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Worksheets

1-150

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The fuselage station number shows the distance of a cross section from X=0 is measured in:

a)

Inch

b)

Centimeter

c)

Millimeter

2.

Access doors and panels are identified by:

a)

Four-character code (3 digits of its zone and 1 letters)

b)

Five-character code (3 digits of its zone and 2 letters)

c)

Five-character code (2 letters and 3 digits of its zone)

3.

There are how many major zones in the aircraft

a)

6

b)

8

c)

10

4.

Aircraft Maintenance Configuration before you Lift the aircraft

a)

Remove the wheel chocks if they are in position, set the parking brake control switch to the OFF

b)

Install the wheel chocks, set the parking brake control switch to OFF.

c)

Remove the wheel chocks if they are in position, set the parking brake control switch to ON.

5.

When you jack aircraft for wheel change

a)

Loading/unloading or fueling operation are not allowed

b)

You can do loading/unloading or fueling operation

c)

You can only do fueling operation, loading/unloading is not allowed

6.

To prepare aircraft for lifting, before installing the jack pads you need

a)

Open 3 access panels and install jack pads

b)

Open 01 access panel for NLG jack pad only

c)

Open 02 access panels for MLG jack pads only

7.

How many jack do you need to jack the aircraft:

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

8.

When you jack the MLG with two rear tires are deflated and two forward tires are inflated

a)

You can lift the forward axles as normal

b)

Put the JACK - WHEEL CHANGE, MAIN/NOSE LANDING GEAR in position on the side where the tires are deflated until the adapter touches the ball pad of the bogie

c)

Replace them before you lift the forward axles

9.

Towing can be carried out using

a)

Tow bar or towbarless tractor at NLG.

b)

Tow bar or towbarless tractor at MLG(s)

c)

Tow bar at NLG only

10.

Before you tow the aircraft make sure that dimension H of the NLG is not more than.

a)

385mm

b)

310mm

c)

300mm

11.

The maximum permitted towing-angle on each side of the aircraft centerline is

a)

60 degrees

b)

72 degrees

c)

75 degrees

12.

If the passenger/crew doors are fully open and locked and/or the cargo doors are open in the

a)

You are not allow to tow the aircraft

b)

You can tow the aircraft with certain limited speed

c)

You can tow the aircraft with certain limited wind speed

13.

When towing by the NLG from the Front with a Towbar on Battery-Power Only, the maximum

a)

20 minutes

b)

25 minutes

c)

30 minutes

14.

You can tow an aircraft which has deflated tires in these conditions on the NLG

a)

Not more than one deflated tire

b)

Tow the aircraft with a towbar only

c)

Both of above

15.

You can tow an aircraft which has deflated tires in these conditions on the MLG

a)

Not more than three deflated tires on both MLGs

b)

Not more than one deflated tire on the same axle

c)

Both of above

16.

When you replace the wheel and tire assembly which has a deflated tire after towing

a)

You can replace the wheel and tire only

b)

You must also replace the adjacent wheel and tire assembly on the same axle

c)

You must also replace the adjacent wheel and tire assembly on the same MLG

17.

When towing by the NLG from the Front with a Towbar on Battery-Power Only, which battery

a)

BAT 2

b)

BAT 1

c)

EMER BAT 1 and EMER BAT 2

18.

When you do pressure Refuel with Automatic Control from the Integrated Refuel Panel

a)

You can enter the Preselected Fuel Quantity (PFQ) through the Flight Management System (FMS).

b)

You cannot enter the Preselected Fuel Quantity (PFQ) through the Flight Management System (FMS).

c)

You can enter the Preselected Fuel Quantity (PFQ) through the Flight Management System (FMS)

19.

During pressure refuel, the maximum refuel pressure is limited to 3.4 BAR(50 PSI)

a)

To prevent from causing damage to the aircraft fuel system

b)

To limit the fuel flow into the tank

c)

To prevent from closing the refuel isolation valve by FQMS

20.

