


To monitor and gather information about potential impacts on the organization's future.

b)

To establish effective communication channels within the organization.

c)

To enforce organizational policies and procedures.

d)


To coordinate activities between different departments.

82.

2) What are some examples of tangible elements in the internal environment:

a)


Economic conditions and market trends

b)


Equipment, machinery, and financial resources

c)


Government regulations and policies

d)

Social media platforms and consumer behavior

83.

3) Why are human resources considered the most asset of an organization:

a)

Because they determine the level of professionalization and supervision

b)


Because they guide the ethical beliefs of the organization

c)


Because the success or failure of the organization heavily relies on them

d)


Because they shape the company's future position

84.

4) Which of the following is an example of an internal environment?:

a)

Economic recession

b)

New entrants

c)

Employees’ competency

d)

Competition

85.

5) Money, types of machinery, facilities, and real estate are …………. of an organization:

a)

physical resources

b)

intangible resources

c)

strengths

d)


weaknesses

86.

6) All the following are forces in the task environment except:

a)


distributors.

b)

competitors

c)

customers.

d)


economic factors.

87.

7) Which of the following are not part of general environmental factors for an organization:

a)

Customer loyalty decrease

b)

Poor performance from upper management

c)

Tax rate

d)


Exchange rate

88.

8) Age, gender, ethnic origin, race, sexual orientation, structure of population belongs to ………:

a)

demographic forces.

b)


tangible forces.

c)


economic forces

d)


intangible forces.

89.

9) Waste management, and disposal, clean air, and water, and energy-saving technologies are ………… in the external environment:

a)


legal forces

b)


natural-environmental forces

c)

technical forces

d)

political forces

90.

10) Examining external factors is to :

a)

identify an organization’s competitive advantages.

b)

identify an organization’s strengths and weaknesses.

c)

identify an organization’s capacities.

d)

identify an organization’s opportunities and threats.

91.

1.     The purpose of planning in management does NOT include ......................

(4.1 Fundamentals of Planning)

a)

Assessing an organization's current state.

b)

Defining a desired future state.

c)

Identifying the optimal approach to achieving goals.

d)

Teaching newly hired staff members how to become a part of the organization.

92.

What is the role of managers in effective planning?

a)

a.     Accurately predicting the future.

b)

b.     Adapting to the unpredictable external environment.

c)

c.     Assessing an organization's current state.

d)

d.     Defining a desired future state.

93.

Managers must establish the organization's current position by ..........................

a)

a.     Defining the organization's future state.

b)

b.     Establishing goals.

c)

c.     Evaluating internal strengths and weaknesses.

d)

d.     Considering market trends.

94.

What is a key requirement for planning to be effective in the face of an uncertain external environment?

a)

a.     Accurate predictions by managers.

b)

b.     Continuous monitoring and adjustments.

c)

c.     Simplification of the external environment.

d)

d.     Reduction of risk factors.

95.

What is one primary reason for the importance of planning in organizations?

a)

Setting objectives.

b)

Developing strategies.

c)

Identifying necessary resources.

d)

Achieving goals.

96.

What is a key benefit of planning in terms of resource utilization?

a)

  Identifying areas where resources are most needed.

b)

Minimizing risks.

c)

Promoting innovation.

d)

Increasing productivity.

97.

  What are the three levels of planning in organizations?

a)

  Corporate, business, and departmental

b)

Corporate, functional, and operational

c)

Business, functional, and operational

d)

Strategic, tactical, and operational

98.

8.     What is the purpose of the corporate-level plan?

a)

Establishing long-term goals for each division

b)

Outlining the organization's overall strategy

c)

Developing functional-level plans

d)

Creating competitive advantage through cost leadership

99.

How are functional goals and strategies related to divisional goals and strategies?

a)

They are unrelated and independent.

b)

They are aligned and reinforce each other.

c)

Functional goals override divisional goals.

d)

Divisional strategies determine functional goals.

100.

What ensures the alignment and coherence of activities across different levels of the organization?

a)

Corporate goals and strategies

b)

Functional-level plans

c)

Divisional goals and strategies

d)

The harmonious operation of activities

101.

1.     Which of the following elements is NOT in strategic planning?

(4.2 Strategic planning)

a)

Defining direction and setting goals.

b)

Making informed decisions.

c)

Allocating resources.

d)

Leading teamwork effectively.

102.

