Free Printable Pilot Test Practice Exam

1.

What is the primary purpose of the FAA?

a)

To train pilots

b)

To issue aircraft insurance

c)

To regulate civil aviation

d)

To build airports

2.

What is required to solo an aircraft?

a)

Commercial certificate

b)

IFR rating

c)

Student pilot certificate and instructor endorsement

d)

Flight dispatcher certificate

3.

What document must you carry while flying solo as a student pilot?

a)

Student pilot certificate and medical certificate

b)

Driver's license

c)

Maintenance log

d)

Aircraft registration

4.

A private pilot may not fly for:

a)

Recreational purposes

b)

Compensation or hire

c)

Charity events

d)

Personal transportation

5.

What is required for a private pilot to carry passengers at night?

a)

2 night takeoffs

b)

1 hour of night flight

c)

3 night takeoffs and landings in the past 90 days

d)

An ATP certificate

6.

Which of the following affects your medical eligibility the most?

a)

Weather

b)

Substance use

c)

Aircraft type

d)

Logbook entries

7.

What is the minimum age to obtain a private pilot certificate?

a)

15

b)

17

c)

18

d)

21

8.

How long is a third-class medical certificate valid for a pilot under 40?

a)

12 months

b)

36 months

c)

60 months

d)

24 months

9.

The type of flight training that involves real-time instruction in the air is:

a)

Computer-based training

b)

Dual instruction flight

c)

Ground school

d)

Solo flight

10.

The FAA publication containing pilot certification standards is:

a)

Airman Certification Standards (ACS)

b)

AIM

c)

POH

d)

FAR Part 91

11.

What is an example of aeronautical decision-making (ADM)?

a)

Taking off without a weather check

b)

Choosing an alternate airport due to worsening conditions

c)

Relying solely on GPS

d)

Ignoring ATC instructions

12.

What is the main structural component of the wing?

a)

Spar

b)

Flap

c)

Rudder

d)

Spinner

13.

What controls roll of the airplane?

a)

Rudder

b)

Elevator

c)

Ailerons

d)

Trim tabs

14.

What is the purpose of the rudder?

a)

Control yaw

b)

Control pitch

c)

Control roll

d)

Increase lift

15.

What part of the airplane reduces drag by covering joints?

a)

Cowling

b)

Spoilers

c)

Fairings

d)

Static wicks

16.

The empennage includes the:

a)

Fuselage

b)

Wing tips

c)

Horizontal and vertical stabilizers

d)

Landing gear

17.

Which surface controls pitch?

a)

Ailerons

b)

Elevator

c)

Flaps

d)

Rudder

18.

What is the fuselage?

a)

Wing structure

b)

Main body of the airplane

c)

Tail section

d)

Landing gear

19.

A semi-monocoque fuselage relies on:

a)

No internal structure

b)

Skin and internal supports

c)

External braces only

d)

Engine cowling

20.

What surface increases lift during takeoff and landing?

a)

Spoilers

b)

Flaps

c)

Trim tabs

d)

Rudder

21.

The function of trim tabs is to:

a)

Increase engine thrust

b)

Adjust flight path

c)

Relieve control pressure

d)

Reduce lift

22.

What is a cantilever wing?

a)

A wing supported by wires

b)

A wing with no external bracing

c)

A wing with fuel tanks

d)

A detachable wing

23.

What are the four forces acting on an airplane in flight?

a)

Lift, weight, thrust, and drag

b)

Gravity, lift, yaw, and thrust

c)

Thrust, drag, spin, and angle of attack

d)

Pitch, roll, yaw, and drag

24.

What causes an airplane to stall?

a)

Lack of fuel

b)

Exceeding the critical angle of attack

c)

Too much airspeed

d)

High RPM

25.

What is angle of attack?

a)

The aircraft's nose angle to the horizon

b)

The pitch angle

c)

The angle between the chord line and relative wind

d)

The climb angle

26.