You can use air for the servicing of the tires

a)

No

b)

Yes, if the oxygen in the tires is not more than 5% of volume

c)

Yes, if maintenance personnel remove the air from the tire(s) and inflate the tire(s) with dry nitrogen

21.

AIRBUS recommends that when you inflate the tires, you use the maximum normal pressure

a)

This is necessary to keep tire will not be worn on the shoulder

b)

This is necessary to keep tire inflation to a minimum

c)

This is necessary to keep tire inflation to a maximum

22.

Procedure when you filling of the Pneumatic Starter

a)

Fill the engine oil at a rate of 4 strokes per minute for up to 9 strokes. Then fill at a rate of 1 stroke per minute until the engine oil starts to spill from the overfill port

b)

Fill the engine oil at a rate of 4 strokes per minute until the oil starts to spill from the overfill port

c)

Fill the engine oil at a rate of 9 stroke per minute until the oil starts to spill from the overfill port

23.

AWG means

a)

Wire size

b)

Wire Resistance

c)

Aircraft Wiring Guide

24.

In General case, Wire P/N Identification:

a)

Standard P/N + Wire type code + Wire gauge.

b)

Standard P/N + Code letter for number of cores + Wire gauge

c)

Standard P/N + Wire gauge + Insulation color code

25.

Continuity Test of an Aircraft Wire, you can do Continuity test:

a)

With aircraft wire connected to a grounding point

b)

With an extension wire.

c)

With aircraft wire connected to a grounding point Or with an extension wire.

26.

What is operation you should not do in storm condition?

a)

Refuel/ defuel operation

b)

Refuel/ defuel operation and use headset to communicate with flight deck from ground connection

c)

Use headset to communicate with flight deck from ground connection

27.

To do a check of the insulation test, you must use

a)

MEGOHMMETER

b)

OHMMETER

c)

None specific

28.

The Trim Air Valve can be manually Positioned and locked

a)

Yes, can be manually positioned and locked 3 positions(Closed, LO, HI Pos)

b)

Yes, Locked 2 positions(Closed, Opened)

c)

Yes, Locked 2 Positions(Closed, LO Position)

29.

For Filling SCS which purpose of the Interconnection Cable to connect between Ground Service Panel and Ground Service Equipment

a)

Supply Electrical power for SCS

b)

Set the SCS from Standby to Servicing Mode

c)

Supply Electrical Power for Ground Service Equipment

30.

Which purpose of nitrogen supply to SCS Ground Service Equipment when filling SCS(

a)

Supply nitrogen for Accumulator of SCS

b)

Using nitrogen Pressure to pressurized filling system

c)

Using nitrogen pressure to push SCS coolant in hose return to Ground Service EquipmentTank

31.

On the overhead reset panel, when you pull PACK1 (2) Reset Pushbutton this mean reset which

a)

ASCU1(2)

b)

ASCU1(2) and relate ACS application in CPIOM

c)

ASCU1(2) and ACU1(2)

32.

For quickly control Pack Outlet Temperature, which component main control by ACSU

a)

RAM Air inlet Door Actuator and Ram Air Outlet Door Actuator

b)

Temp control Valve

c)

Temp Control Valve and Pack Discharge Heating-Valve

33.

Which purpose of the Pack Discharge Heating Valve

a)

Add more hot air for increase temperature of pack outlet

b)

Minimum humid and also decrease ice build up

c)

Stop supply from pack when pack overheat

34.

For control temperature of pack outlet, which component using by ACSU to get lowest temp

a)

Water extractor temperature-sensor and pack discharge temperature-sensor.

b)

Pack discharge Temperature sensor and compressor pack discharge sensor

c)

Main Heat exchangerOutlet Temp Sensor and Pack Discharge

35.

Which component take important data for ACSU control pack outlet temperature

a)

Pack discharge temperature Sensor

b)

Compressor Discharge Temperature-Sensor

c)

Water Extractor Temperature-Sensor

36.

In flight if packs overheat

a)

Pack auto shutdown for prevent damaged component

b)

Pack will continue to operated

c)

Depend A/C Attitude

37.

