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ISTQB Foundation Test

Total questions: 109

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:

a)

Each testing stage has a different purpose

b)

It is easier to manage testing by each stage

c)

We can perform different tests in different environments

d)

The more stages, the better the testing

2.

Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?

a)

Regression testing

b)

Integration testing

c)

System testing

d)

User acceptance testing

3.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

a)

A minimal test set that achives 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage

b)

A minimal test set that achives 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage

c)

A minimal test set that achives 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one achieves 100% statement coverage

d)

A minimal test set that achives 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one achieves 100% branch coverage

4.

Analyze the following highly simplified procedure:

Ask: "What type of ticket do you require, single or return?"
IF the customer wants 'return'
Ask: "What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?"
IF the customer replies 'Cheap-day'
Say: "That will be $11:20"
ELSE
Say: "That will be $19:50"
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: "That will be $9:75"
ENDIF

Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

5.

Error guessing:

a)

Supplements formal test design techniques

b)

Can only be used in component, integration and system testing

c)

Is only performed in user acceptance testing

d)

Is not repeatable and should not be used

6.

A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following

i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities

a)

i, ii, iii are true and iv is false

b)

i, iii, iv are true and ii is false

c)

ii, iii are true and i, iv is false

d)

i, ii are true and iii, iv is false

7.

Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?

a)

Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite

b)

A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered

c)

A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found

d)

Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria

8.

In prioritizing what to test the most important objective is to:

a)

Find as many faults as possible

b)

Test high risk areas

c)

Obtain good test coverage

d)

Test whatever is easiest to test

9.

Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?

v - test control
w - test monitoring
x - test estimation
y - incident management
z - configuration control
1 - calculation of required test resources
2 - maintenance of record of test results
3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous test results

a)

v-3, w-2, x-1, y-5, z- 4

b)

v-2, w-5, x-1, y-4, z- 3

c)

v-3, w-4, x-1, y-5, z- 2

d)

v-2, w-1, x-4, y-3, z- 5

10.

Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?

a)

System tests are often performed by independent teams

b)

Functional testing is used more than structural testing

c)

Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix

d)

End-users should be involved in system tests

11.

Which of the following is false?

a)

Incidents should always be fixed

b)

An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ

c)

Incidents can be analyzed to assist in test process improvement

d)

An incident can be raised against documentation

12.

Enough testing has been performed when:

a)

Time runs out

b)

The required level of confidence has been achieved

c)

No more faults are found

d)

The users won't find any serious faults

13.

Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?

a)

Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test

b)

Incidents may be raised against user requirements

c)

Incidents require investigation and/or correction

d)

Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ

14.

Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?

a)

Syntax testing

b)

Equivalence partitioning

c)

Stress testing

d)

Decision coverage

15.

Which of the following is false?

a)

In a system two different failures may have different severities

b)

A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault

c)

A fault need not affect the reliability of a system

d)

Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behavior

16.

Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?

a)

They are used to support multi-user testing

b)

They are used to capture and animate user requirements

c)

They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool

d)

They are capture aspects of user behavior

17.

How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?

a)

Metrics from previous similar projects

b)

Discussions with the development team

c)

Time allocated for regression testing

d)

a & b

18.

Which of the following is true of the V-model?

a)

It states that modules are tested against user requirements

b)

It only models the testing phase

c)

It specifies the test techniques to be used

d)

It includes the verification of designs

19.

The oracle assumption:

a)

Is that there is some existing system against which test output maybe checked

b)

Is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test

c)

Is that the tester knows everything about the software under test

d)

Is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers

20.

Which of the following characterizes the cost of faults?

a)

They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases

b)

They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then

c)

Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then

d)

Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then

21.

Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?

a)

To find faults in the software

b)

To assess whether the software is ready for release

c)

To demonstrate that the software doesn't work

d)

To prove that the software is correct

22.

Which of the following is a form of functional testing?

a)

Boundary value analysis

b)

Usability testing

c)

Performance testing

d)

Security testing

23.

Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?

a)

Features to be tested

b)

Incident reports

c)

Risks

d)

Schedule

24.

Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?

a)

Test management

b)

Test design

c)

Test execution

d)

Test planning

25.

Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?

a)

Statement testing

b)

Path testing

c)

Data flow testing

d)

State transition testing

26.

Data flow analysis studies

a)

Possible communications bottlenecks in a program

b)

The rate of change of data values as a program executes

c)

The use of data on paths through the code

d)

The intrinsic complexity of the code

27.