Which step of the strategic planning process involves defining the organization's direction and purpose?

a)

Step 1: Establishing Vision, Mission, Core Values, and Goals.

b)

Step 2: Formulating a Strategy.

c)

Step 3: Implementing the Strategy.

d)

None of the above steps.

103.

Which step of the strategic planning process involves analyzing the internal and external environments?

a)

Step 1: Establishing Vision, Mission, Core Values, and Goals.

b)

  Step 2: Formulating a Strategy.

c)

Step 3: Implementing the Strategy.

d)

None of the above steps.

104.

What is the purpose of Step 3: Implementing the Strategy in the strategic planning process?

a)

Defining the organization's vision, mission, core values, and goals.

b)

Analyzing the internal and external environments.

c)

Allocating resources and executing initiatives.

d)

Evaluating the results and adjustments.

105.

What is the purpose of an organization's vision statement?

a)

  To define its core values.

b)

To outline its purpose and customers served.

c)

To describe its ideal future state.

d)

To guide decision-making.

106.

Which component of an organization's statement establishes its identity and provides a framework for decision-making?

a)

  Vision

b)

Mission

c)

Core values

d)

Goals

107.

What does the SMART tool stand for in goal setting?

a)

Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-bound

b)

Strategic, Measurable, Aligned, Resourceful, and Targeted

c)

Specific, Meaningful, Achievable, Realistic, and Timely

d)

Strategic, Measurable, Actionable, Relevant, and Time-bound

108.

8)   What is the purpose of conducting a SWOT analysis?

a)

  To identify internal strengths and opportunities

b)

To evaluate external threats and weaknesses

c)

To guide strategic decision-making

d)

To assess overall organizational performance

109.

Which strategy emphasizes being the lowest-cost producer or provider in the industry?

a)

Differentiation

b)

Cost leadership

c)

Focus

d)

Product development

110.

What strategy involves concentrating on a specific market segment or niche?

a)

Differentiation

b)

Cost leadership

c)

Focus

d)

Market expansion

111.

Which functional strategy focuses on activities related to promoting and selling products or services?

a)

Marketing strategy

b)

Operational strategy

c)

  Financial strategy

d)

  Human resources strategy

112.

1) Which function is NOT involved in planning: (test)

a)

Identifying the optimal approach to achieve goals.

b)


Defining a desired future state.

c)

Assessing an organization's current state.

d)


Controlling the implementation of plans.

113.

Which of the following is considered an external factor in a SWOT analysi:

a)

Company culture

b)


Employee skills

c)


Market trends

d)

Production efficiency

114.

What is a strategy that focuses on offering unique features or attributes to target customers:

a)


Focus.

b)

Cost leadership.

c)

Differentiation.

d)

Market expansion.

115.

What do core values represent in an organization:

a)

Its ideal future state.

b)

Its strategic goals and objectives.

c)


Its purpose and customers served.

d)


Its ethical standards and beliefs.

116.

What factors should managers consider when defining the organization's future state:

a)

Competitive landscape and market trends.

b)

Opportunities and threats.

c)

Mission, vision, and core values.

d)


Evaluating internal strengths and weaknesses.

117.

What is the crucial factor that determines the effectiveness of planning:

a)


Assessment of an organization's current state.

b)

Accurate prediction of the future.

c)

Adaptation to the unpredictable external environment.

d)


Identification of the optimal approach to achieve goals.

118.

Which component of the SMART tool ensures that goals are clear and well-defined:

a)

Achievable

b)

Measurable

c)

Specific

d)

Time-bound

119.

Which level of planning focuses on specific departments or functions within an organization:

a)


Operational planning.

b)


Departmental or functional planning.

c)


Business or division planning.

d)

Corporate planning.

120.

How does planning facilitate decision-making in organizations:

a)

Maximizing impact.

b)


Setting objectives and goals.

c)


Allocating resources efficiently.

d)


Reducing uncertainty and ambiguity.

121.

Where does strategy formulation typically occur for the overall organization's direction and scope?:

a)

Tactical level

b)

Functional level

c)


Corporate level

d)

Business unit level

122.

1.     Organizational structure involves the division and coordination of:

(5.1 Organizational structure)

a)

Tasks, roles, and responsibilities

b)

Employee compensation and benefits

c)

Marketing strategies and advertising campaigns

d)

Company profits and financial goals

123.

What can a well-designed organizational structure promote?

a)

Confusing communication.

b)

Inefficient operations.

c)

Effective collaboration among team members.

d)

Improving leadership skills can lead to better management of subordinates.