What is the Function of Supplemental Cooling System (SCS)

a)

Maintains and cooling pack bay compartment

b)

May cooling for avionic system

c)

Maintains at low temperature the air in the trolleys of the galleys

38.

In normal operation the Avionics Ventilation System (AVS) uses?

a)

The cargo air to ventilate the avionic equipments

b)

The cooled fresh air from mixer to ventilate the avionic equipments

c)

The cooled re-circulated air to ventilate the avionic equipments

39.

When the DITCHING P/B SW set ON, which component will be close

a)

FCV, avionic overboard valve, avinonic inboard valve

b)

RAI door, Out Flow control Valve,

c)

FCV, RAI door, avionic overboard valve, OFV

40.

The Emergency Ram Air Inlet (ERAI) door is controlled open

a)

Automatically in case of failure of both Packs and the aircraft in emergency descent configuration

b)

Manually by pushing the RAM AIR P/B SW and the A/C altitude is less than 10000 feet .

c)

Both of above

41.

How does the overboard valve of the Avionic Ventilation System operate

a)

On ground the overboard valve is in fully open position

b)

In flight configuration, the overboard is in the closed position

c)

Both of above

42.

What is true regarding the operation of the Overpressure Relief Valve

a)

It includes a Positive Pressure Relief and also a Negative Pressure Relief feature

b)

It has a Positive Pressure Relief feature only.

c)

It has a Negative Pressure Relief feature only

43.

What is the Function of premixer unit?

a)

Prevent ice accretion, decreesa noise

b)

Mix by ice inside mixer unit

c)

Prevent over-pressure in mixer unit

44.

In avionic ventilation system. If one extraction fan Inop

a)

Both overboard valve and inboard valve fully open

b)

Another fan increase speed

c)

Overboard valve open and inboard valve fully close

45.

Which is menthod control temperature in cabin and cockpit

a)

Supply hot air to distribution duct

b)

Use heating by electrical

c)

Both above

46.

The ASCUs (Air Systems Control Units) installed in:

a)

Avionic compartment

b)

Forward cargo

c)

The air conditioning compartment.

47.

Relate to ASCU? Which answers follow is correct

a)

Each ASCU control related Pack

b)

ASCU is dual Channel controller, one channel in active mode, one in standby mode

c)

Both above

48.

In case of the AP is engaged

a)

Only the Side Stick Unit (SSU) is locked

b)

Only the rudder pedals is locked

c)

The Side Stick Unit (SSU) and the rudder pedals are locked

49.

In case of ATHR engaged but not active

a)

It manages the thrust

b)

The cockpit crews control the thrust through the throttle control levers

c)

The thrust of engine limit at idle position

50.

The Auto Flight System (AFS) calculates orders to automatically control the

a)

Flight controls and the engines

b)

The Yaw Damper and the engines

c)

The Primary Flight Display and the Navigation Display

51.

To select, change and monitor the F-PLN. The flight crew used:

a)

The KCCUs (Keyboard and cursor control units) and the MFDs (Multi-Function Displays),

b)

The KCCUs (Keyboard and cursor control units) and the FCU (Flight Control Unit),

c)

The KCCUs (Keyboard and cursor control units) and the NDs (Navigation Displays).

52.

Detection of abnormal configurations is the function of:

a)

Flight Management (FM).

b)

Autopilot (AP)/Flight Director (FD)

c)

Flight Envelope (FE)

53.

The NAV (Navigation) Database (DB):

a)

Is used to make the lateral F-PLN with waypoints, radio navigation aids and runways,

b)

Has a worldwide coverage. The DB content is updated every 28 days by the airline who is responsible

c)

Both answers are correct.

54.

The functions of the Automatic Flight System (AFS) are:

a)

To increase the flight safety, reduce the crew workload and optimize the fuel consumption

b)

To increase the flight safety and reduce the crew workload

c)

To increase the flight safety and optimize the fuel consumption

55.