In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:

An employee has $4000 of salary tax free. The next $1500 is taxed at 10%
The next $28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole dollar, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

a)

$1,500

b)

$32,001

c)

$33,501

d)

$28,000

28.

An important benefit of code inspections is that they:

a)

Enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready

b)

Can be performed by the person who wrote the code

c)

Can be performed by inexperienced staff

d)

Are cheap to perform

29.

Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts

a)

Actual results

b)

Program specification

c)

User requirements

d)

System specification

30.

What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?

a)

An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator

b)

An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader

c)

Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs

d)

A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator

31.

Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?

a)

It allows the identification of changes in user requirements

b)

It facilitates timely set up of the test environment

c)

It reduces defect multiplication

d)

It allows tester to become involved early in the project

32.

Integration testing :

a)

Tests the individual components that have been developed

b)

Tests interactions between modules or subsystems

c)

Only uses components that form part of the live system

d)

Tests interfaces to other systems

33.

Static analysis is best described as:

a)

The analysis of batch programs

b)

The reviewing of test plans

c)

The analysis of program code

d)

The use of black box testing

34.

Alpha testing is

a)

Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer's site

b)

The first testing that is performed

c)

Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer's site

d)

Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their site

35.

A failure is:

a)

Found in the software; the result of an error

b)

Departure from specified behavior

c)

An incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program

d)

A human action that produces an incorrect result

36.

In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:

An employee has $4000 of salary tax free. The next $1500 is taxed at 10%
The next $28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?

a)

$4800; $14000; $28000

b)

$5200; $5500; $28000

c)

$28001; $32000; $35000

d)

$5800; $28000; $32000

37.

The most important thing about early test design is that it:

a)

Makes test preparation easier

b)

Means inspections are not required

c)

Can prevent fault multiplication

d)

Will find all faults

38.

Which of the following statements about reviews is false?

a)

Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications

b)

Reviews are the least effective way of testing code

c)

Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans

d)

Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans

39.

Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?

i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.

a)

i, ii, iii are true and iv false

b)

i, iii, iv are true and ii false

c)

i, ii are true and iii, iv false

d)

ii,iii,iv are true and i false

40.

A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:

a)

Linkage of customer requirements to version numbers

b)

Facility to compare test results with expected results

c)

The precise differences in versions of software component source code

d)

Restrict access to the source code library

41.

Which of the following is the odd one out?

a)

White box

b)

Glass box

c)

Structural

d)

Functional

42.

In an Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks in order to clear the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student clears the exam.

a)

22-23-26

b)

21-39-40

c)

23-24-41

d)

0-15-22

43.

Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase:

a)

Test Analysis and Design

b)

Test Planning and control

c)

Test Implementation and execution

d)

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

44.

Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases are :

a)

Designed by persons who write the software under test

b)

Designed by a person from a different unit/group in the same organization

c)

Designed by a person from a different organization

d)

Designed by another person

45.

We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing

a)

User Acceptance Test Cases

b)

Integration Level Test Cases

c)

Unit Level Test Cases

d)

Program specifications

46.

Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

a)

Component testing

b)

Non-functional system testing

c)

User acceptance testing

d)

Maintenance testing

47.

Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another related or unrelated software component:

a)

Re-Testing

b)

Confirmation Testing

c)

Regression Testing

d)

Negative Testing

48.

Functional system testing is:

a)

Testing that the system functions with other systems

b)

Testing that the components that comprise the system functions together

c)

Testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole

d)

Testing the system performs functions within specified response times

49.

The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following

a)

Explaining the objective

b)

Fixing defects found typically done by author

c)

Follow up

d)

Individual Meeting preparations

50.

Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:

i. Hi-level design
ii. Code
iii. Low-level design
iv. Business requirements

a Unit tests
b Acceptance tests
c System tests
d Integration tests

a)

i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b

b)

i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

c)

i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c

d)

i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b

51.

Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?

a)

State transition testing

b)

LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)

c)

Syntax testing

d)

Boundary value analysis

52.

Success Factors for a review include:

i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective
ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively
iii. Management supports a good review process.
iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.

a)

ii, iii, iv are correct and i is incorrect

b)

iii, i, iv are correct and ii is incorrect

c)

i, iii, iv, ii is in correct

d)

ii is incorrect

53.

Defects discovered by static analysis tools include 

i. Variables that are never used.
ii. Security vulnerabilities.
iii. Programming Standard Violations
iv. Uncalled functions and procedures

a)

i, ii, iii, iv is correct

b)

iii is correct (No Suggestions) are incorrect

c)

i, ii, iii and iv are incorrect

d)

iv, ii is correct

54.

