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WorksheetsiTech_QA_Test
Total questions: 64
Worksheet time: 32mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Who does the Acceptable Use & Collaboration policy apply to?
a)
Only permanent employees
b)
Only IT department staff
c)
Only AWS users
d)
All iTech staff, contractors, interns, vendors, and guests
2.
Which data type requires the highest level of protection and cannot be stored outside approved systems?
a)
Internal
b)
Public
c)
Restricted
d)
Confidential
3.
What is required for all access under the general policy statement?
a)
Unlimited duration
b)
Owner-only access
c)
Time-bound and least-privilege
d)
Anonymous access
4.
What happens to guest accounts after 90 days if not renewed?
a)
They are automatically renewed
b)
They are upgraded to full accounts
c)
They expire
d)
They are transferred to IT
5.
Who is responsible for classifying information before storage or sharing?
a)
CTO
b)
Owner
c)
Tester
d)
HR
6.
What is the correct site naming convention for SharePoint project sites?
a)
[Project-Name]_Work
b)
SharePoint/[Project]
c)
Workingplace - [Project-Name]
d)
[Name]-Team-Site
7.
What kind of files should be stored in OneDrive?
a)
Shared project files
b)
Department-wide documents
c)
Individual work files only
d)
Public marketing assets
8.
Who must manage SharePoint folders for files over 50MB?
a)
DevOps Team
b)
Designer and PMO
c)
Tech Lead
d)
Customer
9.
How often must security awareness training be completed?
a)
Annually
b)
Every 2 years
c)
Monthly
d)
Once at onboarding only
10.
What does FSD stand for in this documentation regulation?
a)
Formal System Design
b)
Functional System Description
c)
Functional Specification Document
d)
File Structure Definition
11.
Where is the Functional Specification Document (FSD) stored?
a)
Git
b)
SharePoint
c)
Figma
d)
Confluence
12.
Who is responsible for the Technical Specification Document (TSD)?
a)
Business Analyst
b)
Designer
c)
Tech Lead
d)
Project Manager
13.
Where are monthly backup versions of Confluence pages stored?
a)
Dropbox
b)
Shared Google Drive
c)
On a separate SharePoint location
d)
On Confluence, using version history
14.
In the SharePoint structure, who owns the 'UAT & Sign-off' documents?
a)
BA
b)
Tester
c)
PM
d)
SA
15.
What is the key difference between test document storage on Confluence and SharePoint?
a)
Confluence stores test checklists, while SharePoint stores test plans and strategies
b)
Confluence stores detailed test cases, SharePoint only stores summary reports
c)
Confluence stores test plans, test strategies, and test reports; SharePoint stores test checklists, test cases, and security/performance test reports
d)
Both are used to store the same type of test documents, no difference
16.
When a project is assigned, who is responsible for requesting the creation of a project site on Jira?
a)
PO
b)
Technical Lead
c)
Tester
d)
Project Manager
17.
What is the minimum completion rate for the committed sprint scope?
a)
100%
b)
70%
c)
80%
d)
90%
18.
Which field is mandatory when a Task transitions from Open to In Progress?
a)
Sprint and Risk
b)
Due Date and Assignee
c)
Root Cause and Bug Environment
d)
Contingency Plan and Test Cases
19.
Who is responsible for ensuring “User Story is clearly defined and linked to an Epic if applicable” during the transition from Backlog → In Design?
a)
Developer
b)
BA (Business Analyst)
c)
Tester
d)
PO (Product Owner)
20.
What checklist items must be completed when a User Story transitions from In Design to Ready to Dev, and who is responsible for them?
a)
Only Figma files are needed; Designer is responsible
b)
FSD/TSD is completed (BA), Figma available (Designer), backlog communicated (BA/PM), technical solution clarified (TL)
c)
Only the Product Owner must approve the User Story before coding
d)
Tasks/Sub-tasks must be created and assigned to the Developer
21.
When transitioning a User Story from Ready for UAT to In UAT, which of the following checklist items are required, and who is responsible?
a)
UAT test documents are ready (BA, Tester, Designer), UAT plan is approved (Customer)
b)
Code review is completed and CI/CD passed
c)
All test cases passed and documented in Confluence
d)
Only PO gives sign-off to release the build
22.
What is the maximum response time to messages during working hours if the sender is CEO?
a)
60 minutes
b)
45 minutes
c)
15 minutes
d)
30 minutes
23.