124.

What elements are NOT included in organizational structure?

a)

Hierarchy of positions.

b)

Flow of communication and decision-making.

c)

Distribution of resources and authority.

d)

Long-term strategic planning

125.

What does NOT organizational design involve?

a)

Creating job roles and responsibilities

b)

Allocating resources

c)

Coordinating activities within the organization

d)

Establishing long-term goals

126.

What is the goal of organizational design?

a)

To create an optimal structure and processes

b)

To achieve organizational objectives effectively

c)

  To allocate resources efficiently

d)

To establish job roles and responsibilities

127.

How does organizational design impact company operations?

a)

By creating a new structure and processes

b)

By improving customer satisfaction

c)

By increasing employee productivity

d)

By enhancing workplace diversity

128.

What is one benefit of effective organizational design?

a)

Higher employee retention rates

b)

Increased market share

c)

Reduced production costs

d)

Improved product quality

129.

8.     Which of the following factors influence the design process of an organization?

a)

Organizational culture

b)

  Financial performance

c)

Marketing strategy

d)

Nature of the organizational environment

130.

   What is a key advantage of the functional organizational structure?

a)

Enhanced communication and coordination

b)

Flexibility to respond to market changes

c)

Strong focus on customer needs

d)

Efficient resource allocation

131.

What is a key advantage of the matrix organizational structure?

a)

Streamlined reporting relationships.

b)

Increased specialization and expertise.

c)

Clear authority and accountability.

d)

Cross-functional collaboration.

132.

1.     What is the primary objective of Human Resource Management (HRM)?

(5.2 Human Resource Management)

a)

To maximize profits.

b)

To coordinate and implement various practices that attract, retain, develop, and motivate employees.

c)

To increase the organization's market share.

d)

To reduce costs.

133.

Which of the following responsibilities falls under HRM?

a)

Managing financial resources.

b)

Developing marketing strategies.

c)

Recruiting and selecting employees.

d)

Designing production processes.

134.

What does HRM aim to achieve?

a)

Increase employee turnover.

b)

Decrease employee satisfaction.

c)

Utilize the organization's human resources effectively to achieve its goals.

d)

Limit employee growth opportunities.

135.

What is Strategic Human Resource Management (SHRM)?

a)

The process of recruiting and selecting employees

b)

The deliberate alignment of various HRM components with the organization's strategy and goals

c)

The process of training and developing employees

d)

The process of compensating and rewarding employees

136.

What are the fundamental building blocks of competitive advantage that SHRM aims to enhance?

a)

Efficiency, quantity, innovation, and customer responsiveness

b)

Quality, quantity, innovation, and customer satisfaction

c)

Efficiency, quality, innovation, and customer satisfaction

d)

Efficiency, quality, quantity, and customer satisfaction

137.

Which of the following is a major component of Strategic Human Resource Management (SHRM)?

a)

Marketing and advertising

b)

b.     Research and development

c)

c.     Recruitment and selection

d)

d.     Financial management

138.

What is the primary purpose of performance appraisal and feedback in SHRM?

a)

To assess employee performance based on market conditions.

b)

To provide constructive feedback for improvement.

c)

To determine employee benefits.

d)

To negotiate agreements and resolve disputes.

139.

8.     What is the role of labor relations in SHRM?

a)

To establish effective marketing strategies.

b)

To promote collaboration between management and employees.

c)

To design training and development programs.

d)

  To determine employee compensation and benefits.

140.

What is the significance of aligning the pay and benefits structure with the organization's strategic direction in SHRM?

a)

To ensure that employee benefits are determined by their affiliation with the organization.

b)

  To attract and retain candidates who possess the necessary skills and qualifications.

c)

To provide constructive feedback for performance improvement.

d)

To establish effective labor relations practices.

141.

What is the primary element of an employee's total compensation package?

a)

Sick leave

b)

Base salary

c)

Medical insurance coverage

d)

Retirement benefits

142.

1) What is the primary purpose of employee benefits: (test)

a)

To increase organizational profitability

b)

To reduce employee satisfaction

c)

To contribute to the employee's overall well-being and job satisfaction

d)

To align rewards with performance and market conditions

143.

What is a disadvantage of a divisional organizational structure:

a)

Reduced accountability.

b)

Unlimited knowledge sharing between divisions.

c)


Potential conflicts between divisions.

d)


Centralized decision-making.

