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MP PE 25

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An unproved theory tentatively accepted to explain certain facts.

a)

Postulate

b)

Hypoallergenic

c)

Hypothesis

d)

Assumption

2.

Which one of the following contains only items which are considered fixed charges?

a)

Interest, taxes, amortization, insurance, rent

b)

Amortization, insurance, steam cost painting, cleaning

c)

Interest, taxes, replacements, labor for repairs

d)

Interest, taxes, rent, power cost, oil cost

3.

Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by the fail in the general price level.

a)

Devaluation

b)

Deflation

c)

Inflation

d)

Depreciation

4.

It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time.

a)

Annuity

b)

Debt

c)

Amortization

d)

Deposit

5.

In the equation E = mc2, c is

a)

The distance between the neutral axis to the outermost fiber.

b)

Einstein constant

c)

Speed of light

d)

Speed of sound

6.

A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there are no good substitute.

a)

Monopsony

b)

Oligopoly

c)

Monopoly

d)

Oligopsony

7.

It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the first payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment.

a)

Perpetuity

b)

Ordinary annuity

c)

Annuity due

d)

Deferred annuity

8.

The total income equals the total operating cost.

a)

Balanced sheet

b)

In-place value

c)

Check and balance

d)

Break even-no gain no loss

9.

Kind of obligation which has no condition attached.

a)

Analytic

b)

Pure

c)

Gratuitous

d)

Private

10.

Direct labor cost incurred in the factory and direct materials cost are the cost of all materials that go into production. The sum of these two direct cost is known as,

a)

GS and A expenses

b)

Operating and Maintenance Cost

c)

Prime cost

d)

O and M costs

11.

An index of short term paying ability is called,

a)

Receiving turn-over

b)

Profit margin ratio

c)

Current ratio

d)

Acid-test ratio

12.

An artificial expense that spreads the purchase price of an asset or another property over a number of years.

a)

Depreciation

b)

Sinking fund

c)

Amnesty

d)

Bond

13.

Estimated value at the end of the useful life.

a)

Market value

b)

Fair value

c)

Salvage value

d)

Book value

14.

Consists of the actual counting or determination of the actual quantity of the materials on hand as of a given date.

a)

Physical inventory

b)

Material update

c)

Technological assessment

d)

Material count

15.

An evil wrong committed by a person damage another person’s property or reputation is,

a)

Tort

b)

Material breach

c)

Negligence

d)

Fraud

16.

A series of uniform accounts over an infinite period of time.

a)

Depreciation

b)

Annuity

c)

Perpetuity

d)

Inflation

17.

The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given place and time.

a)

Demand

b)

Supply

c)

Stocks

d)

Goods

18.

The range of a projectile depends on,

a)

Initial velocity only

b)

Initial velocity and weight of the body

c)

Initial velocity and angle of projection

d)

Initial velocity, weight of the body and angle of projection

19.

What is the highest position in the corporation?

a)

President

b)

Board of Directors

c)

Chairman of the Board

d)

Stockholders

20.

Type of ownership in business where individuals exercise and enjoy the right in their own interest.

a)

Equitable

b)

Public

c)

Private

d)

Pure

21.

An unbalanced force acting on an object will cause the object to accelerate in the direction of the force. This is known as:

a)

Newton’s First Law

b)

Newton’s Second Law

c)

Newton’s Third Law

d)

Kepler’s Law

22.

An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of operating a business as co-owners for profit.

a)

Sole proprietorship

b)

Company

c)

Partnership

d)

Corporation

23.

We may classify an interest rate, which specifies the actual rate of interest on the principal for one year as,

a)

Nominal rate

b)

Rate of return

c)

Exact interest rate

d)

Effective rate

24.

Parties whose consent or signature in a contract is not considered intelligent.

a)

Dead persons

b)

Senior citizens

c)

Demented persons

d)

Minors

25.

The law which describes the motion of stars, planets and comets.

a)

Law of University Gravitation

b)

Newton’s Law of Motions

c)

Kepler’s Law

d)

Big Bang and Black Hole Theory

26.

It is the amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a property where each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.

a)

Fair value

b)

Market value

c)

Book value

d)

Salvage value

27.