What is the function of Flight Director?

a)

Give orders tot he Nose Wheel Steering (NWS) system for small adjustments during automatic landing

b)

Give guidance orders to the flight crew for manual control of the aircraft

c)

a)  Give order to the Braking Control System (BCS) for the Brake-To-Vacate (BTV) function

56.

1.    The Flight Guidance and Envelope System (FGES) includes:

a)

a)  The Flight Control Unit (FCU)

b)

a)   The FCU backup function

c)

a)  Both of above

57.

What is the function of the Flight Guidance and Envelope System (FGES)

a)

Interface between the flight crew and the Automatic Flight System (AFS).

b)

Used control of the aircraft for long term

c)

Used control of the aircraft for short term

58.

The HF system installed on the A/C is used for

a)

the long-range voice and data communications (1600 nm)

b)

the short-range voice and data communications (250 nm)

c)

Data transmission to and from ACRS only.

59.

The VHF system installed on the A/C is used for

a)

the long-range voice and data communications (1600 nm)

b)

the short-range voice and data communications (250 nm)

c)

Data transmission to and from ACRS only.

60.

Which VHF system using for data transmission in normally?

a)

VHF 1

b)

VHF 2

c)

VHF 3

61.

The HF transmission in voice and data mode is inhibited

a)

During flight

b)

On ground during fuel operations (refuel, defuel, transfer operations) through a specific signal from the Fuel Quantity and Management System (FQMS)

c)

During engine start

62.

The HF data transmission is automatically inhibited

a)

On ground by the LGERS ground signal

b)

During flight

c)

During engine start

63.

The Avionics Communication Routing System (ACRS) is used for

a)

The routing of the air/ground data through the Aircraft Communication Addressing and Reporting

b)

The Internet Protocol (IP) network

c)

Both a and B

64.

The primary components of the RAIMS (Radio and Audio Integrating Management System) are:

a)

One Audio Management Units (AMUs), Three Radio and Audio Management Panels (RMPs)

b)

Two Audio Management Units (AMUs), two Radio and Audio Management Panels (RMPs)

c)

Two Audio Management Units (AMUs), Three Radio and Audio Management Panels (RMPs)

65.

In normal configuration:

a)

The RMP1 is used by the CAPT, The RMP2 is used by the F/O

b)

The RMP1 is used by the CAPT, The RMP2 is used by the 3rd Occupant

c)

The RMP1 is used by the F/O, The RMP3 is used by the 3rd Occupant

66.

If there is an RMP failure

a)

The flight crew must manually switch by pushbutton on the overhead panel.

b)

The automatic reconfiguration in the audio management system will be done by AMU

c)

The AMU connect to these RMP will become inoperative

67.

In normal configuration, VHF 1 can be tuned from

a)

RMP 1 only

b)

RMP 2 only

c)

Any RMPs with the RMP intercommunication bus

68.

If a ground mechanic calls the cockpit from the GSP

a)

An indication is shown on the captain RMP and the FWS triggers the buzzer

b)

an indication is shown on the three RMPs and the FWS triggers the buzzer

c)

an indication is shown on the F/O RMP and the FWS triggers the buzzer

69.

What happen when the flight crews press the MECH p/b on the CALLS panel?

a)

the horn at the NLG area will be activated

b)

A specific indication on the GSP comes into view

c)

Both a and b

70.

An Underwater Locating Beacon (ULB), whose function is to emit audio signals when

a)

It is touch the ground

b)

It is immersed into the water

c)

It is broken

71.

Which of situation make the ELT indicator light on ground Service Panel (GSP) of the NLG illuminate and the horn at the NLG bay operate?

a)

When the ELT transmits in flight

b)

When the ELT automatic transmits

c)

When the ELT transmits on ground

72.

How many External Power Receptacles (EXT PWR RCPTs) are available to connect one or two 115VAC 400Hz three-phases GPUs and to supply the aircraft electrical network on ground?(

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

73.

External power "AVAIL" information of the GPU is shown in the cockpit on the "ELEC" panel

a)

Nose wheel steering box

b)

External power Panel

c)

Integrated Refuel Panel

74.