What is the maximum response time to messages during working hours if the sender is NOT CEO?
a)
60 minutes
b)
45 minutes
c)
15 minutes
d)
30 minutes
24.
By what time must each project member update their task status daily?
a)
Before 6:00 PM VNT
b)
Before 4:00 PM VNT
c)
Before 5:00 PM VNT
d)
Anytime during working hours
25.
How long after a adhoc meeting should the MoM (Minutes of Meeting) be sent?
a)
Within 8 hours
b)
Within 2 hours
c)
Within 24 hours
d)
Within 4 hours
26.
Which language must be used in all communication with customers?
a)
Vietnamese
b)
Customer’s preferred language (usually English)
c)
Mix of English and Vietnamese
d)
Project-specific slang
27.
You receive a phone call from the CEO during a client meeting. You cannot answer immediately. What is the most appropriate action according to the policy?
a)
Ignore the call and explain it the next day
b)
Immediately end the client meeting to take the call
c)
Call back after the meeting without explanation
d)
Send a message explaining why you couldn’t answer and propose a follow-up
28.
Which of the following is the correct format for an email subject related to a project exchange?
a)
Project Discussion - March 11, 2025
b)
[RDB] – UAT Test Case Review and Plan – 2025/03/11
c)
UAT Plan – RDB – 11/03/2025
d)
Review Plan – RDB – 03/11/2025
29.
When creating a new communication group, what must be clearly announced?
a)
The group's name and icon
b)
The purpose, scope of exchange, and participants
c)
The owner's contact information
d)
The expected duration of the group
30.
Who should be included in the “To” field of an email?
a)
Everyone in the team
b)
People needing to be informed only
c)
Only those directly responsible for the content or action
d)
Anyone involved in the project
31.
What is required before forwarding an email containing sensitive project information?
a)
Justifying the reason later
b)
Forwarding as-is with a note
c)
Getting sender or manager approval and removing irrelevant info
d)
CC-ing the original sender automatically
32.
What should NOT be done when sending sensitive project or financial information?
a)
Share it only with To/CC parties
b)
Encrypt the email
c)
Send it without encryption or approval
d)
Limit access based on responsibility
33.
How many working days in advance should invitations for important meetings be sent?
a)
1 day
b)
3 days
c)
2 days
d)
5 days
34.
What is the main goal of the stage from Request to BRD Confirmed in the General Software Development Process?
a)
Transform the initial request into a well-analyzed solution, formally confirmed by stakeholders through the Business Requirements Document (BRD).
b)
Design UI/UX to communicate user expectations clearly to the development team.
c)
Break down business needs into a product backlog and create a detailed development plan.
d)
Ensure the system is fully ready for deployment in the Production environment.
35.
Which of the following is not an expected output during the initial phases from project planning to UI/UX design in a software development process?
a)
Project Plan and Product Backlog
b)
Business Analysis Document and Functional Requirements
c)
Solution Architecture Document and UI/UX Handoff Files
d)
Test Summary Report and UAT Sign-off Document
36.
Which of the following correctly describes the activity performed and the output produced during the Technical Design phase?
a)
Creating detailed UI wireframes – Output: Design Handoff File
b)
Defining system architecture views – Output: Solution Architectural Documents (SAD)
c)
Writing business rules and user scenarios – Output: Business Analysis Document
d)
Developing CI/CD pipelines – Output: Technical Specification Document (TSD)
37.
Which of the following outputs is expected after completing the Coding and Unit Testing phase?
a)
Approved UAT execution and UX improvement suggestions
b)
Module/Features fully developed, Unit Test reports, and successful deployment on Dev environment
c)
Test plan, test scripts, and final system test report
d)
UX review summary and Test Case execution results
38.
Which of the following is a prerequisite condition for the Review and Approve step (conducted by the Delivery Board) before moving to the UAT phase?
a)
UI/UX Design has been reviewed and approved by the Product Designer
b)
Infrastructure environments and deployment pipelines have been provisioned
c)
System Testing has been completed with acceptable results and required fixes have been applied
d)
All Unit Tests have been automated and passed on staging environment
39.
Which of the following best summarizes the responsibilities of the PO/Representative User and the Project Team during the UAT phase, and the expected output?
a)
PO/Representative User runs functional tests, logs defects, and signs UAT confirmation;
Project Team provides support and fixes bugs;
Output: UAT results, fixed bugs, and UAT sign-off.
b)
PO/Representative User creates the UAT test plan;
Project Team tests new features and collects feedback;
Output: Design documents and approval report.
c)
PO/Representative User verifies UI design only;
Project Team prepares FSD and fixes old bugs;
Output: UAT sign-off and updated technical spec.
d)
PO/Representative User works with Dev to build new features;
Project Team runs performance tests;
Output: Deployment checklist and test scripts.