What is load factor?

a)

Weight of cargo

b)

Amount of fuel used

c)

Ratio of lift to weight

d)

Drag coefficient

27.

What increases during a steep turn?

a)

Thrust

b)

Altitude

c)

Load factor

d)

Fuel burn

28.

What happens to stall speed when load factor increases?

a)

It decreases

b)

It increases

c)

It remains the same

d)

It disappears

29.

What causes an aircraft to turn?

a)

Rudder pressure

b)

Horizontal component of lift

c)

Increased drag

d)

Engine torque

30.

What is induced drag?

a)

Drag from the aircraft skin

b)

Drag created by lift

c)

Drag from the propeller

d)

Drag from flaps

31.

Ground effect is most noticeable:

a)

At cruise altitude

b)

Within one wingspan of the surface

c)

At rotation

d)

During a go-around

32.

What is adverse yaw?

a)

Tendency for nose to yaw opposite aileron input

b)

Overuse of rudder

c)

Nose turning into the wind

d)

Too much trim

33.

Which control movement causes a stall/spin if uncoordinated?

a)

Elevator

b)

Flaps

c)

Ailerons and rudder

d)

Throttle

34.

What does the aileron control?

a)

Roll

b)

Yaw

c)

Pitch

d)

Thrust

35.

Which flight control affects pitch?

a)

Ailerons

b)

Rudder

c)

Elevator

d)

Spoilers

36.

What is the purpose of the rudder?

a)

Controls yaw

b)

Controls roll

c)

Controls speed

d)

Controls pitch

37.

What is differential aileron design intended to reduce?

a)

Roll rate

b)

Airspeed

c)

Adverse yaw

d)

Thrust asymmetry

38.

What is the effect of using flaps during approach and landing?

a)

Increase lift and drag

b)

Decrease thrust

c)

Increase speed

d)

Increase roll

39.

Which control surface should be neutral in a coordinated turn?

a)

Rudder

b)

Ailerons

c)

Elevator

d)

Flaps

40.

How is elevator trim used?

a)

Reduces aileron pressure

b)

Changes yaw stability

c)

Reduces control pressure during pitch changes

d)

Increases speed

41.

A trim tab functions by:

a)

Increasing lift

b)

Aerodynamically moving the control surface

c)

Increasing drag

d)

Changing CG

42.

Spoilers are designed to:

a)

Add lift

b)

Disrupt airflow and reduce lift

c)

Increase fuel efficiency

d)

Help rudder control

43.

What happens when control surfaces move opposite the relative wind?

a)

Speed increases

b)

Aircraft reacts accordingly (pitch/yaw/roll)

c)

Weight increases

d)

Glide ratio improves

44.

Full rudder deflection in flight can:

a)

Help with climbs

b)

Cause a stall

c)

Lead to over-control and loss of yaw stability

d)

Increase fuel flow

45.

What system provides spark to the spark plugs?

a)

Battery

b)

Magneto system

c)

Alternator

d)

Fuel pump

46.

Why do airplanes use two magnetos?

a)

Redundancy and better combustion

b)

One is for emergencies

c)

Only one powers all cylinders

d)

They reduce drag

47.

The function of the carburetor is to:

a)

Compress air

b)

Pump fuel

c)

Mix fuel and air

d)

Provide electrical power

48.

Carburetor ice is most likely when:

a)

Temperature is between 20°F and 70°F with high humidity

b)

Temperature is below 0°F

c)

On cold dry days

d)

During high-altitude cruise

49.

What is the function of the mixture control?

a)

Adjust fuel-to-air ratio

b)

Throttle power

c)

Elevate engine RPM

d)

Direct oil

50.

What does the alternator do?

a)

Regulates altitude

b)

Powers electrical system and charges battery

c)

Mixes air and fuel

d)

Creates lift

51.

What can result from a fuel system blockage?

a)

High speed

b)

Engine failure

c)

Excessive yaw

d)

Landing gear retraction

52.