The status and parameters of the external power supply is shown on

a)

The ELEC AC page of the ECAM SD

b)

The ELEC DC page of the ECAM SD.

c)

The CB page of the ECAM SD.

75.

The function of the ATUs is to change

a)

the 230VAC into 115VAC

b)

The 115VAC into 230VAC

c)

Both a and b

76.

The main Function of a TR is to convert

a)

115 VAC to 28VDC

b)

230 VAC to 115 VAC

c)

230VAC to 28VDC

77.

How to deploy the RAT manually?

a)

The flight crew can push the guarded MAN ON pushbutton switch

b)

The flight crew can active in MFD

c)

The flight crew can push the guarded RAT MAN ON pushbutton switch

78.

Where is RAT install?

a)

On the Left hand belly fairing

b)

On the Right hand Belly fairing

c)

On the Left hand Number 4 flap track fairing

79.

What is the function of static inverter?

a)

It changes the 28VDC from emergency battery 1 into single phase 230 VAC 400Hz

b)

It changes the 28VDC from emergency battery 1 into single phase 115VAC 400Hz

c)

It changes the 28VDC from emergency battery 1 into three phases 230 VAC 400Hz

80.

When the A/C receives GND PWR to energize only system for ground service, the mechanic can

a)

GND SVCE CTL Switch installed on the EXT PWR RECEPTACLES and on cabin door 1L

b)

GND SVCE CTL Switch installed on the nose landing gear and on cabin door 1L

c)

GND SVCE CTL Switch installed on the nose landing gear and on Integrated Refuel Panel

81.

To do the servicing of the oil systems of the VFGs

a)

It is necessary to open the left fan-cowl door for access

b)

It is necessary to open the right fan-cowl door for access

c)

It is necessary to open the left c duct for access

82.

For each VFG, a magnet that collects metal particles is installed

a)

On the separate chip detector

b)

On the drain plug

c)

On the SAOHE

83.

At the end of VFG oil servicing procedure

a)

The oil level must be near the top of this green area.

b)

The oil level must be near the top of this red area.

c)

The oil level must be near the bottom of this green area.

84.

VFG Low Oil Lever trigged when

a)

In flight

b)

On Ground and after 6 min after Engine Shutdown

c)

On ground and engine running

85.

For a de-energized aircraft

a)

It is possible to deploy the RAT on the ground, because the auto/manual solenoid is supplied from

b)

It is not possible to deploy the RAT on the ground

c)

It is possible to stow the RAT on the ground

86.

The TOWING ON BAT section of the maintenance panels can give the charge level of

a)

Battery 2 only

b)

Battery 1 only

c)

Both Batteries

87.

The ESN standard parts are identified by

a)

Blue identification labels and sleeves

b)

Red identification labels and sleeves

c)

Green identification labels and sleeves

88.

Related to Cockpit Seats. Which answers follow corrected?

a)

Two symmetrical seats, third occupant with a mechanical control, fourth occupant without adjustment

b)

Two symmetrical seats,third and fourth occupant with a mechanical control

c)

Two symmetrical seats with electrical and mechanical control, third occupant with a mechanical

89.

Third Occupant Seat has:(A, B1, B2)

a)

Only mechanical controls

b)

Mechanical controls and electrical controls

c)

Only electrical controls

90.

The side stick armrests (Captain and First Officer seats) are:(A, B1, B2)

a)

Symmetrical for the Captain and First Officer

b)

Asymmetrical for the Captain and First Officer.

c)

Interchangeable for the Captain and First Officer.

91.

The captain and First Officer Seat Backrest adjusment(Recline Function) by..?(A, B1, B2)

a)

Mechanical

b)

Electrical

c)

Electrical and Mechanical

92.

Lavatory Door(s) can be:(A, B1, B2)

a)

Unlocked and opened from the outside of the lavatory.

b)

Unlocked and opened from the insideside of the lavatory only.

c)

Locked from the outside of the lavatory.

93.