40.
Who is primarily responsible for collecting the initial requirements from the customer?
a)
Developer
b)
Business Analyst (BA)
c)
Product Owner (PO)
d)
Tester
41.
Which document is created after analyzing requirements and confirming feasibility?
a)
SOW
b)
UI Mockup
c)
BRD
d)
Test Plan
42.
Who are typically involved in analyzing requirements during the gathering process?
a)
BA, SA, PM
b)
BA, PO, Tester
c)
BA, Dev, Designer
d)
SA, PO, Customer
43.
Who is responsible for creating and refining the FSD?
a)
Project Manager
b)
Developer
c)
Business Analyst
d)
Product Owner
44.
What are the output criteria of the Requirement Analysis process?
a)
All requirements are sent to the customer for sign-off
b)
Code is ready to deploy
c)
The FSD is finalized and ready for development
d)
Test execution starts
45.
Who is responsible for creating the Solution Architecture Design (SAD)?
a)
Business Analyst
b)
Technical Lead
c)
Solution Architect
d)
Project Manager
46.
Who provides the final approval for the SAD in most cases (internally)?
a)
HoSA and CTO
b)
Customer
c)
PM and BA
d)
DevOps SME
47.
What does “SAD” stand for in Technical Design process?
a)
Software Architecture Diagram
b)
Solution Architecture Design
c)
System Application Document
d)
Structured Analysis Document
48.
Who is responsible for creating or updating the Technical Design Document (TSD)?
a)
Product Owner
b)
Business Analyst
c)
Technical Lead (TL)
d)
Solution Architect
49.
In the RACI table, what is the responsibility of the Head of Solution Architect (HoSA) in the SAD?
a)
Responsible (R)
b)
Consulted (C)
c)
Accountable (A)
d)
Informed (I)
50.
Who gives the final approval for the Technical Specification Document (TSD)?
a)
Head of Solution Architect (HoSA)
b)
Product Owner
c)
Head of Development (HoD)
d)
CTO
51.
Which step in Technical Design Process includes defining class diagrams, sequence flows, and database schemas?
a)
Analyze Requirements
b)
Create/Update SAD
c)
Create/Update TSD
d)
Review TSD
52.
Who is mainly responsible for performing unit tests during this phase?
a)
Tester
b)
Business Analyst
c)
Developer
d)
Project Manager
53.
What is the baseline requirement for code coverage percentage?
a)
85%
b)
70%
c)
75%
d)
90%
54.
Who creates the Merge Request (MR)?
a)
Technical Lead
b)
Developer
c)
Tester
d)
Solution Architect
55.
What is the role of the Technical Lead during the code review process?
a)
Write user stories
b)
Create unit tests
c)
Review and approve Merge Request
d)
Design database schema
56.
What are the two key criteria in code review besides correctness?
a)
Performance and deadline
b)
Maintainability and readability
c)
Priority and severity
d)
Tool usage and indentation
57.
What kind of testing is done before submitting MR?
a)
System Testing
b)
Unit Testing
c)
Acceptance Testing
d)
Performance Testing
58.
Which tool is used to manage test cases in this process?
a)
Postman
b)
Swagger
c)
Testmo
d)
Figma
59.
Who is responsible for reviewing test cases for completeness and optimization?
a)
Test Leader
b)
BA
c)
PM
d)
Developer
60.
Which metric is part of the Exit Criteria?
a)
Sprint velocity
b)
Bug reopen rate
c)
Test result pass rate > 90%
d)
Requirement volatility
61.
What is the highest severity level for a defect?
a)
Medium
b)
Major
c)
Minor
d)
Critical
62.
Which type of test is executed at the end of each sprint to ensure system stability?
a)
Regression Test
b)
System Test
c)
Smoke Test
d)
UAT
63.
If a bug is marked as Ready to Test by Dev, what is the next step?
a)
Release the software
b)
Archive the test
c)
Start UAT
d)
Re-validate the issue
64.
What should be included in the Final Quality Report before UAT?
a)
Coverage, defect status, risks
b)
Design wireframes
c)
Dev logs
d)
Database schema
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