Test Conditions are derived from

a)

Specifications

b)

Test Cases

c)

Test Data

d)

Test Design

55.

Which of the following is true about White and Black Box Testing Technique:

a)

Equivalence partitioning, Decision Table and Control flow are White box Testing Techniques

b)

Equivalence partitioning, Boundary Value Analysis, Data Flow are Black Box Testing Techniques

c)

Equivalence partitioning, State Transition, Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques

d)

Equivalence partitioning, State Transition, Use Case Testing and Decision Table are White Box Testing Techniques

56.

Benefits of Independent Testing

a)

Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers

b)

Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased

c)

Independent testers cannot identify defects

d)

Independent testers can test better than developers

57.

Minimum Tests Required for 100% Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage:

Read P
Read Q
If P+Q > 100 then
Print "Large"
End if
If P > 50 then
Print "pLarge"
End if

a)

Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2

b)

Statement coverage is 3 and branch Coverage is 2

c)

Statement coverage is 1 and branch Coverage is 2

d)

Statement coverage is 4 and branch Coverage is 2

58.

Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage:

Disc = 0
Order-qty = 0
Read Order-qty
If Order-qty >=20 then
Disc = 0.05
If Order-qty >=100 then
Disc =0.1
End if
End if

a)

Statement coverage is 4

b)

Statement coverage is 1

c)

Statement coverage is 3

d)

Statement coverage is 2

59.

The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as:

a)

Anomaly Report

b)

Defect Report

c)

Test Defect Report

d)

Test Incident Report

60.

Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader

i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing
iii. Decide what should be automated , to what degree and how.
iv. Create the Test Specifications

a)

i, ii, iii is true and iv is false

b)

ii, iii, iv is true and i is false

c)

i is true and ii, iii, iv are false

d)

iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

61.

Features of White Box Testing Technique:

i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to select the test data.
ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program.
iii. Checking for the performance of the application
iv. Also checks for functionality.

a)

i, ii are true and iii and iv are false

b)

iii is true and i, ii, iv are false

c)

ii, iii is true and i, iv is false

d)

iii and iv are true and i, ii are false

62.

Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities?

i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered
ii. Defect report analysis.
iii. Finalizing and archiving testware.
iv. Analyzing lessons.

a)

i, ii, iv are true and iii is false

b)

i, ii, iii are true and iv is false

c)

i, iii, iv are true and ii is false

d)

All of above are true

63.

Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing:

a)

The goal/purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works

b)

The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free

c)

The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do

d)

Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects

64.

Component Testing is also called as:

i. Unit Testing
ii. Program Testing
iii. Module Testing
iv. System Component Testing .

a)

i, ii, iii are true and iv is false

b)

i, ii, iii, iv are false

c)

i, ii, iv are true and iii is false

d)

All of above is true

65.

Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?

a)

Top down

b)

Big-bang

c)

Bottom up

d)

Functional increment

66.

Drivers are also known as:

i. Spade
ii. Test harness
iii. Scaffolding

a)

i, ii are true and iii is false

b)

i, iii are true and ii is false

c)

ii, iii are true and i is false

d)

All of the above are true

67.

Exit Criteria may consist of:

i. Thoroughness measures , such as coverage of code, functionality or risk
ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures.
iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas
iv. Verifying the Test Environment.

a)

iv is correct and i, ii, iii are incorrect

b)

i, ii, iii is correct and iv is incorrect

c)

ii is correct and i, iii, iv are incorrect

d)

iii and iv are correct and i, ii are incorrect

68.

Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress:

i. Percentage of Test Case Execution
ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation.
iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed
iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers

a)

iv is correct and i, ii, ii are incorrect

b)

i, ii, iii are correct and iv is incorrect

c)

i, ii are correct and iii, iv are incorrect

d)

i, iv are correct and ii, iii are incorrect

69.

The selection of a test approach should consider the context:

i. Risk of Failure of the Project, hazards to the product and risks of product failure to humans
ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools and methods
iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team.
iv. The size of the testing Team

a)

i, ii, iii, iv are true

b)

ii, iii, iv are true and i is false

c)

i, ii, iii are true and iv is false

d)

i, iv are true and ii, iii are false

70.

In case of Large Systems:

a)

Only few tests should be run

b)

Testing should be on the basis of Risk

c)

Only Good Test Cases should be executed

d)

Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed

71.

The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is called as

a)

Configuration Control

b)

Status Accounting

c)

Configuration Identification

d)

Test Planning

72.