Which type follow for LAV Door? (A, B1, B2)

a)

Single Door and Double Door

b)

Single Door and Bi Folding Door

c)

All Above

94.

After dado panels open: A, B1, B2)

a)

Dado panel can be reseted

b)

Dado panels must be replace

c)

Related side wall panel must be replcae

95.

How many position for Cockpit Sliding Table?(A, B1, B2)

a)

Stowed, Deployed with two position

b)

Stowed and Deployed at one position

c)

Deployed with two position

96.

Cockpit escape Hatch can manually open it from…?(A, B1, B2)

a)

From outside and inside A/C

b)

Only from inside A/C

c)

From outside and inside A/C with standard tool

97.

How many evacuation path to escape from cockpit in an emergency?(A, B1, B2

a)

through the cockpit door

b)

through the cockpit door and escape hatch, slide window

c)

through the cockpit door and escape hatch

98.

If the remote control fails for bin lockers:

a)

There is an emergency override mechanism on each locker to unlatch the catcher with a tool

b)

Pushing the emergency override mechanism on each locker to unlatch the catcher by hand

c)

Pushing the emergency override mechanism on each locker to unlatch the catcher by hand cannot open the bin locker

99.

The Passenger service channel is designed to host these standard assemblies:

a)

loudspeaker, smoke detectors, reading lights, air outlet diffusers

b)

loudspeaker, reading lights, air outlet diffusers & emergency oxygen containers

c)

loudspeaker, smoke detectors, reading lights, emergency oxygen containers

100.

The door of FCRC(Flight Crew Rest Compartment) is latched:

a)

By the mechanical latch.

b)

By the electrical latch

c)

By the CDLS(Cockpit Door Locking System)

101.

Where are Onboard Information Services(OIS) keyboard installed?

a)

On the main instrument panel

b)

On the sliding table of the pilot.

c)

On the centrer pedestal

102.

Where are Emergency oxygen containers installed?

a)

On the passenger service channel

b)

On the ceiling panel.

c)

Under the passenger seat.

103.

How to open the overhead stowage compartment bin:

a)

manual actuator remotely controls the catcher of the two bin lockers by cables

b)

A manual actuator remotely controls the catcher of the one bin lockers by cable

c)

A torque motor controls the catcher of the two bin lockers by rods

104.

THE SLIDE CASE LOCK TYPE OF DECORATIVE PANEL IN CABIN CAN BE UNLOCK

a)

Specific tool

b)

Non specific tool

c)

Pull panel which strong force

105.

HOW TO CONTROL THE RECLINE FUNCTION OF THE ECONOMY SEAT CLASS?

a)

Thought electrical push button in seat arm rest

b)

Thought the hydraulic lock mechanism.

c)

Thought A recline lock mechanism (hydro-lock) which remotely controlled by a recline control

106.

How to control the SEAT Power suplly fucntion of the business class seat?

a)

Thought the SPDBs

b)

Thought the RCCBs

c)

Thought the relay

107.

How to To deactivate the business seat actuation system ?

a)

By Power off switch in FAP

b)

By a power-off switch is installed under the seat.

c)

By IFE control center

108.

In FCRC There is an emergency exit hatch installed on the rear part of the working area. The emergency exit is closed by a panel with

a)

an composit solid panel

b)

an alluminum panel.

c)

an integrated rapid decompression panel

109.

Which of sentense is correct?

a)

All galleys in all installation areas have direct interfaces to the aircraft

b)

All galleys have not direct interfaces to the aircraft

c)

Only AFT galleys have direct interfaces to the aircraft.

110.

The power supply for GAIN control via

a)

RCCB

b)

SSPC

c)

Both a and b

111.

The packboards of slideraft in passenger door

a)

Are fully interchangeable.

b)

Are interchangeable but need spcific condition.

c)

Are not interchangeable.

112.

If an overheating of Business class seat actuation system is detected:

a)

The system is automatically switched off until affected unit is cooled down,

b)

A failure will be sent to IFE (In-Flight Entertainment) network,

c)

The seat actuation system should be deactivated

113.

