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Worksheetsqatar set 2
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
123. What does the abbreviation “NOSIG” mean?
Not signed by the meteorologist.
No significant changes.
No report received.
No weather related problems.
124. What pressure is defined as QFE?
The pressure reduced to sea level using actual temperatures.
The pressure reduced to sea level using ISA temperatures.
The pressure at field elevation.
The pressure of the altimeter.
125. What is the meaning of the abbreviation “SCT”?
5-7 oktas.
1-4 oktas.
3-4 oktas.
1-2 oktas.
126. With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated?
Cumulonimbus.
Stratocumulus.
Nimbostratus.
Stratus.
128. What does the term SIGMET signify?
A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report.
A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half hourly intervals.
A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions.
A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily.
130. Which statement is correct regarding the International Standard Atmosphere?
At MSL temperature is 15 0 C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1 0 C per 100m.
At MSL temperature is 10 0 C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1 0 C per 100m.
At MSL pressure is 1013.25 hpa and the decrease of temperature with height is 1 0 C per 100m.
At MSL temperature is 15 0 C and pressure is 1013.25 hpa.
133. The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the:
Depth of standing water on the runway.
Aircraft weight.
Strength of the headwind.
Amount of lift off speed.
134. In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:
Surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.
It is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.
It is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.
Its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance.
135. If airworthiness documents do not shown any additional correction factor for landing performance determination on a wet runway, the landing distance shall be increased by:
10%.
5%.
15%.
20%.
136. Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take off:
Separate to the left side.
Separate on each side of the runway.
Stagnate on the runway.
Separate to the right side.
137. When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the later shall be located, for a twin-engine aircraft, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:
1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two engines.
2 hours of flight at cruising speed single engine.
2 hours of flight at cruising speed single engine.
1 hour of flight at cruising speed with a single engine.
138. Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane’s main wheel tire pressure is 225 psi, the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur in the event of applying brakes is:
114 kts.
100 kts.
80 kts.
135 kts.
139. The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:
3 hours.
24 hours.
12 hours.
6 hours.
140. Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear?
Pitch angle.
Vertical speed.
Groundspeed.
Indicated airspeed.
141. Flight crewmembers on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
From take off to landing.
While at their station.
Only during take off and landing.
Only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of safety.
142. An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31000 ft. What is the initial action by the operating crew?
Transmit a MAYDAY message.
Place the seat belts sign to ON.
To put on oxygen masks.
Disconnect the autopilot.
143. A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
500 m.
550 m.
350 m.
800 m.
144. A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
75 m.
150 m.
250 m.
200 m.
145. A category III a precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach, which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
200 m.
100 m.
250 m.
50 m.
146. A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:
Unreliable.
Medium.
Good.
Poor.
147. A category I precision approach (CAT I) has:
A decision height equal to at least 100 ft.
A decision height equal to at least 50 ft.
No decision height.
A decision height equal to at least 200 ft.
148. A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with:
A decision height of at least 100 ft.
A decision height of at least 200 ft.
A decision height of at least 50 ft.
No decision height.
149. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit seeing an aircraft coming from the front right, will first see the:
Green flashing light.
Red steady light.
Green steady light.
White steady light.
150. The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat). Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kts to 165 kts is:
C.
E.
D.
B.
151. For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:
0.5 (2 x the actual landing distance).
0.8 (1.25 x the actual landing distance).
0.6 (1.67 x the actual landing distance).
0.7 (1.42 x the actual landing distance).
152. An airplane creates a wake turbulence when:
Generating lift.
Flying at high speed.
Using a high engine R.P.M.
Flying with its gear and flaps extended.
153. Wake turbulence risk is highest:
When a preceding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to take off.
When a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel runway with a light crosswind.
If, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy crosswind.
Following a preceding aircraft at high speed.
154. The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a:
High weight and low speed.
High weight and high speed.
Low weight and low speed.
Low weight and high speed.
155. Tip vortices, which are responsible for wake turbulence, appear as soon as the following is established:
Spin up.
Lift destruction.
Lift.
Drag.
156. The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is:
Large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration.
Small, light, at low speed in clean configuration.
Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration.
Large, heavy at low speed in clean configuration.
157. For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?
3.7 km (2 nm).
7.4 km (4 nm).
9.3 km (5 nm).
11.1 km (6 nm).
158. When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time approach separation, according with DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be:
1 min.
2 min.
4 min.
3 min.
159. DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass. Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of:
136,000 kg or more.
126,000 kg or more.
Less than 136,000 kg but more than 126,000 kg.
146,000 kg or more.
According DOC 4444 (ICAO), wake turbulence no radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:
LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft.
MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft.
MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel separated by less than 760m.
LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway.
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), wake turbulence no radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to:
LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft.
LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m. (using whole runway).
LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same runway.
MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft.
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), wake turbulence no radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:
To LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of parallel runway separated by less 760 m.
To a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a runway with a displaced landing threshold.
To an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a runway with a displaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross.
Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off.
In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence radar separation minima of:
4 nm.
3 nm.
2 nm.
5 nm.
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway?
3 minutes.
4 minutes.
5 minutes.
2 minutes.
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136,000 kg and more than 7,000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?
11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes.
7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes.
9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes.
9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes.
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation time if a light aeroplane (7,000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136,000 kg but more than 7,000 kg) on the approach to landing?
4 minutes.
5 minutes.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.
The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:
10 minutes.
3 minutes.
30 seconds.
1 minute.
A class B fire is a fire of:
Electrical source fire.
Special fire: metal, gas, and chemical product.
Liquid or liquefiable solid.
Solid material usually of organic nature.
During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew’s operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:
The middle marker.
The start final descent point (glide slope intersection).
The outer Marker (OM).
The FAF.
The term decision height (DH) is used for:
A conventional approach.
A conventional approach.
A conventional approach followed by a visual manoeuvre.
A precision approach.
A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
The JAR OPS.
The flight manual.
The minimum equipment list.
The operation manual’s chapter “Abnormal and Emergency procedures.”
On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engine aircraft must mandatorily have a minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying:
30 minutes with normal cruise consumption.
2 hours with normal cruise consumption.
2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft.
30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft.
In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:
You climb to the maximum flight level, which does not need the use of pressurization.
You go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the airplane in a clean configuration until the final approach.
You descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration.
You carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety Altitude.
During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be:
To warn the ATC.
To comfort your passengers.
To put on the oxygen mask.
To set the transponder to 7700.
The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40,000 ft. is:
1 minute.
5 minutes.
12 seconds.
30 seconds.
If the cabin pressure increases during level flight, the differential pressure:
Increases.
Remains constant.
Attains its maximum permitted operating limit.
Decreases.
When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin, which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate:
A rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure.
A rate of climb.
A rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm.
Zero.
Using an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator controls, the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when the selector is at the “normal” position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only?
32,000 ft.
25,000 ft.
25,000 ft.
8,000 ft.
The accumulation of snow or ice an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the:
Roll rate.
Stalling speed.
Value of the stall angle of attack.
Tuck under.
If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:
Less than the actual.
Equal to the actual.
Dependent on the temperature.
Greater than the actual.
The greatest possibility of ice build-up, while flying under icing conditions, occurs on:
The aircraft front areas.
The upper and lower wing surfaces.
The upper and lower rudder surfaces.
Only the pitot and static probes.
For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest?
Freezing rain.
Steady snow.
Freezing fog.
Frost.
During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:
The anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied hot.
The anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot.
The anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold.
The de-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing fluid is applied hot.
During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the hold over time starts:
At the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
At the end of the first stage (de-icing stage).
At the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
At the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage).
A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while taxiing to the holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is:
The minimum equipment list.
The JAR OPS.
The flight record.
The operation manual’s chapter “Abnormal and Emergency Procedures.”
The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is:
A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire.
Burning cargo in a cargo aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide.
Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes.
Water may only be used for minor fixes.
In public transport, prior to take off in icing conditions, the captain must check that:
Possible ice accretions do not cause to exceed weight and balance limits.
External surfaces are free from any ice accretion, which may impede the airplane performance and manoeuvrability, except within the limits specified by the flight manual.
External surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater than 5mm.
External surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid.
A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have:
Increased Mach number stability.
Reduced range.
Increased manoeuvring limits.
Increased flight envelope.
According to the JAR-OPS rules, the route of a twin-engine aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 8618 kg or a maximum approved seating configuration of more than 19 passengers must be planned in such a way that on one engine an appropriate aerodrome can be reached within:
90 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
120 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
60 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
30 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:
280 and 400.
280 and 390.
275 and 400.
285 and 420.
At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within NAT region?
Below FL290.
Between FL290 and FL410.
Between FL275 and FL400.
Between FL245 and FL410.
When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power reduction shall be allowed is:
600 m (2,000 ft.).
300 m (1,000 ft.).
450 m (1,500 ft.).
150 m (500 ft.).
According to the recommended "noise abatement take-off and climb procedure A" established in ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft reaches:
3,000 ft.
2,000 ft.
1,000 ft.
1,500 ft.