Link Testing is also called as

a)

Component Integration Testing

b)

Component System Testing

c)

Component Sub System Testing

d)

Maintenance testing

73.

An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004.The boundary values for testing this field are:

a)

0-1900-2004-2005

b)

1900-2004

c)

1899-1900-2004-2000

d)

1899-1900 1901-2003 2004-2005

74.

Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression test?

a)

Data tester

b)

Boundary tester

c)

Capture/Playback

d)

Output comparator

75.

Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?

a)

Functionality

b)

Usability

c)

Supportability

d)

Maintainability

76.

To test a function: the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data.

a)

Stub

b)

Driver

c)

Proxy

d)

None of the above

77.

Fault Masking is

a)

Error condition hiding another error condition

b)

Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

c)

Masking a fault by developer

d)

Masking a fault by tester

78.

One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is:

a)

Lack of technical documentation

b)

Lack of test tools on the market for developers

c)

Lack of training

d)

Lack of Objectivity

79.

Given the Following program

IF X = Z
THEN Statement 2;
END
McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is:

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

80.

Verification involves which of the following:

i. Helps to check the Quality of the built product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.

a)

Options i, ii, iii, iv are true

b)

i is true and ii, iii, iv are false

c)

i, ii, iii are true and iv is false

d)

ii is true and i, ii, iv are false

81.

You need to know how your system might respond to large numbers of simulate users. Which of the following tool sets may be the most useful for this purpose?

a)

Test replay tool and bug tracking tool

b)

Static analysis tool and capture/ playback tool

c)

Test design tool and requirements capture tool

d)

Load tool and monitoring tool

82.

Questions about " Test Management" : What is a typical task for a tester?

a)

Plan the tests

b)

Write a test strategy

c)

Write test summary reports

d)

Review tests developed by others

83.

Priorities your tests to:

a)

Get the areas the programmer is most worried about finished first

b)

Get finished within the time and budget available

c)

Ensure that when you stop you have done the best tests in the time available

d)

To ensure as many tests as possible are run

84.

Which one of the following examples describes a typical benefit of static analysis supported by tools?

a)

Static analysis supported by tools prevents business analysts and requirement engineers building software models (e.g. state transition diagrams), which do not match the requirements

b)

Static analysis supported by tools may find defects prior to manual test execution

c)

By using static analysis tools user acceptance testing can be shortened because the users need to execute less tests

d)

By performing static analysis of the code supported by tools the need for the developers doing unit testing is decreased

85.

In a boiler maintenance logging and booking control system, the code to decide whether the boiler is due for a service and add it to the list is written as:
If today-date-last-service-date > 15 months
Then add boiler-number to service-listing-report
Endif
How many tests to give 100% statement coverage and tests to give 100% decision coverage?

a)

1 statement test and 4 decision tests

b)

2 statement tests and 4 decision tests

c)

1 statement test and 3 decision tests

d)

1 statement test and 2 decision tests

86.

Which of the following is a black-box testing technique?

a)

Condition Testing

b)

Multiple Condition Testing

c)

Statement Testing

d)

State Transition Testing

87.

What state about static analysis is true. . .

a)

Compiling is not a form of static analysis

b)

When properly performed, it makes functional testing redundant

c)

With static analysis defects can be found, that are difficult to find with dynamic testing

d)

Will find all defects

88.

Questions about : "Dynamic testing"

A specification says: "If the fossil is Jurassic in origin then it must be catalogued under Mesozoic post Triassic and cross referred to oolitic limestone. If it is a tooth, then it must be catalogued under Dental remains".
The tester analyses this for decision table testing and finds the following conditions and actions:

C1 : Jurassic
C2: tooth
Al : Catalogue as Mesozoic post Triassic
A2: Cross refer to oolitic limestone
A3: Catalogue as Dental remains
The decision table will have many test cases?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

8

d)

16

89.

What should testing be focused on?

a)

The defined testing objectives

b)

Finding as many defects as possible

c)

Meeting the project deadlines

d)

Giving confidence that the system will work for the users

90.

Place the stages of the Fundamental test process in the usual order (by time)

a)

Test closure activities

b)

Analysis and design

c)

Planning and control

d)

Implementation and execution

91.

For the same case, using equivalence partitioning which three values fall in the same partition?

a)

5600, 28000, 7800

b)

2800, 4200, 4800

c)

3000, 4500

d)

28000, 50000, 60000

92.

Which of the following is a test level?

a)

Functional testing

b)

System testing

c)

Testing of software structure

d)

Non-functional testing

93.