What is correct statement for rapid decompression?

a)

The rapid decompression function and the emergency exit function are independent from each other,

b)

All the RDPs (Rapid Decompression Panels) are hand load safe and blow out panels tied with

c)

Both a and b are correct.

114.

The function of GNCs (Galley Network Controllers) are:

a)

Network monitoring and data transfer,

b)

Network monitoring and local power supply management of related GAINs (Galley Insert),

c)

Network monitoring, data transfer and local power supply management of related GAINs

115.

The CCRC has one emergency exit hatch opening into

a)

The cabin area, above the pax seat

b)

The cabin area, left aisle

c)

The Aft galley

116.

In an emergency, the ELT system starts to transmit distress signals for a minimum of:

a)

24 hours

b)

48 hours.

c)

32 hours.

117.

Where are the cabin dado panel mounted?

a)

On the upper sidewall panels

b)

On the ceiling panels

c)

On the lower sidewall panels

118.

Which passenger seats are the airbag seatbelt installed?

a)

All the seat

b)

Only the B/C seat

c)

The first row seat of all compartment

119.

In Inflatable Seat-Belt Airbag, what is the power supply of the electronics module assembly

a)

Battery

b)

Aircraft electrical system

c)

Both A&B

120.

If there is a rapid decompression in the cabin or in the cargo compartment, the rapid decompression panel of the cockpit door will

a)

Opens into the cabin area

b)

Opens into the cockpit area

c)

Open the cockpit door

121.

If there is a rapid decompression in the cockpit, the Cockpit Door Locking System (CDLS) will

a)

Open the rapid decompression panel of the cockpit door

b)

Unlocks the cockpit door.

c)

Both A & B

122.

Which frequencies does the ELT system transmit?

a)

121.5 MHz and 243 MHz

b)

406MHz during the first 24 hours of operation and 121.5 MHz & 243 MHz .

c)

243MHz during the first 24 hours of operation and 121.5 MHz & 406 MHz .

123.

How does the slide raft lighting system operate?

a)

It starts automatically when the slide/raft deploys and use the aircraft power

b)

It starts automatically when the slide/raft deploys and use itself power

c)

It starts manually when the slide/raft deploys and use itself power

124.

Where are electrical medical outlet panels?

a)

Beside the door 2 LH and RH

b)

In the Business class compartment

c)

In the lateral passenger supply channel(s) forward of door 4

125.

Which power do the medical outlets supply?

a)

230 VAC

b)

115 VAC

c)

Both A & B

126.

How do the life vests inflate?

a)

User pulls on the inflator of the carbon dioxide cylinder.

b)

User use oral inflation tube

c)

Both A & B

127.

How do the temperature of heated floor panel adjust?

a)

Fully automatically by IPCU

b)

Possible to adjust the temperature level on the FAP

c)

Possible to adjust the temperature from Cockpit

128.

Which area in a/c to protect for Fire and Overheat?

a)

Engines, APU

b)

Engines, APU, MLG Bay

c)

Engines, APU, MLG Bay, Cabin, Cargo

129.

Which the Function of the Conversion Module?

a)

Change the analog signals to digital signals

b)

Supply Electrical Power to Fire Loop

c)

Exchange data to monitor the fire detectors

130.

How to test smoke system?

a)

Perform test thought OMT

b)

Push Smoke Test Pushbutton on Overhead panel

c)

Both above

131.

When you Push and Hold Fire Test Pushbutton on the overhead panel, on the FIRE section of

a)

Operational check of MLG-BAY, APU and Engine Fire Protection System

b)

Operational Check of APU or Engine Fire Protection System

c)

Operational Check of APU, Engine Fire Protection System and Cargo Fire Protection System

132.

Smoke Detection System is installed in:

a)

The lavatories.

b)

Cabin Crew Rest Compartment (CCRC) and Flight Crew Rest Compartment (FCRC).

c)

All of aboves.

133.

Which Mode for APU Extinguishing system when aircraft in flight?

a)

Automatic and Manually

b)

Manually only

c)

Automatic

134.