This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors entering the market.

a)

Perfect competition

b)

Oligopoly

c)

Elastic demand

d)

Monopoly

28.

These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased it money is available after the required necessities have been obtained.

a)

Utilities

b)

Necessities

c)

Luxuries

d)

Product goods and services

29.

These are products or services that are required to support human life and activities, that will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity even though the price varies considerably.

a)

Utilities

b)

Necessities

c)

Luxuries

d)

Product goods and services

30.

A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product and that any action of one will lead to almost the same action of the others.

a)

Oligopoly

b)

Semi-monopoly

c)

Monopoly

d)

Perfect competition

31.

GATT stands for:

a)

General Agreement of Tariff and Trade

b)

General Arrangement of Tariff and Trade

c)

Global Agreement of Tariff and Trade

d)

General Arrangement of Tariff and Trade

32.

When one of the factors or production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase, increasing the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase in output.

a)

Law of diminishing return

b)

Law of Supply

c)

Law of Demand

d)

Law of Supply and Demand

33.

When free competition exists, the price of a product will be that value where supply is equal to the demand.

a)

Law of diminishing return

b)

Law of Supply

c)

Law of Demand

d)

Law of Supply and Demand

34.

The quantity of a certain commodity that is bought at a certain price at a given time and place.

a)

Demand

b)

Supply

c)

Market

d)

Utility

35.

The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given time and place.

a)

Demand

b)

Supply

c)

Utility

d)

Market

36.

It is the profit obtained by selling stocks at a higher price than its original purchase price.

a)

Debenture

b)

Goodwill

c)

Capital gain

d)

Internal rate of return

37.

A document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security.

a)

Bond

b)

Bank notes

c)

Coupon

d)

Check

38.

A saving which takes place because goods are not available for consumption rather than the consumer really want to save.

a)

Compulsory saving

b)

Consumer saving

c)

Forced saving

d)

All of these

39.

A residual value of a company’s assets after all outside liabilities (shareholders excluded) has been allowed for.

a)

Dividend

b)

Equity

c)

Return

d)

Per value

40.

It denotes the fall in the exchange rate of one currency in terms of others. The term usually applies to floating exchange rates.

a)

Currency appreciation

b)

Currency devaluation

c)

Currency float

d)

Currency depreciation

41.

The deliberate lowering of the price of a nation’s currency in terms of the accepted standard (Gold, American dollar or the British pound)

a)

Currency appreciation

b)

Currency devaluation

c)

Currency float

d)

Currency depreciation

42.

Any particular raw material or primary product (e.g cloth, wool, flour, coffee..) is called:

a)

Utility

b)

Necessity

c)

Commodity

d)

Stock

43.

It is a negotiable claim issued by a bank in lieu of a term deposit.

a)

Time deposit

b)

Bond

c)

Capital gain

d)

Certificate of deposit

44.

The reduction in the money value of a capital asset is called

a)

Capital expenditure

b)

Capital loss

c)

Loss

d)

Deficit

45.

An increased in the value of a capital asset is called:

a)

Profit

b)

Capital gain

c)

Capital expenditure

d)

Capital stock

46.

Land, buildings, plant and machinery are examples of.

a)

Current assets

b)

Trade investments

c)

Fixed assets

d)

Intangible assets

47.

Which is an example of an intangible asset?

a)

Cash

b)

Furniture

c)

Investment in subsidiary companies

d)

Patents

48.

Everything a company owns and which has a money value is classified as an asset. Which of the following is classified as an asset.

a)

Intangible assets

b)

Fixed assets

c)

Trade investments

d)

All of these

49.

A currency traded in a foreign exchange market for which the demand is consistently high in relation to its supply.

a)

Money market

b)

Hard currency

c)

Treasury bill

d)

Certificate of deposit

50.

To triple the principal, one must use.

a)

Integration

b)

Derivatives

c)

Logarithms

d)

Implicit functions

51.

The 72 rule of thumbs is used to determine,

a)

How many years money will triple.

b)

How many years money will be double.

c)

How many years to a mass 1 million.

d)

How many years to quadruple the money.

52.

An amount of money invested at 12% interest per annum will double in approximately,

a)

4 years

b)

5 years

c)

6 years

d)

7 years

53.