Of the following activities, which is the least important within test management?

a)

Test estimation

b)

Test planning

c)

Defect fixing

d)

Test control

94.

Below you find a list of improvement goals a software development and test organization would like to achieve. Which of these goals for improving the efficiency of test activities would best be supported by a test management tool?

a)

Improve the efficiency by building traceability between requirements, tests, and defects

b)

Improve the efficiency by optimizing the ability of tests to identify failures

c)

Improve the efficiency by faster resolving defects

d)

Improve the efficiency by automating the selection of test cases for execution

95.

One of the exit criteria for the project is 100% decision coverage...The following 3 tests have been executed for the control flow graph below.

Test A covers path: A, B, D, F, G

Test B covers path: A, C, F, G

Test C covers path: A, C, F, C, F, F, G

Which of the following statements related to the decision coverage goal is correct?(refer picture)

a)

100% decision coverage has been achieved

b)

Decision D has not been tested completely

c)

Decision E has not been tested completely

d)

Decision F not been tested completely

96.

Which of the following is a major task of test planning?

a)

Initiation of corrective action

b)

Measuring and analyzing results

c)

Determining the exit criteria

d)

Monitoring and documenting progress

97.

Match the following inspection roles and responsibilities . .

Roles

1 .Moderator , 2. Recorder , 3.Reviewer , 4. Manager

Responsibilities

i) The person chosen to represent a certain viewpoint

ii) The person who decide on the execution of inspections

iii) The person who leads the process

iv) The person who documents all the issues

a)

1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii

b)

1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii

c)

I-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii

d)

1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii

98.

Expected result for a test should not be derived from...

a)

The code, because that describes the system as it is

b)

The specification, because that describes the system as it should be

c)

A user with specialized knowledge about the use of the system, because that describes the system that is needed

d)

A test oracle, because that describes the system that is needed

99.

Which list typically describes the defects discovered by a static analysis tool?

a)

Programming standards violations, undefined variables, syntax violations

b)

Interface omissions, spelling defects, design flaws

c)

Non-user friendly error messaging, unreferenced variables

d)

Unused variables, incorrect warning messages, performance

100.

What is not part of the test execution phase?

a)

Logging test results

b)

Verify test environment

c)

Performing regression tests

d)

Reviewing the test basis

101.

The testing mind set is not one that...

a)

Looks for problems in product under test and tries to find defects

b)

Is self critical and looks for errors and defects in one's own work

c)

Is sensitive to others and diplomatic when giving and receiving criticism

d)

Looks only for tests that show the system works

102.

Which one of the following describes best the difference between testing and debugging?...

a)

Testing shows failures that are caused by defects. Debugging finds, analyzes, and removes that causes of failures in the software

b)

Testing find defects. Debugging analyzes the faults and proposes preventive activity..

c)

Testing removes faults. Debugging identifies the causes of failures

d)

Dynamic testing prevents causes of failures. Debugging removes the failures

103.

Questions about "Testing in the Software Lifecycle" 6. Which of these statements about maintenance testing is untrue?...

a)

Maintenance testing includes assessment of the risk of change

b)

Maintenance testing can be difficult if specifications are poor, missing or out of date

c)

Impact analysis can be difficult when assessing which regression tests to run

d)

Maintenance is easier than development, so maintenance testing is easier than development testing.

104.

Which of the following is a test type?

a)

Component testing

b)

Regression testing

c)

System testing

d)

Acceptance testing

105.

Which of the following is a not a quality characteristic?

a)

Feasibility

b)

Usability

c)

Portability

d)

Resource utilization

106.

What are good practices of testing within the development life cycle?

a)

Early test analysis and design

b)

Different test levels are defined with specific objectives

c)

Testers are involved in document reviews

d)

All of the above

107.

For a tax system the earnings up and until € 4000 are tax free, the following € 1500 are charged at 10% , the following € 28000 at 20% and the remainder above 40% All value are rounded to € 1. What test case could result from a boundary value analysis?

a)

1500

b)

33501

c)

4500

d)

28000

108.

What statement about reviews is true?

a)

Inspections are led by a trained moderator, where informal technical reviews not necessarily

b)

In a walkthrough the author does not attend

c)

A walkthrough will not have a separate scribe

d)

Technical reviews are led by a trained leader, inspections are not

109.

Which of the following is NOT a major factor for choosing test design technique?

a)

Type of system

b)

Regulatory requirements

c)

Risk level and type

d)

Test environment