144.

What does SHRM consider when aligning the HRM system with the overall organizational strategy?:

a)


The cost of implementing the HRM system.

b)

The number of HRM components that can be eliminated.

c)

The interconnectedness of various elements within the organizational architecture.

d)

The opinions of employees regarding the HRM system.

145.

What is the purpose of aligning rewards with performance and market conditions?:

a)


To increase the gap between executives and entry-level employees.

b)


To reduce employee satisfaction.

c)


To attract and retain top talent

d)


To decrease organizational profitability.

146.

How does the matrix structure facilitate resource utilization?:

a)


By streamlining reporting relationships.

b)


By reducing conflicts between managers.

c)

By promoting specialization and expertise.

d)

By allowing resource sharing across projects.

147.

What factor should an organization consider when determining its design process?:

a)


Competitive pricing.

b)

Employee satisfaction.

c)


Organizational values.

d)


Human resource availability.

148.

What is the purpose of coordinating activities within an organization?:

a)


To ensure efficient resource allocation.

b)

To establish job roles and responsibilities.

c)

To create an optimal structure and processes.

d)


To achieve organizational objectives effectively.

149.

8) What is the main advantage of a divisional organizational structure

a)


Limited knowledge sharing between divisions.

b)


Cost reduction.

c)

Centralized decision-making.

d)


Focus and accountability.

150.

What does organizational structure refer to:

a)

How to manage financial resources within an organization.

b)


How to market a product or service within an organization.

c)

How to divide and coordinate tasks, roles, and responsibilities within an organization.

d)


How to hire and fire employees within an organization.

151.

What is the primary objective of SHRM:

a)

To limit employee growth opportunities

b)


To increase employee turnover

c)


To align HRM components with the organization's strategy and goals

d)


To decrease organizational productivity

152.

1) What are the key elements of motivation: (test)

a)


Direction, effort, and persistence

b)


Environmental factors and social norms

c)

Intelligence, competency, creation

d)


Personal values, beliefs, and needs

153.

According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which need encompasses the desire for love, acceptance, and a sense of belonging?:

a)

Physiological needs

b)

Self-actualization needs

c)

Belongingness needs

d)

Safety needs

154.

Who focuses on creating a vision and setting direction to influence and motivate others to achieve group or organizational goals:

a)

Lower level

b)

Manager

c)

Both manager and leader equally

d)

Leader

155.

According to Vroom's expectancy theory, which component refers to the belief that effort will result in successful performance:

a)


Attitude

b)


Expectancy

c)


Instrumentality

d)


Valence

156.

According to Fiedler's Contingency Model, different leadership styles are effective in different.......................:

a)


Situations

b)


Industries

c)

Cultures

d)


Organizations

157.

Which type of motivation involves deriving satisfaction from the process of performing a task itself?:

a)

Extrinsic motivation

b)


Prosocial motivation

c)


Task motivation

d)


Intrinsic motivation

158.

According to the trait model of leadership, which of the following traits were NOT found to contribute to effective leadership:

a)


Self-confidence, high energy, and integrity.

b)

Empathy, easygoing, and decisiveness

c)

Intelligence, knowledge, and dominance.

d)

Tolerance for stress and maturity.

159.

What is the relationship between consideration, initiating structure behaviors, and leader effectiveness:

a)


Effective leaders consistently exhibit high levels of both behaviors

b)

Leader effectiveness depends solely on initiating structure behavior

c)

Effective leaders may not exhibit high levels of both behaviors.

d)


Ineffective leaders consistently display both behaviors.

160.

9) Fiedler's Contingency Model focuses on the relationship between a leader's style and .......................... characteristics:

a)


Situational

b)

Behavioral

c)

Individual

d)


Personality

161.

Which component of Bass's Transformational Leadership Theory involves recognizing and addressing the unique needs and strengths of individual followers:

a)


Intellectual Stimulation

b)

Inspirational Motivation

c)


Individualized Consideration

d)


Idealized Influence

162.

1.     Controlling is the process that managers ………… to achieve organizational goals.

(7.1 Controlling - Organizational control)

a)

monitor and evaluate the activities necessary.

b)

organize and check the activities necessary.

c)

lead and evaluate the activities necessary.

d)

plan and manage the activities necessary.

163.