Detonation in a piston engine is caused by:

a)

High temps and pressure causing fuel to explode unevenly

b)

Lack of oil

c)

Overuse of flaps

d)

Spark plug wear

53.

What is the function of the oil system?

a)

Ignite the mixture

b)

Power instruments

c)

Lubricate and cool engine components

d)

Filter fuel

54.

When should fuel tanks be switched?

a)

In descent

b)

At regular intervals per POH

c)

Only at takeoff

d)

During climb only

55.

An ammeter shows a discharge. What does this indicate?

a)

Battery is supplying more power than alternator is generating

b)

Fuel pump is faulty

c)

Landing gear is stuck

d)

Vacuum system failed

56.

What instrument shows the aircraft's orientation relative to the horizon?

a)

Heading indicator

b)

Turn coordinator

c)

Attitude indicator

d)

Altimeter

57.

What powers most gyroscopic instruments in modern aircraft?

a)

Hydraulic pressure

b)

Vacuum or electric systems

c)

Magnetos

d)

GPS

58.

Which instrument uses static pressure only?

a)

Airspeed indicator

b)

Altimeter

c)

Vertical speed indicator

d)

Heading indicator

59.

What is the function of the pitot tube?

a)

Measures dynamic pressure for the airspeed indicator

b)

Filters cabin air

c)

Measures fuel pressure

d)

Powers the altimeter

60.

What does the turn coordinator show?

a)

Rate of turn and roll rate

b)

Airspeed

c)

Heading and pitch

d)

Yaw rate only

61.

What does the altimeter measure?

a)

Ground elevation

b)

Atmospheric pressure converted into altitude

c)

Speed

d)

Bank angle

62.

What error occurs if the pitot tube is blocked but static port is open?

a)

VSI stops

b)

Airspeed indicator becomes inaccurate

c)

Altimeter reads 0

d)

Heading indicator fails

63.

Which error occurs if the static port is blocked?

a)

Compass precession

b)

Altimeter, VSI, and airspeed freeze or become inaccurate

c)

Magnetic variation

d)

Turn coordinator spins

64.

Which instrument uses rigidity in space?

a)

Heading indicator

b)

Magnetic compass

c)

Altimeter

d)

Airspeed indicator

65.

How does the magnetic compass behave in a turn to the north?

a)

It lags behind the actual heading

b)

It spins faster

c)

It precesses forward

d)

It freezes

66.

Which instrument gives the pilot rate of climb or descent?

a)

Altimeter

b)

Attitude indicator

c)

Vertical speed indicator

d)

Compass

67.

What does density altitude affect most directly?

a)

Compass accuracy

b)

Fuel grade

c)

Aircraft performance

d)

Radio range

68.

High density altitude results in:

a)

Greater engine power

b)

Decreased performance

c)

Stronger lift

d)

Better fuel efficiency

69.

How is takeoff distance affected by high humidity?

a)

Increases due to reduced air density

b)

Decreases due to dry air

c)

No effect

d)

Takeoff roll shortens

70.

What increases takeoff distance?

a)

Headwind

b)

Cold temperature

c)

Tailwind

d)

Low gross weight

71.

The best rate-of-climb speed (VY) gives the:

a)

Most altitude in least time

b)

Fastest ground speed

c)

Shortest takeoff roll

d)

Smoothest ride

72.

The best angle-of-climb speed (VX) gives the:

a)

Most altitude over shortest ground distance

b)

Best fuel efficiency

c)

Maximum speed

d)

Smoothest climb

73.

What does a performance chart help the pilot determine?

a)

Insurance cost

b)

Takeoff/landing distances and climb performance

c)

Aircraft color

d)

Flight crew schedule

74.

What decreases takeoff performance?

a)

High temperature, humidity, and altitude

b)

Low temp and headwind

c)

Low weight

d)

Sea level airstrip

75.

How does weight affect landing distance?

a)

It shortens it

b)

Heavier weight increases it

c)

Makes no difference

d)

Causes ballooning

76.