According with the "noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B", as established in DOC 8168 - Ops Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until reaching:
1,500 ft.
3,000 ft.
1,000 ft.
500 ft.
To use passengers’ oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:
Useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions.
Possible and recommended.
Useless because the toxic cabins smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen.
Useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions.
Wind shear is:
A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large distance.
A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a short distance.
A horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance.
A vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance.
An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kts while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of:
80 kts.
40 kts.
60 kts.
20 kts.
For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be shown by actual demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the required number of crew members, can be evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in:
60 seconds.
90 seconds.
132 seconds.
120 seconds.
The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is:
644 kts.
332 kts.
661 kts.
1059 kts.
The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near the source is known as:
Position pressure error.
Barometric error.
Instrument error.
Hysteresis effect.
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working according to a height span ranging from:
The ground to 500 ft.
50 ft. to 2,500 ft.
The ground to 1,000 ft.
30 ft. to 5,000 ft.
If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:
Continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred.
Gradually indicate zero.
Under-read.
Indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar Subscale.
In the event of a conflict, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) will give information such as:
Turn left/turn right.
Too low terrain.
Glide slope.
Climb/descent.
The (DH) warning light comes on when an aircraft:
Descends below a pre-set barometric altitude.
Passes over the ILS inner marker.
Descends below a pre-set radio altitude.
Passes over the outer marker.
A stall warning system is based on a measure of:
Airspeed.
Attitude.
Groundspeed.
Aerodynamic incidence.
If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:
Continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage.
Under-read.
Over-read.
Read zero.
Alarms are standardised and follow a code of colours. Those requiring action but not immediately, are signalled by the colour:
Red.
Green.
Flashing Red.
Amber.
The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true airspeed of 100kts, in a descent with a slope of 3 degrees, indicates:
250 ft./min.
500 ft./min.
300 ft./min.
150 ft./min.
The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the use of:
Air traffic control radar systems.
Transponders fitted in the aircraft.
Airborne weather radar system.
F.M.S. (Flight Management System).
Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only depends on:
Pressure.
Density.
Temperature.
Temperature and the pressure.
The flight data recorder must start data recording automatically:
When lining up.
Before the airplane is able to move by under its own power.
When taking off.
When the landing gear is retracted.
TCAS uses for its operation:
The replies from the transponders of other aircraft.
The echoes from the ground air traffic control radar system.
The echoes of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board.
Both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and the ground based radar echoes.
During a Category II automatic approach, the height information is supplied by the:
Encoding altimeter.
Altimeter.
Radio altimeter.
GPS (Global Positioning System)
VNE is the maximum speed:
With flaps extended in landing position.
Which must never be exceeded.
Not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.
At which the flight controls can be fully deflected.
The static air temperature (SAT) is:
A relative temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin.
An absolute temperature expressed in degrees Celsius.
A differential temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin.
A relative temperature expressed in degrees Celsius.
If the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) activates, and alerts the pitot with an aural warning “DON’T SINK” (twice), it is because:
During take-off or missed approach manoeuvre, the aircraft has started to lose altitude.
The aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to the terrain, landing gear retracted.
At too low altitude, the aircraft has an excessive rate of descent.
The aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to terrain without landing flap selected.
The total air temperature (TAT) is always:
Lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitude.
Higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air Speed (CAS).
Higher or lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air Speed (CAS).
Higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitude.
In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is:
Independent of the true airspeed (TAS).
Higher than the true airspeed (TAS).
Lower than the true airspeed (TAS).
Equal to the true airspeed (TAS).
When climbing at a constant Mach number below the Tropopause, in ISA conditions, the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will:
Increase at an exponential rate.
Decrease.
Increase at a linear rate.
Remain constant.
A radio altimeter can be defined as a:
Self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft.
Ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft.
Ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft.
Self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft.
The purpose of compass swinging is to determine the deviation of a magnetic compass:
On only one heading
At any latitude.
At a given latitude.
On any heading.
Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum operational speed (VMO), for a maximum groundspeed descent from a high flight level, you will be limited:
Initially by the VMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight level.
By the MMO.
By the VMO in still air.
Initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level.
Vfe is the maximum speed:
With the flaps extended in take-off position.
With the flaps extended in a given position.
With the flaps extended in landing position.
At which the flaps can be operated.
VLO is the maximum:
Flight speed with landing gear down.
Speed with flaps extended in a given position.
Cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution.
Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.
A "resolution advisory" (RA) is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by a:
Red full circle.
Red Full Square.
Blue or white full lozenge.
Blue or white empty lozenge.
When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will:
Under read.
Be just as correct as before.
Show the actual height above ground.
Over read.