Which of the following best defines controlling in the organizational context?

a)

Setting goals and objectives for the organization.

b)

Assessing and correcting work performance to achieve goals.

c)

Monitoring and evaluating the organization's effectiveness and efficiency.

d)

Identifying areas for improvement and making necessary changes.

164.

  What is the primary purpose of organizational control?

a)

Achieving organizational goals and objectives.

b)

Assessing the external environmental changes.

c)

  Improving employee motivation.

d)

Monitoring and evaluating work processes.

165.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four pillars of competitive advantage enhanced by organizational control?

a)

Efficiency

b)

Quality

c)

Responsiveness to customers

d)

Cost reduction

166.

Which technique used in organizational control is specifically aimed at enhancing quality?

a)

Total Quality Management (TQM).

b)

Control chart.

c)

Customer relationship management (CRM).

d)

Employee empowerment.

167.

What is one benefit of effective organizational control mentioned in the competitive advantage?

a)

  Increased employee empowerment.

b)

   Enhanced customer relationship management.

c)

Improved cost reduction measures.

d)

Fostered innovation.

168.

Which step of the control process involves establishing performance standards?

a)

Step 1: Evaluating Actual Performance

b)

Step 2: Establishing Performance Standards

c)

Step 3: Comparing Actual Performance to Standards

d)

Step 4: Taking Corrective Action as Needed

169.

8.     Which type of control focuses on measuring the actual outputs or results achieved by the organization?

a)

Output Control

b)

Behavioral Control

c)

Clan Control

d)

Feedback Control

170.

What is the purpose of comparing actual performance to standards in the control process?

a)

To establish performance benchmarks

b)

To identify areas for corrective action

c)

To evaluate employee behavior

d)

To measure customer satisfaction

171.

What is the final step in the control process?

a)

   Step 1: Establish Performance Standards

b)

Step 2: Evaluating Actual Performance

c)

Step 3: Comparing Actual Performance to Standards

d)

Step 4: Taking Corrective Action as Needed

172.

1.     Feed-forward control is primarily focused on:

(7.2 Type of control and control system)

a)

Obtaining customer feedback

b)

Monitoring the conversion process

c)

Anticipating potential problems

d)

Correcting issues in real-time

173.

What is the main purpose of concurrent control?

a)

To anticipate potential problems

b)

To monitor customer reactions

c)

To provide immediate feedback

d)

To adjust input materials

174.

Feedback control is implemented:

a)

Before a work activity takes place

b)

During the conversion process

c)

After a work activity is completed

d)

Throughout the control process

175.

Which of the following is NOT a type of financial measure commonly used in output control?

a)

Profit ratios

b)

Liquidity ratios

c)

Employee satisfaction ratios

d)

Activity ratios

176.

Which of the following is NOT a type of control involved in the Behavior Control system?

a)

Direct supervision

b)

Management by objectives

c)

Bureaucratic control

d)

Output control

177.

Which type of control in the Behavior Control system involves setting specific goals and objectives for employees to achieve?

a)

Direct supervision

b)

Management by objectives

c)

Bureaucratic control

d)

  Financial control

178.

   In clan control, high-level management is viewed as a:

a)

Supervisor

b)

Mentor

c)

Enforcer

d)

Dictator

179.

8.     What is the focus of clan control in an organization?

a)

Competition and individualism

b)

Rules and regulations

c)

Teamwork and employee consensus

d)

Financial performance and profitability

180.

Which type of control corresponds to the input stage of the control process?

a)

Feed-forward control

b)

Concurrent control

c)

Feedback control

d)

All of the above

181.

At which stage of the control process does concurrent control take place?

a)

Input stage

b)

Conversion stage

c)

Output stage

d)

None of the above

182.

1) The purpose of feedback control is to:

(TEST)

a)

Prevent potential problems.

b)

Monitor the conversion process.

c)


Correct issues in real-time.

d)

Adjust the output based on customer reactions.

183.

2) What is the role of organizational control in achieving competitive advantage:

a)


Increasing customer satisfaction

b)

Enhancing employee motivation

c)


Improving resource allocation

d)

Achieving superior efficiency, quality, responsiveness to customers, and innovation

184.

3) Which control system focuses on measuring the actual outputs or results achieved by the organization?:

a)

Concurrent control

b)


Behavior control

c)

Output control

d)

Clan control

185.

4) In the food industry, how can concurrent control be applied:

a)

By analyzing market trends

b)

By monitoring customer satisfaction

c)


By tasting dishes during preparation

d)


By adjusting input materials

186.