What is a performance chart adjusted for?

a)

Angle of attack

b)

Altitude, temperature, and weight

c)

Magnetos

d)

Trim settings

77.

What is the best way to ensure accuracy when using a performance chart?

a)

Use current conditions and follow chart instructions

b)

Use averages

c)

Guess based on past flights

d)

Only use cruise performance charts

78.

What does a sectional chart provide?

a)

VFR navigation information and terrain features

b)

Weather reports

c)

Fuel prices

d)

IFR procedures

79.

Which line connects points of equal magnetic variation?

a)

Latitude

b)

Isogonic line

c)

Isobar

d)

Meridians

80.

The compass heading corrected for variation is:

a)

True heading

b)

Magnetic heading

c)

Ground speed

d)

Altitude

81.

What is pilotage?

a)

Navigating by visual landmarks

b)

Using radar

c)

Dead reckoning

d)

GPS use

82.

Dead reckoning is:

a)

Navigation based on time, speed, distance, direction

b)

Using charts

c)

Radar navigation

d)

Landing calculations

83.

What is the purpose of a VOR station?

a)

Provide radio navigation information

b)

Monitor weather

c)

Broadcast ATIS

d)

Guide approach lights

84.

What does GPS provide to pilots?

a)

Airspeed

b)

Attitude

c)

Position, velocity, and time data

d)

Stall warnings

85.

What is the magnetic variation if true course is 100° and magnetic heading is 110°?

a)

10° East

b)

10° West

c)

0°

d)

Cannot tell

86.

What's the purpose of a compass rose on a sectional chart?

a)

Show orientation to VOR radials

b)

Provide fuel information

c)

Show wind direction

d)

Indicate terrain

87.

What is the "MEF" value on a sectional?

a)

Wind speed

b)

Maximum elevation figure in an area

c)

Radio frequency

d)

Fuel load

88.

The "line of latitude" runs:

a)

North-South

b)

East-West

c)

Diagonal

d)

Vertical

89.

What is the CTAF used for?

a)

Communication at non-towered airports

b)

Filing flight plans

c)

Emergency weather broadcasts

d)

Contacting ATC at Class B airports

90.

What is ATIS?

a)

VOR frequency

b)

Continuous broadcast of airport information

c)

Emergency procedure

d)

Weather balloon data

91.

What radio call should you make before taxiing at a non-towered airport?

a)

State intentions on CTAF

b)

Contact tower

c)

Call approach

d)

Request IFR clearance

92.

What is the standard VHF comm frequency range?

a)

110.0–117.95 MHz

b)

118.0–136.975 MHz

c)

108.0–112.0 MHz

d)

121.5–127.5 MHz

93.

The emergency frequency is:

a)

122.8 MHz

b)

121.5 MHz

c)

120.0 MHz

d)

124.3 MHz

94.

What should you do if lost and without radio contact?

a)

Squawk 0000

b)

Squawk 1212

c)

Squawk 7600 for radio failure

d)

Land immediately

95.

What is the standard Class D airspace radius?

a)

3 NM

b)

4 NM

c)

5 NM

d)

10 NM

96.

What do Class B airspaces require?

a)

Mode C only

b)

Clearance and Mode C transponder

c)

No clearance needed

d)

Permission only if under 18

97.

What is a Mode C veil?

a)

Airport radar coverage

b)

30 NM radius around Class B requiring Mode C transponder

c)

TAF coverage

d)

Cloud clearance rule

98.

What is required to enter Class C airspace?

a)

Clearance

b)

Establish two-way radio communication

c)

Transponder only

d)

No requirement

99.

What is the color of Class E airspace starting at 700 feet AGL on sectional charts?

a)

Red

b)

Yellow

c)

Shaded magenta

d)

Green

100.

What is the purpose of UNICOM frequency at non-towered airports?

a)

Communication with FBOs and airport services

b)

Filing flight plans

c)

Emergency alerts

d)

Weather observation

Pilot Test Practice Exam

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

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