Bond to which are attached coupons indicating the interest due and the date when such interest is to be paid.

a)

Registered bond

b)

Coupon bond

c)

Mortgage bond

d)

Collateral trust bond

54.

A type of bond where the corporation’s owners name are recorded and the interest is paid periodically to the owners with their asking for it.

a)

Registered bond

b)

Preferred bond

c)

Incorporation bond

d)

All of these

55.

If the security of the bond is a mortgage on certain specified asset of a corporation, this bond is classified as.

a)

Registered bond

b)

Mortgage bond

c)

Coupon bond

d)

Joint bond

56.

A type of bond whose guarantee is in lien on railroad equipments.

a)

Equipment obligations bond

b)

Debenture bond

c)

Registered bond

d)

Infrastructure bond

57.

A type of bond issued jointly by two or more corporations.

a)

Joint bond

b)

Debenture bond

c)

Registered bond

d)

Collateral trust bond

58.

The ratio of the interest payment to the principal for a given unit of time and usually expressed as percentage of the principal,

a)

Interest

b)

Interest rate

c)

Investment

d)

All of the above

59.

A type of bond which does not have security except a promise to pay by the issuing corporation.

a)

Mortgage bond

b)

Registered bond

c)

Collateral trust bond

d)

Debenture bond

60.

A type of bond where the corporation pledges securities which it owns (i.e stocks, bonds of its subsidiaries).

a)

Mortgage

b)

Registered bond

c)

Coupon bond

d)

Collateral trust bond

61.

A form of fixed-interest security issued by central or local government, companies, banks or other institutions. They are usually a form of longterm security, buy may be irredeemable, secured or unsecured.

a)

Bond

b)

T-bills

c)

Certificate of deposit

d)

All of these

62.

The amount of company’s profit that the board of directors of the corporation decides to distribute to ordinary shareholders.

a)

Dividend

b)

Return

c)

Share stocks

d)

Par value

63.

A certificate of indebtness of a corporation usually for a period not less than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of the corporation.

a)

Bond

b)

T-bill

c)

Preferred stock

d)

Common stock

64.

Represent the ownership of stockholders who have a residual claim on the assets of the corporation after all other claims have been settled.

a)

Authorized capital stock

b)

Preferred stock

c)

Incorporator’s stock

d)

Common stock

65.

Represent ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock.

a)

Authorized capital stock

b)

Preferred stock

c)

Incorporator’s stock

d)

Common stock

66.

Which is true about corporation?

a)

It is not best form of business organization.

b)

The minimum number of incorporators to start a corporation is three.

c)

Its life is dependent on the lives of the incorporators.

d)

The stockholders of the corporation are only liable to the extent of their investments.

67.

Which is true about partnership?

a)

It has a perpetual life.

b)

It will be dissolved if one of the partners ceases to be connected with the partnership.

c)

It can be handed down from one generation of partners to another.

d)

Its capitalization must be equal for each partner.

68.

What is the minimum number of incorporators in order corporation be organized?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

10

d)

7

69.

Which is NOT a type of business organization?

a)

Sole proprietorship

b)

Corporation

c)

Enterprise

d)

Partnership

70.

Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?

a)

Sole proprietorship

b)

Enterprises

c)

Corporation

d)

Partnership

71.

A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any building transaction which a real person could do.

a)

Sole proprietorship

b)

Enterprise

c)

Partnership

d)

Corporation

72.

An association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging profitable business.

a)

Sole proprietorship

b)

Enterprise

c)

Partnership

d)

Corporation

73.

Is the simplest form of a business organization.

a)

Sole proprietorship

b)

Partnership

c)

Enterprise

d)

Corporation

74.

The lessening of the value of an asset due to the decrease quantity available (referring to the natural resources, coal, oil and etc).

a)

Depreciation

b)

Depletion

c)

Inflation

d)

Incremental cost

75.

Capitalized cost of any property is equal to the,

a)

Annual cost

b)

First cost + interest of the first cost

c)

First cost + interest of perpetual maintenance

d)

First cost + salvage value

76.

In SYD method, the sum of years digit is calculated using the formula with n = number of useful years of the equipment.

a)

n(n-1) / 2

b)

n(n+1) / 2

c)

n(n+1)

d)

n(n-1)

77.