5) Concurrent control provides managers with immediate feedback on:

a)

Customer reactions

b)

Input materials

c)


Cost control activities

d)


Conversion efficiency

187.

6) Which control system involves monitoring and evaluating the actions, behaviors, and processes of employees within the organization:

a)


Clan control

b)


Feedback control

c)


Output control

d)


Behavior control

188.

7) Which of the following is NOT one of the four pillars of competitive advantage enhanced by organizational control:

a)


Efficiency

b)


Cost reduction

c)

Innovation

d)

Quality

189.

8) How does organizational control help in responding to external environmental changes?:

a)

By assessing the organization's effectiveness and efficiency

b)

By monitoring and evaluating work processes

c)

By capitalizing on opportunities and minimizing threats

d)

By setting goals and objectives for the organization

190.

9) Which of the following is NOT one of the four steps involved in the control process?:

a)

Taking corrective action as needed

b)


Evaluating actual performance

c)


Comparing actual performance to standards

d)

Establishing performance standards

191.

10) What is the purpose of comparing actual performance to standards in the control process?

a)

To identify areas for corrective action

b)


To measure customer satisfaction

c)

To evaluate employee behavior

d)


To establish performance benchmarks

192.

1) Conflict can arise in organizations when multiple managers, departments, or functions claim authority over the same activities or tasks. This conflict is primarily caused by:

(TEST - C8 - Communication in management)

a)

Scarce resources

b)

Different evaluation or reward systems

c)

Status inconsistencies

d)

Overlapping authority

193.

2) Intragroup conflict occurs within:

a)

Interpersonal relationships

b)

Different departments or teams

c)

Different organizations

d)

Government agencies

194.

3) How does effective communication contribute to organizational success?

a)

By improving efficiency and quality

b)


By hindering innovation and creativity

c)


By increasing employee turnover

d)

By creating barriers between managers and employees

195.

4) What is an essential aspect for managers to consider in order to foster effective communication?:

a)


Being biased and judgmental

b)


Avoiding active listening

c)

Encouraging feedback from employees

d)

Promoting a culture of exclusivity and mistrust

196.

5) What role does the receiver play in the communication process:

a)

Determining the medium of transmission

b)


Initiating the feedback loop

c)


Decoding and extracting the message's meaning

d)

Encoding the message

197.

6) What is the primary purpose of communication:

a)

To share information and achieve a common understanding.

b)


To create conflicts and misunderstandings.

c)


To enforce strict rules and regulations.

d)


To establish hierarchy within organizations.

198.

7) In a distributive negotiation, parties:

a)

Perceive a fixed pie of resources.

b)

Emphasize collaboration and compromise.

c)

Focus on problem-solving.

d)

Seek win-win outcomes.

199.

8) What does organizational conflict typically arise from:

a)


Identical goals and interests

b)

Complete alignment and harmony

c)


Contrasting goals, interests, values, or approaches

d)


Consensus and agreement

200.

9) Which conflict resolution strategy emphasizes teamwork, creativity, and finding win-win outcomes:

a)

Mediation

b)


Communication

c)

Collaboration

d)

Compromise

201.

10) Which phase of the communication process involves the sender determining the message and encoding it:

a)


Encoding phase

b)

Feedback phase

c)

Decoding phase

d)


Transmission phase

202.

1) What is the purpose of establishing group norms in managing effective groups and teams:

(TEST -C9- Team Management)

a)

To hinder innovation and critical thinking within the group.

b)

To provide shared guidelines for behavior that contribute to group performance.

c)


To discourage conformity and promote deviant behavior.

d)


To limit communication and collaboration among group members.

203.

2) What distinguishes formal teams from informal groups:

a)


Formal teams are established by managers, while informal groups emerge naturally.

b)


Formal teams have a loose structure, while informal groups have a clear purpose.

c)

Formal teams focus on innovation, while informal groups enhance performance.

d)


Formal teams require close collaboration, while informal groups rely on individual contributions.

204.

3) Which type of group is formed based on personal relationships and social interactions:

a)

Virtual Teams.

b)


Friendship Groups.

c)

Cross-Functional Teams.

d)

Command Groups.

205.

4) How can managers address instances of social loafing within groups?:

a)

Assign specific tasks and hold individuals accountable for their completion.

b)


Emphasize the value of collective efforts rather than individual contributions.

c)


Maintain larger group sizes to increase individual accountability.

d)

Encourage excessive conformity to ensure group cohesion.