How many fire extinguisher bottles on each engine

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

135.

If there is a fire on engine, the engine fire extinguishing system is done by

a)

Automatic by FPF application hosted in CPIOM.

b)

Manual by crew action

c)

Both a and b

136.

How many fire extinguisher bottles on APU:

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

137.

The cabin and LAV fire extinguishing system (FES) has

a)

Portable fire extinguisher bottles in cabin and LAV.

b)

Fire extinguisher bottles in waste bin of LAV and cabin.

c)

Portable fire extinguisher bottles in cabin and Fire extinguisher bottles in waste bin of LAV

138.

How many fire extinguisher bottles on cargo:

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

139.

How is APU fire extinguishing system working:

a)

Automatically by FPF application hosted in CPIOM when AC in flight or Manual by action of crew.

b)

Automatically by FPF application hosted in CPIOM in flight.

c)

Automatically by FPF application hosted in CPIOM when AC on Ground or Manual by action of crew.

140.

If MLG BAY FIRE is warning:

a)

MLG BAY fire extinguishing system is automatically working by FPF application hosted in CPIOM

b)

MLG BAY fire extinguishing system is manually working by push AGENT P/BSW.

c)

There is no fire extinguishing system for MLG BAY. Crew must follow checklist of Emergency

141.

Related to Extended Range Operations for Two-Engine Aeroplanes (ETOPS), which answer

a)

Size of the two fire extinguishing bottle different

b)

Size of the fire extinguishing bottle 2 different

c)

Not Related to fire extinguishing bottle

142.

In the conventional servo control actuator(A, B1, B2)

a)

The servo valve decides the direction and movement speed of actuator

b)

The rotation direction and rotation speed of the pump decide the direction and movement speed of

c)

The servo valve or the pump will decide the direction and movement speed of actuator

143.

In the EHA(electro hydraulic actuator)(A, B1, B2)

a)

The servo valve decides the direction and movement speed of actuator

b)

The rotation direction and rotation speed of the pump decide the direction and movement speed of

c)

The servo valve or the pump will decide the direction and movement speed of actuator

144.

In the EBHA(A, B1, B2)

a)

The servo valve decides the direction and movement speed of actuator

b)

The rotation direction and rotation speed of the pump decide the direction and movement speed of

c)

The servo valve or the pump will decide the direction and movement speed of actuator

145.

Which control surfaces can be actuated by EHA(A, B1, B2)

a)

Inboard ailerons, outboard ailerons, elevators, rudder

b)

Inboard ailerons, outboard ailerons, elevators, rudder, spoilers

c)

Inboard ailerons, elevators, rudder

146.

Which control surfaces are actuated by EBHA(A, B1, B2)

a)

Inboard ailerons, elevators, rudder

b)

Rudders, elevators

c)

Spoilers number 05

147.

The normal control laws supply protections:(A, B1, B2)

a)

Load factor protection, angle of attack protection, high speed protection, bank angle protection

b)

Load factor protection, angle of attack protection, low speed protection, bank angle protection

c)

Load factor protection, angle of attack protection, low speed protection, high speed protection, bank

148.

1.The reference (station 0) for all structural measurements in the X axis is located

a)

a)  210.2 in.(5340mm) forward of the aircraft nose.

b)

a)  251.2 in. (6382 mm) forward of the aircraft nose

c)

a)  100 in. (2540 mm) forward of the aircraft nose.

149.

1.  Aircraft Maintenance Configuration before you Lift the aircraft

a)

a)  Make sure that the passenger/crew doors and the cargo doors are: Closed and locked or fully open and

b)

a)  Make sure that the passenger/crew are closed and locked and cargo doors are Closed and locked or

c)

a)  Make sure that the passenger/crew doors and the cargo doors are: Closed and locked

150.

1.  You can lift the two axles of the bogie beam of the same MLG at the same time

a)

a)  No

b)

a)  Yes, if you keep the bogie beam approximately level

c)

a)  Yes, if the aircraft is stable