The first cost of any property includes,

a)

The original purchase price and freight and transportation charges

b)

Installation expenses

c)

Initial taxes and permits fee

d)

All of the above

78.

The function of interest rate and time that determine the cumulative amount of a sinking fund resulting from specific periodic deposits.

a)

Sinking fund factor

b)

Present worth factor

c)

Capacity factor

d)

Demand factor

79.

A method of depreciation where a fixed sum of money is regularly deposited at compound interest in a real or imaginary fund in order to accumulate an amount equal to the total depreciation of an asset at the end of the asset’s estimated life.

a)

Straight line method

b)

Sinking fund method

c)

Declining balance method

d)

SYD method

80.

Which of the following depreciation methods cannot have a salvage value of zero?

a)

Straight line method

b)

Sinking fund method

c)

Declining balance method

d)

SYD method

81.

A method of depreciation whereby the amount to recover is spread uniformly over the estimated life of the asset in terms of the periods or units of output.

a)

Straight line method

b)

Sinking fund method

c)

Declining balance method

d)

SYD method

82.

A method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge is a fixed percentage of the depreciation book value at the beginning of the year to which the depreciation applies.

a)

Straight line method

b)

Sinking fund method

c)

Declining balance method

d)

SYD method

83.

As applied to a capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost by a periodic changes to operation as in depreciation or the reduction of a debt by either periodic or irregular prearrangement program is called:

a)

Annuity

b)

Capital recovery

c)

Annuity factor

d)

Amortization

84.

A mathematical expression also known as the present value of a n annuity of one called:

a)

Load factor

b)

Demand factor

c)

Sinking fund

d)

Present worth factor

85.

A is a periodic payment and I is the interest rate, then the present worth of a perpetuity = ?

a)

Ai

b)

Ai^n

c)

A^n / i

d)

A / i

86.

Which is NOT an essential element of an ordinary annuity?

a)

The amounts of all payments are equal.

b)

The payments are made at equal interval of time.

c)

The first payment is made at the beginning of each period.

d)

Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the annuity.

87.

A type of annuity where the payments are made at the start of each period, beginning from the first period.

a)

Ordinary annuity

b)

Annuity due

c)

Deferred annuity

d)

Perpetuity

88.

It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal intervals of time where the first payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment.

a)

Deferred annuity

b)

Perpetuity

c)

Annuity due

d)

Ordinary annuity

89.

A type of annuity where the payments are made at the end of each payment period starting from the first period.

a)

Ordinary annuity

b)

Annuity due

c)

Deferred annuity

d)

Perpetuity

90.

The value which has a disinterested third party, different from the buyer and seller, will determine in order to establish a price acceptable to both parties.

a)

Market value

b)

Goodwill value

c)

Fair value

d)

Franchise value

91.

An intangible value which is actually operating concern has due to its operation.

a)

Book value

b)

Fair value

c)

Goodwill value

d)

Going value

92.

Sometimes called second hand value.

a)

Scrap value

b)

Salvage value

c)

Book value

d)

Going value

93.

Scrap value of an asset is sometimes known as:

a)

Book value

b)

Salvage value

c)

Replacement value

d)

Future value

94.

The recorded current value of an asset is known as:

a)

Scrap value

b)

Salvage value

c)

Book value

d)

Present worth

95.

The intangible item of value from the exclusive right of a company a stated region of the country.

a)

Market value

b)

Book value

c)

Goodwill value

d)

Franchise value

96.

The true value of interest rate computed by equations for compound interests for a 1 year period is known as:

a)

Expected return

b)

Interest

c)

Nominal interest

d)

Effective interest

97.

The ratio of the interest payment to be principal for a given unit of time and usually expressed as a percentage of the principal.

a)

Interest

b)

Interest rate

c)

Investment

d)

All of the above

98.

The interest rate at which the present work of the cash on a project is zero of the interest earned by an investment.

a)

Effective rate

b)

Nominal rate

c)

Rate of return

d)

Yield

99.

The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of obligations to financial contributions or claims of other based on profit.

a)

Economic return

b)

Yield

c)

Earning value

d)

Expected yield

100.

The flow back of profit plus depreciation from a given project is called:

a)

Capital recovery

b)

Cash flow

c)

Economic return

d)

Earning value