206.

5) Which stage of group development is characterized by conflicts and power struggles:

a)

Forming.

b)


Storming.

c)


Norming.

d)

Performing.

207.

6) Which characteristic distinguishes teams from groups:

a)

Lack of collaboration.

b)

Similarities in expertise.

c)

Shared objective

d)


Individual contributions.

208.

7) What is the role of group leadership in managing effective groups and teams:

a)

Minimizing the involvement of team members in decision-making.

b)

Discouraging open dialogue and promoting groupthink.

c)


Facilitating communication and resolving conflicts.

d)


Avoiding personal and professional development.

209.

8) Which type of team consists of individuals from different functional areas or departments who come together to work on a specific project or solve a particular problem?:

a)


Cross-Cultural Teams.

b)

Cross-Functional Teams.

c)

Virtual Teams.

d)

Top Management Teams.

210.

9) Which type of team is specifically responsible for researching, designing, and creating new products or improving existing ones?:

a)

Research and Development Teams.

b)

Command Groups.

c)

Task Forces.

d)

Cross-Cultural Teams.

211.

10) What is the primary role of managers in fostering group cohesiveness:

a)

Organizing team-building activities and providing support.

b)


Discouraging open communication within the group.

c)

Promoting diverse perspectives and independent thinking.

d)


Implementing excessive conformity to prevent groupthink.

212.

1. What are the two key measurements of organizational performance and
management's main goals?
(THI MẪU)

a)

a. Innovation and profitability

b)

b. Efficiency and effectiveness

c)

c. Sustainability and customer satisfaction

d)

d. Productivity and employee satisfaction

213.

2. Which level of management is responsible for directly supervising employees
and their daily activities?
TM

a)

a. First-line managers

b)

b. Middle managers

c)

c. Top managers

d)

d. Executive managers

214.

3. Which of the following is NOT one of the Big Five Personality Traits?
TM

a)

a. Openness

b)

b. Conscientiousness

c)

c. Independence

d)

d. Neuroticism

215.

4. How can emotional intelligence benefit managers in their interactions with
team members?
TM

a)

a. Enhancing decision-making skills

b)

b. Increasing technical expertise

c)

c. Building stronger relationships and empathy

d)

d. Improving time management abilities

216.

5. What is the role of managers in navigating the managerial environment?
TM

a)

a. Implementing policies and regulations

b)

b. Monitoring and influencing the internal and external environments

c)

c. Establishing organizational culture

d)

d. Conducting market research

217.

6. Which of the following is NOT a component of the general environment?
TM

a)

a. Political forces

b)

b. Economic forces

c)

c. Task environment

d)

d. Technological forces

218.

7. What factors do managers consider when establishing the organization's
future state and goals?
TM

a)

a. Mission, vision, and core values

b)

b. Competitive threats and weaknesses

c)

c. Market demand and customer preferences

d)

d. Technical data and time constraints

219.

8. What is the responsibility of top or corporate managers in an organization?
TM

a)

a. Formulating functional-level plans

b)

. Developing business-level plans

c)

Implementing divisional strategies

d)

Creating the corporate-level plan

220.

9. According to Michael Porter, which of the following is an example of a
business-level strategy?
TM

a)

a. Concentration strategy

b)

b. Vertical integration

c)

c. International expansion

d)

d. Differentiation

221.

10. Why is it important to set SMART goals?
TM

a)

a. They provide a clear direction for the organization.

b)

b. They are easy to achieve.

c)

c. They allow for flexible timelines.

d)

d. They focus on abstract outcomes

222.

11. What does the SWOT framework assess in strategic analysis?
TM

a)

a. Internal strengths and opportunities

b)

Internal weaknesses and threats

c)

Internal strengths and weaknesses, and external opportunities and threats

d)

External opportunities and weaknesses

223.

12. What is the goal of organizational design?
TM

a)

To create a bureaucratic and rigid structure.

b)

To divide tasks and allocate resources randomly.

c)

To create an optimal structure and processes that allow the organization to
operate effectively and achieve its goals.

d)

To create a fixed structure that cannot be changed.

224.

13. What type of structure might managers choose if resources are abundant and
the environment is stable?
TM

a)

A flexible and entrepreneurial structure

b)

A formal and stable structure.

c)

A bureaucratic and rigid structure.

d)

A decentralized and autonomous structure

225.

14. What is the main advantage of the Matrix Organizational Structure?
TM

a)

Clear reporting relationships.

b)

Efficient resource utilization

c)

Specialization of tasks.

d)

Centralized decision-making.

226.

15. What is the primary goal of performance appraisal and feedback?
TM

a)

To assess employee skills and qualifications.

b)

To provide constructive feedback for improvement

c)

To determine employee compensation and benefits.

d)

To monitor employee attendance and punctuality.

227.

16. What is the main goal of aligning the recruitment and selection processes with
the organization's strategic goals?
TM

a)

To attract and hire candidates who possess the necessary skills, qualifications,
and cultural fit.

b)

To enhance the capabilities of members for future roles and challenges.

c)

To assess employee performance and contributions to the organization.

d)

To design training and development programs that align with the organization's
strategic objectives.

228.

17. Which type of power arises from a leader's personal qualities and charisma?
TM

a)

Legitimate Power.

b)

Reward Power.

c)

Coercive Power.

d)

Referent Power.

229.

18. Which leadership model considers how leader characteristics, behaviors, and
situations interact?
TM

a)

Trait Leadership.

b)

Behavior Leadership.

c)

Contingency Leadership.

d)

Transformational Leadership.

230.

19. What was the primary focus of early leadership research on traits and
behaviors?
TM

a)

Examining how leader characteristics, behaviors, and situations interact.

b)

Identifying personal characteristics of effective leaders.

c)

Analyzing the actions of ineffective leaders.

d)

Studying the impact of situational factors on leadership effectiveness.

231.

20. What distinguishes intrinsic motivation from extrinsic motivation?
TM

a)

Intrinsic motivation stems from external factors or rewards

b)

Extrinsic motivation arises from internal drive and satisfaction.

c)

Intrinsic motivation is based on external rewards.

d)

Extrinsic motivation is based on personal fulfillment.

232.

21. What is the expectancy component of the expectancy theory?
TM

a)

The belief that performance will result in specific outcomes.

b)

The perceived value or desirability of the outcome.

c)

The belief that effort will translate into successful performance.

d)

The level of motivation to engage in a behavior.

233.

22. What is the second step in the control process?
TM

a)

Establishing performance standards.

b)

Evaluating actual performance.

c)

Comparing actual performance to standards.

d)

Taking corrective action.

234.

23. What is the purpose of taking corrective action in the control process?
TM

a)

To compare actual performance with standards.

b)

To establish performance standards.

c)

To evaluate actual performance.

d)

To address deviations and bring performance back on track.

235.

24. What is the purpose of feed-forward control in the control process?
TM

a)

To provide managers with immediate feedback on the conversion process.

b)

To obtain information about customers' reactions to goods or services.

c)

To anticipate potential problems before they occur during the conversion
process.

d)

To monitor and adjust the conversion process as needed

236.

25. What is the purpose of feedback control in the control process?
TM

a)

To monitor and adjust the conversion process as needed.

b)

To anticipate potential problems before they occur during the conversion
process.

c)

To provide managers with immediate feedback on the conversion process.

d)

To obtain information about customers' reactions to goods or services.

237.

26. What are the three main types of control systems in organizational
management?
TM

a)

Input control, conversion control, and feedback control.

b)

Feed-forward control, concurrent control, and feedback control.

c)

Output control, behavior control, and clan control.

d)

Quality control, cost control, and progress control.

238.

27. Which of the following is a key aspect of perception in communication?
TM

a)

The medium used to transmit the message.

b)

The sender's encoding of the message.

c)

The receiver's decoding of the message.

d)

Personal biases and preconceived notions that affect message interpretation.

239.

28. How do nonverbal cues impact the communication process?
TM

a)

They have no impact on the interpretation of verbal messages.

b)

They convey emotions, attitudes, and intentions.

c)

They are not important in conveying messages.

d)

They can only convey meaning when used in combination with verbal
communication.

240.

29. How can managers reduce social loafing in group settings?
TM

a)

By creating a large group size that encourages conformity.

b)

By ignoring individual contributions and focusing on group outcomes.

c)

By assigning specific tasks to group members and holding them accountable
for their completion.

d)

By emphasizing that individual contributions are not essential to the group's
success.

241.

30. What is group cohesiveness in managing effective groups and teams?
TM

a)

The extent to which members are attracted to and bonded with the group.

b)

The number of members in a group.

c)

The level of competition among group members.

d)

The degree of conflict among group members.